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In Defence of Reasons

and Other Criticisms of D.Miller’s Critical Rationalism

by Dmitry Sepety,

Zaporizhzhya State Medical University, Ukraine

[email protected]

                                                         

 “The principles that form the basis of every rational discussion, that is, of every discussion undertaken in the search for truth… 1. The principle of fallibility… 2. The principle of rational discussion: we want to try, as impersonally as possible, to weigh up our reasons for and against a theory… 3. The principle of approximation to the truth…”

(Popper 1992, 199)

One of the Myths about Popper’s Philosophy

There are several widespread myths about Popper’s philosophy of knowledge. Historically the most influential is the positivist myth that Popper’s philosophy is a variety of positivism. This myth seems gradually to come out of fashion to be replaced with another one: that Popper’s philosophy is ‘eccentric views’ on the verge of irrationality or beyond it.

My first encounter with this myth was in the books of Stephen Law, an ingenious populariser of philosophy (author of two bestsellers – “The Philosophy Stories” and “The Philosophy Gym”), though not always competent in what he writes about. S.Law attributes to Popper the view "that we never possess any grounds for supposing that a scientific theory is true” (Law 2004, 126). Moreover, he writes that Popper, in effect, accepts Hume’s conclusion that beliefs (1) that tomorrow morning the sun will appear over the horizon and (2) that tomorrow morning a million-mile-wide luminous panda will appear over the horizon are equally reasonable (Law 2007, 175). I had e-mail discussion with mr. Law, and he has remarked that this is "a very common understanding of Popper". I don’t know if I have succeeded to change mr. Law’s views with my explanations and arguments.

At that time I thought that this myth, which directly contradicts many Popper’s statements, is due to his incompetent and ill-disposed opponents. A few years later, when I started my familiarizing with works of Popper’s followers, I was amazed to discover that some of them interpret Popper’s philosophy of critical rationalism in a way very much like that in S.Law’s quotations. The most reputed of them is David Miller. (Another example is the article of Antoni Diller “On Critical and Pancritical Rationalism”, which I criticize in the article On Alleged Flaws of Pancritical Rationalism.)

Miller’s high repute is based on a friendship and close collaboration with Popper, and also on his incontestable critical contribution to the philosophy of critical rationalism which consists in being one of the first logicians who showed Popper that his definition of verisimilitude as a matter of more truths and less falsities in the logical content of a theory is untenable.

Because of Miller’s high repute, he is often taken as the first modern authority on critical rationalism, and Popper’s own philosophy is understood in the light of Miller’s explanations and developments.[1] In this article I argue that this may be misleading in some important respects; that Popper’s philosophy was both much more commonsense and more rich and complicated, and that some Miller’s developments are hardly beneficent for critical rationalism.

I consider as the most important point of difference the question about reasons – their "job" and importance for rational thought. Miller expounds critical rationalism as banishing reasons of all kinds, without informing that this was not Popper’s view, that Popper really considered some kind of reasons – which he did call 'critical reasons' – as integral for rationality. Besides, I think there are other important differences between Popper’s and Miller’s critical rationalisms. They concern with questions: what theories belong to empirical sciences? if they all have the equal status? if there is any practical need to estimate reliability of theories and probability of predictable events?

There is yet another important question where I disagree with Miller: whether science needs some metaphysical presuppositions (assumptions) about “immutability or order of nature”, “that there is some regularity in the world”? (On this question, Miller and Popper seem to agree, though Popper’s view is not so unequivocal.)

 

1. Critical Rationalism and Reasons

Miller on Reason and Reasons

In Chapter 3 of his Critical Rationalism: A Restatement and Defence Miller wages war against reasons – of all kinds: sufficient, good, positive, negative...

I am afraid that I don’t quite well understand what Miller really means. He doesn’t quite deny that there are reasons, but state that they “have no job” and have nothing to do with rationality:

“Reasons exist, no doubt, at least in the subjective sense, but not good ones... But this does not imply that rationality is impossible, either in intellectual affairs or in practice. Reason has a job to do in every sphere; reasons, poor things, have not.” (Miller 1994, 52)

Possibly this is to be understood in the meaning: all there is to "reasons" is just subjective feelings which “do no job” in the process of acquisition and development of knowledge, except possibly bad job, – if it does any, it is quite irrelevant to rationality. Miller directly states this about “good reasons”:

“The subjective feeling of being in possession of good reasons may exist. But as far as rational thought is concerned, evaluation in terms of good reasons is a pure epiphenomenon.” (Miller 1994, 66)

I still wonder how to understand Miller’s banishment of reasons from epistemology. Does Miller means that arguments and criticisms “have no job” and are irrelevant for rationality? No, he doesn’t, at least with respect to criticisms (negative arguments). But if so, I am puzzled about 'reasons'. May be, Miller uses that word in some specific technical meaning which I fail to catch clearly enough. So, I must admit that I don’t know what Miller means by 'reasons'. The pity is, Miller doesn’t explain.

In my understanding, 'reasons' means whatever is relevant to judgement on truth/falsity, or truthlikeness, or plausibility of position under examination. Arguments (criticisms) are just statements of reasons. To argue for the position X, or to argue against X (to criticise Õ) is to say: “I think X is (not) the case, for {reason}” or “I think "X" is true (or false or truthlike or untruthlike or plausible or implausible), for {reason}”. Reasons are nothing but contents of arguments (criticisms). As for predicate "good" or even "sufficient" I think it can be well used in the meaning: making the case for belief "X" or against "X" plausible enough with respects to purposes at hand.[2]

Now let us look at specific kinds of reasons Miller rejects.

Sufficient reasons. By sufficient reasons Miller means those which guarantee the truth of the position under examination. I, as fallibilist, agree with Miller that such reasons don’t exist.

Good reasons. Here I am not sure what Miller means. Miller describes good reasons as “sufficient or even partly sufficient favourable (or positive) reasons for accepting a hypothesis rather than rejecting it, or for rejecting it rather than accepting it, or for implementing a policy, or for not doing so” (Miller 1994, 52).

Now I am completely at loss how to understand denying existence of such reasons, except if Miller uses phrase "sufficient reason" in the strong meaning, as described above. But if so, I don’t understand what "partly sufficient reasons" (later usually referred to as "insufficient reasons") means. Or may be Miller denies only favourable (or positive) reasons? No, Miller includes also reasons “for rejecting it rather than accepting”, – i.e. unfavourable (or negative) reasons.

Really, Miller admits that his idea of what "good reason" means is rather vague. He writes:

“It would help if I had a better idea of what good reasons are supposed to be good for.” (Miller 1994, 60)

As I sometimes use the word-combination "good reason" or "weighty reason" (on supposition that such things exist), as I sometimes judge some reasons as good (or weighty), I can readily explain what I mean. And I guess that usually those who talk about good reasons mean the same.

For me, good (weighty) reasons are those which I judge good (weighty) enough for the purpose at hand, – for judging, or classifying (however conjecturally and tentatively) the position under examination as true (or truthlike, sound, plausible, commendable etc.) or false (or untruthlike, unsound, implausible, censurable etc.). Or, as weighty enough to influence considerably the balance, to make the case for/against the proposition under consideration stronger/weaker.

Miller seems to mean by good reasons something different, for he writes:

“Although there are such things as good arguments, and it is these that the rationalist strives to provide, there are no such things as good reasons…” (Miller 1994, 51-52)

As I already said, I fail to understand what Miller means by divorcing arguments from reasons. For me, good arguments and good reasons are inseparable: good reasons are meanings (contents) of good arguments; good arguments are statements of good reasons.

 

Now about positive and negative reasons.

(1) Miller rejects positive reasons on the ground that they, on his view, necessarily beg the question under examination and entail infinite regress or vicious circle. Miller’s argument goes as follows:

B is a positive reason for A if and only if A is logically derivable (deducible) from B. But it is possible only if A is a part of logical content of B. If so, proposing B as reason for A is the same as proposing A as a reason for itself. It is begging the question. And if we continue the chain to C as positive reason for B, and D as positive reason for C etc. we will get infinite regress or logical circle, and each link of this chain is begging the same question. So, there can be no positive reasons.

(2) Miller discusses the question: if the same holds for negative reasons? Prima facia it seems that it holds. Miller describes the situation as follows:

Suppose e is logically derivable from h. In this case, not-h is logically derivable from not-e. Can not-e be proposed as reason for not-h? The fact is, that logical relation of not-e to not-h in this case is the same as relation of B to A in previous case. To make it more obvious let me designate not-e as ê and not-h as ĥ and rewrite:

ê is negative reason with respect to h if and only if ĥ is derivable from ê. But it is possible only if ĥ is a part of logical content of ê. If so, proposing ê as reason against h is the same as proposing ĥ as a reason for itself. It is begging the question.

But this doesn’t discourage Miller. He proposes “two responses open to critical rationalist here: one specious and superficial (though not wrong), the other simple and satisfying”.

(2.1) Miller writes:

“Although not-e may beg the question of not-h, it does not beg the question at issue, namely h.” (Miller 1994, 68)

I am very much amazed at Miller’s qualifying this response as spurious though not wrong. It is stark wrong. There is no question of not-h as distinct from question of h. The question is one: “If h?” (which can be as well formulated as “If not-h?” or “What is the case: h or not-h?” – the meaning is the same). h and not-h are possible answers, not question. And argument begging the question against h (in favour of not-h) is as fallacious as argument begging the question in favour of h.

Miller sees the difference which excuses negative reasoning in the fact that continuing the chain of criticisms doesn’t retain begging the initial question. Really, if ê is criticism for h; ĥ belongs to logical content of ê. Now if some g (different from h) is criticism of ê, then e belongs to logical content of g. But neither h nor ĥ needn’t belong to logical content of g. So, there is no that sort of regress as in the case of positive reasoning, when each new knot in the chain of "reasons" begs the initial question. Miller states that here we have not regress, but progress.

I don’t see how there can be progress. Really, moving this way we can change the question which is begged with each turn, but each step of this movement is as fallacious as in the case of positive reasoning. (Nor do I see why this chain of reasoning can be stopped at some point while the chain of positive reasoning can’t; but this is of little importance.)

Miller finishes discussion of this “response open to critical rationalist” with admission that “it smacks of casuistry” (Miller 1994, 70). I contend that it doesn’t smack, – it is casuistry, brain-muddling. It is spurious, fallacious, wrong.

(2.2) The second “response open to critical rationalist” which Miller appraises as “simple and satisfying”:

“…critical rationalism need have no more truck with negative reasons than it does with positive reasons. There are no negative reasons either: nor do we need them for rational thought and action. We don’t need reasons against a hypothesis in order to classify it as false (nor against a course of conduct in order to classify it as foolish). All we need is a false consequence of it…” (Miller 1994, 70)

 There are quite a many critical things which I have to say about this response, but I will postpone most of them. Now I wonder: how this “simple and satisfying response” is supposed to solve the problem of begging the question?

Suppose, that, as Miller states, all we need to classify a hypothesis as false is a false consequence of it. Now, if Miller’s previous argument about begging the question is correct, then any judgement that some consequence of a hypothesis is false is begging the question against that hypothesis!

On Miller’s above exposition, if we judge (or "classify") as false the consequence e of the hypotheses h, we beg the question against h (in favour of not-h). Now do we really beg the question or no? If we do, then judging ("classifying") e as false would be begging the question against h (not-h is part of logical content of not-e). If we don’t, then proposing not-e as a reason against h (in favour of not-h) is not begging the question too.

 

Miller seems to recognize that the charge of begging the question applies to arguments as well as to reasons, for he writes:

“All valid arguments beg the question.” (Miller 1994, 58)

Now the question is: does this mean that all valid arguments are fallacious? Or there is nothing fallacious about begging the question?

 

To recapitulate preceding discussion.

If there are arguments that are not begging the question, then there are reasons that are not begging the questions. And if there are no reasons that are not begging the questions, then there are no arguments that are not begging the question.

If begging the question is fallacious, and all good arguments beg the question, then it is equally ruinous for arguments and for reasons. If begging the question is not fallacious, then reasons are to be allowed begging the question as well as arguments.

If Miller’s argument about begging the question undermines reasons, it undermines arguments as well. If it doesn’t undermine arguments, then it doesn’t undermine reasons.

Whatever is the case, arguments and reasons are in the same basket. You can save either both or none.

 

As for my view, it is as follows. There is the third way open for critical rationalist: to see that all Miller’s exposition about begging the question is mistaken. And this mistake is rooted exactly in Miller’s attitude towards reasons as “poor things” that have nothing to do with rationality.

Distinction between begging and not begging the question, – in any sense in which there is something wrong with begging the question, – is exactly the matter of reasons, – not the matter of logical content.

Surely, you can define "begging the question" as a matter of logical content. But if begging the question is so defined, then begging the question is not fallacious.

On the other side, as far as I know, all sense of qualifying some arguments as "begging the question" consists exactly in blaming them as fallacious (logical fallacy) – in the sense of having no force, providing no reason at all. All traditional usage of term "begging the question" have sense only so far as there is something wrong with arguments begging the question. As far as I can judge, usually there is indeed something wrong with arguments charged with begging the question. But what it is?

I think that it is not the fact that conclusion of argument belongs to logical content of conjunction of its premises. There is nothing wrong with this. For this is the case with all logically valid arguments – whether negative (criticisms) or positive (favourable).

On my view, what is really wrong with arguments usually charged with begging the question is that their premises are spurious, sort of ad hoc – some of their premises are forged specially for the case under discussion, and there are no (good enough) independent reasons for their acceptance.

So, to retain its raison d’etre, "begging the question" is to be defined not as a matter of logical content, but as a matter of reasons.

If A is derivable from B (is part of logical content of B), proposing B as a reason for A is not begging the question if your reasons for accepting B are independent of A. B can be a reason for accepting A (without begging the question), if A wasn’t a reason for accepting B.

I will illustrate it with two examples, – negative and positive.

Suppose, we examine the hypothesis H “All swans are green”. Now the fact that white (or black) swans are observed can be used as argument against H. It is even more natural to say that observations of white (or black) swans is the (good) reason to reject H. There is no begging the question, for our reason to think that there are white (or black) swans is neither our acceptance of H, nor our rejection of H (acceptance of not-H). Our reason to think that there are white (or black) swans is our observations of white (or black) swans. But considering the situation in terms of logical content we will see that not-H (“Not all swans are green”) is a part of logical content of “White (black) swans exist”. This clearly demonstrates that logical content is not the thing that demarcates logical fallacy of begging the question from not committing that fallacy.

Situation is analogous when we use some well corroborated or well-argued-for theory in criticisms of other theories or singular statements.

Now the next question is: can there be, likewise, positive reasons which don’t beg the question? I think in this respect situation with positive reasons is the same as with negative ones.

As example, we can take any scientific prediction. If prediction p logically follows from universal statement S in conjunction with conditions C (p is part of logical content of S&C), and S is scientifically acknowledged law of nature, than the fact that scientists have accepted S on reasons independent of p and the fact that we know about C independently of p constitute a reason for our acceptance of p.

Or we can take classical simple example. Mortality of all humans and humanity of Socrates can be taken as a reason to think (judge or "classify" as true) that Socrates is mortal. And there is no begging the question, if our (conjectural) knowledge that all humans are mortal is accepted (classified as true) on reasons independent of the case of Socrates – as it was amply tested by great multitude of other cases and have passed all examinations (there was no known case of immortal human).

 

My argument can be structured in two theses:

Thesis 1.

There is principal difference between two situations:

(S1) when X belongs to logical content of Y

and

(S2) when believing (holding, accepting) X is our reason for believing (holding, accepting) Y

(X is one of premises of argument which we use to justify our acceptance of Y).

Thesis 2.

If (S2) is the case then argument Y->X is logical fallacy.

If (S1) is the case then argument Y->X is not logical fallacy.

The simplest illustration for this is: I deny that all swans are white because I had seen black swans.

X="Not all swans are white"; Y="Black swans exist".

X belongs to logical content of Y,

but

accepting X is not our reason for accepting Y.

My reason for believing that black swans exist is not my preceding belief that not all swans are white, but my seeing black swans. There is no logical fallacy of begging the question in my reasoning:

As I had seen black swans, so, black swans exist.

As black swans exist, so, not all swans are white.

 

******

So, Miller’s “simple and satisfying” “response open to critical rationalist” –  that critical rationalim "have no truck" with reasons, doesn’t need them for rational thought and action; that they aren’t needed neither to classify hypothesis as false, nor to classify a course of conduct as foolish); that "all we need is a false consequence of it" – is quite useless with respect to the problem of "begging the question". There is much more to criticize it besides.

As for courses of conduct, they have neither false nor true consequences, they have expected and unexpected consequences, good and bad (on person’s judgement) consequences.

As for hypotheses, Miller’s “simple and satisfying” answer is quite unsatisfactory, for it does nothing but shifts the problem from the question "how are we to judge truth/falsity of a hypothesis?" to the question "how are we to judge truth/falsity of its consequences?". If there is a theory X and we judge some of its consequences as false, then this judgement is a reason to judge X as false. But to judge those consequences as false we usually need some reasons (which we judge good enough for the purpose): we don’t attribute to consequences 'true'/'false' values ad arbitrium, by coin-tossing. (I hope Miller wouldn’t recommend this way of judgement as rational.)

Probably, Miller means either logically demonstrable falsity of some consequences or their empirical refutations. But these are far from sufficient "for rational thought and action". Logical demonstrations of falsity are possible only within formal disciplines like mathematics which tell nothing about the world (world-1 and worlds-2, in Popper’s terms), or for self-contradictory hypotheses. Empirical falsifications are possible only within the domain of empirical sciences, and it is possible only as far as we consider observations (or consensus of observers about what is observed) as a good enoug reason for (tentative) acceptance of observational statements as true. But there is a great many self-consistent theories and statements outside formal disciplines and mathematics. What has "rational thought and action" to do with such theories and statements? Old good positivism declared that all such theories and statements are metaphysical nonsense; the irony was that positivism itself got into this category by its own criterion. I am afraid that Miller’s views make a similar trick with critical rationalism and falsificationism, pushing them outside the realm of "rational thought and action". Really, falsificationism and critical rationalism, as well as all their alternatives, are metaphysical (on Popper’s criterion of demarcation), i.e. empirically unfalsifiable theories. And there are self-consistent theories among their alternatives. So is the choice between falsificationism and critical rationalism and their alternatives beyond "rational thought and action", just arbitrary irrational commitment?

Even within empirical sciences (on some criterion of demarcation, whose adequacy is a matter of rational discussion, but is not a matter of empirical falsification and self-consistency) the question how to interpret observations and if they falsify a hypothesis is often controversial and needs critical discussion with arguments (reasons) which aren’t reducible to unproblematic observational statements and logical consistency.

Besides, there can be alternative self-consistent theories with exactly the same testable consequences! Suppose that there is some accepted and well-corroborated scientific theory X which has successfully passed all tests up to now. Then someone proposes an alternative theory Y-as-if-X of the kind: some superintelligent and superpowerful beings control our experiences and make them to be exactly the same as they would be if X was true. (This example was suggested to me by A.Musgrave’s articles about scientific realism and surrealism. The idea has a long philosophical tradition: Descarte’s "evil genius, as clever and deceitful as he is powerful", Berkeley’s philosophy; in a modernized form: brain-in-a-vat thought experiment, movie "The Matrix".) If so, all testable consequences of Y-as-if-X are the same as consequences of X. Now is Y-as-if-X to be admitted in science and classified as true, on equal footing with X? But surely we can’t rationally classify both Y-as-if-X and X as true; logics forbids it; they can’t both be true; if X is true, then Y-as-if-X is false and vice versa. It seems clear that by scientific standards X is to be given preference. Moreover, it seems clear that Y-as-if-X isn’t to be admitted into science at all. (Popper’s criterion of demarcation seems not quite sufficient; it needs to be strengthened to exclude such theories from science.) But why? There must be some reason for such a preference. And this reason is not false testable consequences. The reason is that theories Y-as-if-X are parasitic; they do no explanatory and predictory job; all explanatory and predictory job is done by X, on which Y-as-if-X parasites.

To summarize, with Popper’s quotation:

"… observation alone cannot always decide which of two competing theories is better… In general, more than observation is needed: also needed is a critical discussion of the merits of the two theories. Such a discussion must consider whether they solve the problem which they are supposed to solve: whether they explain what they are supposed to explain; whether they don’t merely shift the problem, for example, by an untestable ad hoc assumption; whether they are testable, and how well they are testable." (Popper 2005, 55)

******

Another interesting example is mathematics. Unlike empirical sciences, it is certainly not the case with mathematics that hypotheses are proposed and are tentatively accepted as true until some refuting example is found. In mathematics, hypotheses are accepted as true if, and only if, they are “positively” proved. If a hypothesis is neither proved nor disproved as yet, it is neither accepted as true nor rejected as false. Surely, these mathematicians’ concerns with proofs are not to be disqualified as “having no job” “as far as rational thought is concerned”!

Also, it may be said that all mathematical theorems are, in the logical sense, contained in the system of basic concepts and axioms. In this sense, all mathematical proofs are begging the question! Also, in this sense, the discovery of new mathematical truths and their proofs are “world-3” matters; as a matter of “world-2”, all these truths and proofs are already there, contained in the system of basic concepts and axioms. I am afraid that too literal understanding and acceptance of Popper’s phrase about "epistemology without a knowing subject" fails to account for importance and non-triviality of these mathematical discoveries, as well as of discoveries of new (hitherto unknown by any person) important logical consequences of accepted theories in empirical sciences.

 

Alan Musgrave on Logomania

In his article “How Popper [Might Have] Solved the Problem of Induction” Alan Musgrave writes about “logomania, the view that only reason or reasoning provides a good reason for believing anything”:   

“Logomania leads to infinite regress, as sceptics long ago pointed out.  All inferential beliefs (beliefs obtained by inference from other beliefs) must rest on non-inferential beliefs.  But logomania entails that non-inferential beliefs are unreasonable – from which it follows that all beliefs are unreasonable. So, everybody who is not a total irrationalist must reject logomania. Everybody who is not a total irrationalist must think there are good reasons for believing P that do not involve inferring P from other propositions we believe.  Everybody who is not a total irrationalist must think that some non-inferential beliefs are reasonable beliefs.” (Musgrave 2004, 22)

I quite agree with this. In other article I have made my point that all our reasoning is necessarily saturated with 'pre-rational judgements', meaning nearly the same that Musgrave calls 'non-inferential beliefs'. We can call them also 'extra-logical reasons'.

Necessity of such reasons is closely relates with what I have written above about begging the question: though, as I stressed, deductive arguments need not necessarily be logical fallacy of begging the question, those which aren’t must necessarily begin with some extra-logical reasons.

To illustrate this with some examples.

Belief that 1) black swan were observed (suggested by perceptions) and that 2) there were black swan (that their perception wasn’t chain of hallucinations) are extra-logical reasons which start logical chain deductively refuting the theory that all swans are white.

As well, according with Popper, reasons for tentative acceptance of scientific theory are:

1) acceptance of methodological rule that we are to accept tentatively those theories that have passed successfully severe examinations up to present moment

and

2) judgment of state of examination: that the theory have passed successfully severe enough examinations up to present moment.

Both are extra-logical.

And, in case of acceptance of prediction from scientific theory extra-logical reasons are those which make us to accept that theory and report of relevant initial conditions.

 

Popper on 'Positive' and 'Critical' Reasons

Some quotations:

“Our experiences … may even be described as inconclusive reasons.” (Popper 1974, 1114)

“…we can never give positive reasons which justify the belief that a theory is true.” (Popper 2008, p.310)

“…² can examine my guess critically, and if it withstands severe criticism, then this fact may be taken as a good critical reason in favour of it.” (Popper 2008, p.317)

“…we may still give preference to t2, even after its falsification, because we have reason to think that it agrees better with the facts than did t1” (Popper 2008, p.318)

“The principle of rational discussion: we want to try, as impersonally as possible, to weigh up our reasons for and against a theory…” (Popper 1992, 199)

These quotations leave little doubts that Popper acknowledged reasons and considered them as inalienable from rationality.

The question of Popper’s views about positive reasons is trickier.

Popper’s formulation of "the principle of rational discussion" clearly suggests that there are reasons for, as well as reasons against a theory. Now if 'positive reasons' means reasons for, favourable reasons, then Popper surely did admit existence of positive reasons.

When Popper proposed his theories, he didn’t just postulate, he argued in their favour, i.e. provided favourable reasons. And his falsificationist theory of empirical science specifies relevant favourable reasons. It recommends 1) to admit into science those hypotheses which are refutable and 2) to accept (tentatively) as true those of them which have successfully passed diverse and severe examinations. So, it defines reasons for 1) recognizing a theory as scientific and 2) (tentative) acceptance of a scientific theory as true. Again, if 'positive reason' means reason for accepting (classifying as true), then Popper did consider as positive reason for (acceptance of) a scientific theory its passing diverse and severe examinations. In a sense, it can be even said that Popper did consider it as a sufficient reason – not in the meaning of demonstrating truth or high probability, but in the meaning that it is sufficient for tentative acception of hypothesis (tentative classifying it as true).

If Popper denied existence of "positive reasons" (which he did), then his meaning was different. There is one kind of would-be reasons which can be called "positive reasons" and whose existence Popper unequivocally and argumentatively denied – logically valid demonstrations of truth or high probability, “using this latter term in a sense laid down by the calculus of probability” (Popper 2008, 321). (And Popper emphasized that probability, in this meaning, is to be distinguished from degree of corroboration and verisimilitude, truthlikeness, i.e. degree of nearing the truth.)

 

To achieve clearer view of the issue, let us consult Popper’s book Realism and the Aim of Science, chapter 1, section I. Here Popper explains that he denies possibility “to justify our theories or beliefs rationally: that is to say, by giving reasons – 'positive reasons' (as I shall call them)…; reasons, that is, for holding them to be true, or to be at least 'probable' (in the sense of probability calculus).” In this sense, “we cannot give any positive justification or any positive reason for our theories and our beliefs. That is to say, we cannot give any positive reason for holding our theories to be true.” (Popper 2005, p.19)

But:

“We can often give reasons for regarding one theory as preferable to another. They consist in pointing out that, and how, one theory has hitherto withstood criticism better than another. I will call such reasons critical reasons…” (Popper 2005, p.20)

Popper makes similar statements about justification:

“Critical reasons don’t justify a theory…” (Popper 2005, p.20)

But:

“Giving reasons for one’s preference can of course be called a justification (in ordinary language). But it is not justification in the sense criticized here. Our preferences are 'justified' only relative to the present state of discussion …” (Popper 2005, p.20)

But isn’t this replacement of the search for truth with some other (instrumental) preferability? Popper explains that it isn’t:

“My position is this. I assert that the search for truth – or for a true theory which can solve our problem – is all-important: all rational criticism is criticism of the claim of a theory to be true, and to be able to solve the problems which it was designed to solve. Thus I don’t replace the question whether a theory is true by the question whether it is better than another. …to describe a theory as better that another, or superior, or what not, is, I hold, to indicate that it appears to come nearer to the truth. Truth – absolute truth – remains our aim; and it remains the implicit standard of our criticism… Thus we are always searching for a true theory (a true and relevant theory), even though we can never give reasons (positive reasons) to show that we have actually found the true theory we have been searching for. At the same time we can have good reasons – that is, good critical reasons – for thinking that we have learned something important: that we have progressed toward truth. For first, we may have learnt that a particular theory is not true according to the present state of the critical discussion; and secondly, we may have found some tentative reasons to believe (yes, even to believe) that a new theory comes nearer to the truth than its predecessors.” (Popper 2005, p.24-25)

 

My interpretation of these Popper’s explanations is as follows. What he means – and denies on weighty arguments – is possibility of 'justification' or 'positive reasons' in the meaning: logically valid demonstration of truth or high probability. Let us call such reasons 'conclusive reasons' and 'probabilistic reasons' accordingly (they both can be united under title 'absolute reasons'; they are absolute in the sense that they must be not relative to some assumptions which are themselves 'unjustified' in this sense). But non-existence of conclusive and probabilistic reasons doesn’t mean that there are no 'positive reasons' in the meaning favourable reasons (as opposite to 'negative reasons').

Also, as far as universal scientific theories are concerned, Popper dis mean that we have no reasons to believe that a theory, even the best one, is true sensu stricto (≡absolutely true), i.e. have no false content. For example, Newton’s theory is false in strict logical meaning; it was falsified by some experiments and superseded by Einstein’s theory. But now do we have any reason to think that Einstein’s theory is absolutely true, that it has no false content, that it can’t be falsified by some future experiments and superseded by some better theory? I see no reason to think so. Though Newton’s theory is falsified (i.e., we have good reasons to classify it as false in strict logical meaning of the word 'false', i.e. having some false content), but we have also good reasons to judge it as highly nearing the truth (objectively truthlike). Though we have no reason to think that Einstein’s theory is true (that it have no false content), we have good reasons to judge it as yet more (comparing with Newton’s) highly nearing the truth (objectively truthlike).

 

On these points I agree with Popper: there are no 'justification' or 'positive reasons' in his meaning.

But I disagree with Miller: there are positive reasons in the meaning of favourable reasons (as opposite to 'negative reason'), reasons to (tentatively) classify theory as true or to believe that it is well nearing the truth (is highly objectively trithlike, of high verisimilitude). And (as Popper admits) there is 'justification' in ordinary-language meaning congenial with favourable tentative reasons.

Ambiguities of meanings play here a bad trick: it starts with confusion of 'positive' in the sense 'real', 'exact', 'indubitable', 'certain', 'for sure' with 'positive' in the sense 'good', 'favourable', and proceeds to confusion of 'critical' as 'relative-to-the-present-state-of-critical-discussion' with 'critical (negative)' as 'unfavourable', 'against', 'refuting'. (To be true, Popper himself provokes this misunderstanding, for he sometimes used phrases 'critical reason' and 'negative reason' as synonimous.)

 

To emphasize the difference.

We are to distinguish

'positive reasons' in the meaning of logically valid demonstration of truth or high probability (conclusive or probabilistic reasons)

from 'positive reasons' in the meaning of arguments for (favorable reasons);

'critical reasons' in the meaning of tentative, conjectural, fallible, relative-to-the-present-state-of-critical-discussion reasons (which may be favourable as well as unfavourable reasons)

from 'critical (negative) reasons' in the meaning of arguments against (unfavourable reasons).

(What is arguably true about 'X' in one meaning needn’t be true about 'X' in another meaning. All dogs are mammals; but hot-dogs aren’t.)

It is also to be remarked that 'negative reasons' as logically valid demonstration of falsity or high improbability – conclusive or probabilistic negative reasons – are, in general (except in cases of self-contradictory statements), just as impossible as conclusive or probabilistic positive reasons. (One proviso may be needed: as Popper argued, in a sense, all theories of high content are highly improbable; the higher is content the lower is probability; 'probability' of empirical scientific theories tends to zero.)

Critical Rationalism ≠ Falsificationism

I conjecture that the confusion with different meanings of 'positive reasons' and 'negative reasons' stems from a failure to distinguish clearly two Popper’s theories: 1) critical rationalism as general non-justificationist conception of rationality which applies to all sorts of statements, theories, beliefs, attitudes and 2) falsificationism as more specific theory which applies to empirical sciences.

Falsificationism is proposed as solution for the problem of induction – validity of inference from singular observational statements to universal statements (scientific theories). Critical rationalism (CR; with Bartley’s corrections – comprehensively critical rationalism, CCR) is proposed as solution for a problem which Bartley calls 'the problem of limits of rationality' (Popper didn’t use that name, but he had first introduced term 'critical rationalism' in The Open Society and Its Enemies while discussing nearly the same problem, and developed his conception of critical rationalism in a lecture On the Sources of Knowledge and of Ignorance while discussing an allied problem – the problem of reliable sources of knowledge) – it is the problem of infinite justificationist regress arising from identification of rationality with the demand to accept only rationally justified statements.

Falsificationism is about inferences "in inductive direction", from singular to universal statements. (C)CR is about inferences in whatever direction.

Falsificationism says that there is no valid inference from truth/falsity of singular (basic) statements to truth or probability of universal statements (theories), but there is valid inference from truth/falsity of singular (basic) statements to falsity of universal statements (theories). C(CR) says that no position can be justified in compliance with justificationist demand to accept those and only those positions which are justified; but every position can be held open to criticism; and proposes to understand 'rationality' as openness to criticism.

(C)CR is based on demonstration that justificationist demand is unfeasible because it leads either to infinite regress or to vicious circle. Falsificationism is based on simple logical truth:

if    1) X contradicts Y

and             2) X is true

then it logically follows that Y is false;

but

if    1) X agrees with Y or logically follows from Y

and             2) X is true

then it does not logically follow that Y is true.

(C)CR equally applies to any position (whether it is singular observational statement or universal empirical statement-theory or moral attitude or methodological rule or religious doctrine). Falsificationism applies only to empirical statements, preferentially universal (empirical scientific theories).

(C)CR argues that no position can be justified, conclusively or probabilistically. In this sense, justification is impossible. But the same applies to refutation: it is impossible in the same sense and for the same reasons as justification. Surely, refutation is possible on some assumptions (as in empirical sciences, refutation-falsification of a theory on assumption of some basic observational statements). But those assumtions themselves can’t be justified, whether conclusively or probabilistically. Suppose we call such refutation tentative refutation, refutation on tentative assumptions. We have for them also another name – criticisms. All criticisms are tentative refutations; no criticism is possible without some 'unjustified' assumptions. But tentative justification, justification on tentative assumptions is just as well possible. To parallel term 'criticism', we can call it 'commendation'. (We are not to confuse this with induction: tentative justification-commendation, as well as tentative refutation-criticism can be deductive. For example, prediction P can be tentatively justified-commended on assumptions of some theory T and initial conditions C, if P is deducable from conjunction of T and C; acceptance of a theory can be deductively tentatively justified-commended on assumptions of some methodological rule and judgement of its fulfillment.)

 

With respect to 'reasons' and 'justification' CR (CCR) and falsificationism differ in absolute/relative character, comprehensive/limited incidence and symmetry/asymmetry between positive and negative (in the sense: favourable and unfavourable) arguments or evidences.

Falsificationism deals with the problem of induction, verification of universal statements (theories) by singular (observational) statements. In terms of 'justification' it can be described as problem of relative (on assumption of some basic singular statements) inductive justification of universal statements (theories). Falsificationist arguments show that no such justification-verification (whether conclusive or probabilistic) is possible; inductive inferences are invalid; while valid refutation-falsification is possible and indispensable for development of scientific empirical knowledge. So, situation with 'verification' and 'falsification' of empirical scientific theories relative to observational (basic) statements is asymmetrical.

CR (CCR) is not concerned with induction. It deals with the problem of absolute (not relative to some assumptions) justification of any position, and its arguments show that such justification – whether conclusive or probabilistic – is impossible. (Besides, its arguments show that it is not ruinous for rationality; rationality can do well without justification.) But absolute refutation – whether conclusive or probabilistic – is just as well impossible, for the same reasons. On the other side, there is nothing in CR (CCR) arguments to deny that we can often provide tentative reasons good enough for tentative acceptance or believing some positions (and so, tentatively justify or commend them), as wells as tentative reasons good enough for tentative rejection (non-believing) of some positions (and so, tentatively refute or criticize them). So, situation with refutation and justification, criticism and commendation is symmetrical.

 

2. Further Criticisms of D.Miller’s Critical Rationalism

Corroboration, Verisimilitude and Scientific Status

“… we are interested in theories with a high degree of corroboration.” (Popper 2008, 77) “So long as theory withstands detailed and severe tests and is not superseded by another theory in the course of scientific progress, we may say that it has proved its mettle or that it is corroborated by past experience.” (Popper 2002, 10) “I introduced the terms 'corroboration' and 'degree of corroboration' … to describe the degree to which a hypothesis has stood up to severe tests, and thus "proved iits mettle".” (Popper 2002, 248-249) “… the degree of corroboration of a hypothesis depends mainly upon the severity of its tests...” (Popper 2002, 269) “A theory which is not in fact refuted by testing those new and bold and improbable predictions to which it gives rise can be said corroborated by these severe tests.” (Popper 2008, 298)

“Confirming evidence should not count except when it is the result of a genuine test of the theory; and this means that it can be presented as a serious but unsuccessful attempt to falsify the theory. (I now speak in such cases of 'corroborating evidence'.)” (Popper 2008, 48)

 

In Popper’s theory of development of scientific knowledge passing diverse and severe examinations serves as a good reason for accepting scientific theory (classifying it as true). Popper’s statements such as that “…we can never give positive reasons which justify the belief that a theory is true” (Popper 2008, p.310) mean by 'positive reasons' logically valid demonstration of truth or high probability.

Popper’s statements in “The Logic of Scientific Discovery” and other works make it clear enough that he did consider passing diverse and severe examinations (the more diverse and severe the better) as quality mark for scientific theory. He designated it by terms 'corroboration' (to distinguish it from 'verification' and 'confirmation' in positivistic sense) and 'degree of corroboration'.

Degree of corroboration (unlike 'probability') is not absolute value, but comparative characteristic: we can’t assign a numeric value for a degree of corroboration, but in many cases we have objective reasons (results of experimental observations) to estimate a degree of corroboration of one theory as higher than a degree of corroboration of another theory. If theory A has passed all those tests which theory B has passed plus some of those tests which B has failed to pass, then A gets a higher degree of corroboration than B. Also, degree of corroboration for the same theory changes with new tests. A degree of corroboration of A becomes higher with each new test on its predictions (especially those which doesn’t follow from alternative theories) which it has successfully passed.

 Really, if degree of corroboration wasn’t a quality mark for scientific theory, if it was not making a difference for its scientific status (relative to present state of discussions and examinations), there would be no sense in Popper’s statements such as:

“Instead of discussing the probability of a hypothesis we should try to assess what tests, what trials, it has withstood; that is, we should try to assess how far it has been able to prove its fitness to survive by standing up to tests.” (Popper 2002, 248)

 

What is also important about degrees of corroboration is that they can be attributed not only to those theories which weren’t falsified, have passed successfully all examinations up to present moment, but also to falsified hypotheses with considerable true content.

This links Popper’s concept of 'degree of corroboration' with his later concept of objective truthlikeness, verisimilitude (truth-approximation).[3] Popper remarks on this connection in “Conjectures and Refutations”:

“…I don’t suggest that the explicit introduction of the idea of verisimilitude will lead to any changes in the theory of method. On the contrary, I think that my theory of testability or corroboration by empirical tests is the proper methodological counterpart to this new metalogical idea.” (Popper 2008, 318)

Concept of verisimilitude (or truth-approximation) is introduced to range, with respect to scientific value, those scientific theories which are, strictly speaking, false (and falsified), but have much true content (are true or well approximate truth in wide domains). The best example is Newton’s system of physics which was falsified by some experiments and superseded by Einstein’s system of physics, but have retained very much of its scientific status and importance, because it is much simpler than Einstein’s (both for understanding and use) and is very good approximation to truth whenever velocities are much less than velocity of light.

If so, then degree of corroboration can serve as indicator of verisimilitude (relative to present state of discussions and examinations).

 

Besides, what is important about Popper’s theory, is that he acknowledges scientific status for all empirical (falsifiable) hypotheses, false (falsified) as well as true (or tentatively held as true).

In the light of all this, the picture of empirical science, according with Popper, is rich and diversified. Empirical science incorporates all falsifiable theories. These theories differ in their scientific status, which may be higher or lower. There are theories which are tentatively held as true, for they weren’t falsified as yet. And there are falsified theories. Inside both these groups there are differences of higher/lower scientific status, depending on universality, degree of corroboration (severity and diversity of tests which a theory have successfully passed up to present moment),  estimation of success in solving problems for which a treory was designed or, in the case of falsified theories, approximation to those which are held as true…

 

Miller’s picture of empirical science, as outlined in Chapter 1 of “Critical Rationalism: A Restatement and Defense”, is much simpler and poorer. All there is is entrance (admittance) to science and expulsion out of it. Entrance is free for all falsifiable hypotheses:

“… a hypothesis need submit to tests only after it has been admitted to science. If it fails any of the tests to which it is put, then it is expelled, removed from science; if it passes them all, then nothing happens – that is to say, it is retained.” (Miller 1994, 7)

This picture admits no gradations of statuses within science, such as between new, untested or poorly tested theories (low degree of corroboration) and theories which have already passed successfully diverse and severe testings (high degree of corroboration). It has no place for falsified theories: falsified theories are “expelled, removed from science”, – unlike Popper’s view that they belong to science with status of false theories, and can be of different scientific value, depending on their verisimilitude. If we accept Miller’s view, then even such theories as Newton’s physics no longer belong to science (since it was falsified and superseded by Einstein’s physics)!

Besides, there is a logical problem, as pointed out by A.Musgrave. For Miller admitting a hypothesis into science and classifying it as true is the same thing. But what if two alternative, inconsisted hypotheses are proposed and not yet tested? According with Miller they are both admitted into science and classified as true, though they contradict one another and can’t be both true. (Musgrave 2007, 194)

Reliability and Probability

Yet one point where I consider Miller’s arguments and explanations unsatisfactory, concerns the questions of practical reliability of theories and practical need of estimation of probabilities.

 

Popper’s views

In Chapter 1 Miller quotes Popper who had written in “Objective Knowledge” that “from a rational point of view we should not "rely" on any theory, for no theory has been shown to be true, or can be shown to be true”, but “we should prefer as basis for action the best-tested theory”. (Popper 1972, 21-22)

This quotation, on my view, is rather misleading, for there is important continuation which Miller leaves out:

“In other words, there is no "absolute reliance"; but since we have to choose, it will be "rational" to choose the best-tested theory… Of course, in choosing the best-tested theory as a basis for action, we "rely" on it, in some other sense of word. It may therefore even be described as the most "reliable" theory available, in some sense of this term. Yet this does not say that it is "reliable". It is not "reliable" at least in the sense that we shall always do well, even in practical action, to foresee the possibility that something may go wrong with our expectations.” (Popper 1972, 22)

It makes clear that Popper didn’t deny that we can (and often need, for practical matters) to estimate "reliability" of theories in the sense of relative reliability: which theory is most reliable among known alternatives, as far as we can judge in the light of examinations and rational discussions up to present moment? which theory (among known alternatives) we are better to rely on in practical decisions? In this meaning "to rely on the theory X" is the same as "prefer X as basis for action".

What Popper did deny, is "absolute reliance".

 

Also, in fragment quoted by Miller Popper stated that “'rationality' of choosing the best-tested theory as a basis for action” is not to be understood “in the sense that it is based upon good reasons for expecting that it will in practice be a successful choice: there can be no good reasons in this sense, and this is precisely Hume’s result.” (Popper 1972, 22)

What did Popper mean by this statement? Possibly next fragment will be explanatory:

“…even if our physical theories should be true, it is perfectly possible that the world as we know it, with all its pragmatically relevant regularities, may completely disintegrate in the next second. This should be obvious to anybody today; but I said so before Hirosima: there are infinitely many possibilities of local, partial, or total disaster.” (Popper 1972, 22)

I understand Popper’s meaning as follows. Though acting on the best-tested theories is reasonably the best we can do, there is no way to estimate absolute probability that we will succeed in any concrete case (if it is higher than 50%?). Besides the fact that we have no way to estimate absolute reliability of our theories, there are infinitely many unforeseeable circumstances which could influence outcome of the action. So, the best we can do is to do the best we can, and hope (not expect) that we will succeed. Expectation is of no profit.

 

 In Chapter 2, before expounding his own views, Miller discusses how Popper would answer “justificationist question”:

Why should we act on the best-tested theories if, as Popper states, they can’t be shown to be true and we have no good reasons “for expecting that it will in practice be a successful choice”?

Miller remarks that “Popper rightly offers no direct answer” and continues:

“The most that can be said in response to it is that there are no reasons for supposing that an unrefuted theory is not true. The hypothesis that has most successfully survived the critical debate is, we conjecture, our best source of true information about the world, and if we wish to act appropriately, there is little sense in ignoring this information; or, worse still, acting as if it were not true.” (Miller 1994, 39)

Miller calls this “Popper’s answer”, but give no Popper’s quotation which would support his suggestion that this was Popper’s answer.

I think it is not “the most that can be said in response” – and not the best Popper could say.

First, obvious Popper’s answer is: as far as we can reasonably judge, it is the best choice we have. And this is what Popper really writes:

“This will be "rational" in the most obvious sense of the word known to me: the best-tested theory is the one which, in the light of our critical discussion, appears to be the best so far…” (Popper 1972, 22)

Also, on my view, the answer that we should act “as if the best tested of the surviving hypotheses is true” because “there are no reasons for supposing that an unrefuted theory is not true” is too weak. Really, the next sentence adds another reason: “The hypothesis that has most successfully survived the critical debate is, we conjecture, our best source of true information about the world”. But this reason makes the first one (that “there are no reasons for supposing that an unrefuted theory is not true”) superfluous. Really, even if a theory is, sensu stricto, false, it can nevertheless serve as “our best source of true information about the world”, – as, for example, Newton’s theory served before it was superseded by Einstein’s.

Now let us remark that in terms of Popper’s theory of knowledge to say that hypothesis  is “our best source of true information” is the same as to say that it is the best approximation to truth (the most verisimilar, truthlike hypothesis) we have”.

So, instead of answer that we should act “as if the best tested of the surviving hypotheses is true” because “there are no reasons for supposing that an unrefuted theory is not true”, we get rather different answer – in terms of truth-approximation (verisimilitude) and its conjectured positive correlation with a degree of corroboration (i.e. severity of examinations which hypothesis have successfully passed):

We better act on the best-tested theories because

1) we conjecture that there is (rather good) positive correlation between a degree of corroboration and truth/verisimilitude;

2) the more theory nears the truth, the better, by and large, are its predictions (the more it is "reliable");

3) we have no better guide for our actions (nothing better to rely on).

 

As for probabilities, Popper strongly argued that there is no useful estimation of probabilities of theories (universal statements); in a sense, the more "improbable" the theory is the better (the higher is its content). But Popper never denied practical need to estimate probability (or likeliness) of singular events. (Though, this estimation can’t be absolute, it is relative to our conjectural knowledge.) Miller goes so far as to deny even this.

 

Miller’s views

Miller’s own views about practical reliability, as described in Chapter 2, are radically negative. He argues that estimation of reliability (without any reservations about meanings of the word, distinction of relative and absolute reliability) is of no practical use at all.

Miller starts with “important point … about how scientific theories are used in technology”, which he proposes to dub "the slavery theory of applied science". He explain that scientific theories can’t tell us what to do, how to achieve our purposes. Scientific theories aren’t used “as a guide to action, or as a source of positive advice” (Miller 1994, 39). For any practical purpose

“…no amount of science will tell us how to tackle the job – there may be countless ways that will succeed. All that science can do is to tell us what lines of approach we do well to avoid. That is, we do not rely on, or even apply, scientific hypotheses when we act; we exploit them.” (Miller 1994, 39)

There are two points in this description I disagree with.

First is its conclusion (the last sentence). It doesn’t follow from "the slavery theory of applied science". Indeed, science can’t tell us what we are to do to achieve our purposes, while telling us what options won’t we successful. But science is used to get predictions: if proposed technological decision will give results we purpose at, or no (and, sometimes, how great are risks). (Surely, these predictions are made with proviso: if no unforeseeable events will unmake them.) And we do rely on those scientific predictions, – not because science insures success or high probabilities (which it does not), but because there is nothing better to rely on.

Second, though I agree that “no amount of science will tell us how to tackle the job” (1), I disagree with the statement that “All that science can do is to tell us what lines of approach we do well to avoid” (2). Again, (2) doesn’t follow from (1). Scientific theories, far from being purely critical instruments for technology, suggest many possibilities about which no one would think without them, and they suggest directions in which to search for technological realizations of these possibilities. One of the most salient examples is the atomic theory. Without development in XX ct. of the atomic theory which suggests the possibility of nuclear and thermonuclear reactions, no one would think of technologies to produce and use these reactions.[4]

 

Now about probability (likeliness) of singular events. Miller discusses situations when we can’t base our decisions on scientific predictions:

“Should I be inoculated against typhoid before my next trip to the tropics? Science … is of little use here; what will matter is the cleanliness of the food that I eat and of water that I drink, and there are all kinds of reasons why no scientific prediction of these factors can be made... It is usually thought that in circumstances such as these … there is no option but to resort to judgments of subjective probability, or to considerations of utility, or … both. The unpleasantness of typhoid far outweighs the unpleasantness of its vaccine; and so if there is more than faint probability that I shall be exposed to poor drinking water I should be inoculated. This sounds like good common sense, but I nonetheless demur from explanation. …I cannot see how recourse to probabilities can help. I want my action to be appropriate to what is going to happen…, not to what is likely to happen.” (Miller 1994, 43)

Later, Miller adduces another example:

Which ticket would you prefer to draw in a sweepstake: the one bearing the favourite’s name, or the one bearing the winner’s? … what matters is the conjectural classification of the hypothesis as true…, not its assessment as probable…” (Miller 1994, 66)

As far as I see it, there is simple and strong refutation of these Miller’s reasonings.

Especially in the case of inoculations it is obviously wrong that subjective estimation of probability (likeliness) is of no avail and can be replaced with "the conjectural classification of the hypothesis as true". Such replacement would often result in different decision and would be highly unreasonable. Let us compare, how we really make such a decision, and how (and with what result) we would make it if we replaced subjective evaluation of likeliness with conjectural classification as true/false.

Really (estimation of likeliness). The question is: if, without inoculation, I will catch typhoid? Suppose, I subjectively estimate (conjecture) that most likely I won’t, but still there is considerable risk that I will. Suppose also that, as far as I know, inoculation greatly lessens this risk and the only inconvenience of it is a slight fleeting pain. Surely, it would be reasonable for me to take inoculation.

If we replace estimation of likeliness with conjectural classification as true/false. Conjecture that without inoculation I most likely won’t catch typhoid is to be replaced with conjecture that without inoculation I won’t catch typhoid. If I make decision on this conjecture (without estimations of likeliness-risk), then I won’t take inoculation. Really, whatever slight are inconveniences of inoculation, I needn’t undergo them, if I won’t catch typhoid without inoculation.

I think it is obvious that the first way of making decision would be reasonable, while the second would be unreasonable.

It is no so obvious in the case of sweepstake, but it is well arguable that sometimes decisions based on informed guesses about probabilities may be more reasonable than decisions based on informed guesses about winners. For example, it could be reasonable not to put all eggs in one basket, but to make several stakes on two or more favourites. Or it may be reasonable even to stake on the option which, on your estimation, has not the highest but still high enough chance to win, if stakes of other gamblers are high against it. (For example, you estimate that chances for A are 55% while chances for B are 45%. There are many other gamblers which almost all stake on A. Let us suppose stakes are 1:20. And you think that you know A and B better then other gamblers. In this case it may well be reasonable for you to stake on B. If A wins, you loose but little, if B wins, you win much; while, on your estimation, chances for A and B to win are almost equal. Suppose you stake 10$. If A wins, you lose 10$. If B wins, you win 200$.)

 

Besides, there is yet another interesting objection. If we accept indeterministic view of the world and, especially, of human activity (as Popper did), then it would be mistaken to classify as true/false statements which say about some future events (especially those where humans are involved, as in examples with inoculation and sweepstake) that they will or won’t happen. Such statements are neither true nor false; they have no truth/falsity value until event happens.

 

Does Science Need Metaphysical Presupposition about the Existence of Order in Nature?

Miller’s answer seems to be unequivocally “No”.

“…inductivism needs to assume that there is some regularity in the world, whilst falsificationism requires only that there is some regularity in the world – but it need make no assumption to this effect.” (Miller 1994, 25)

“…science needs contain no metaphysical assumption concerning the immutability or order of nature. It need contain no assumption not explicitly available for testing… Scientific hypotheses propose order for the world; they don’t presuppose it.” (Miller 1994, 27)

And Miller refers here to Popper who “argued ... that the principle in question is a metaphysical one, best replaced by the "methodological rule [that] … natural laws … are to be invariant with respect to space and time"…” (Miller, 25)

Popper did actually argue so. But we need to ask a further question: why such a methodological rule is needed? Surely, we don’t just accept it “out of the blue”! Doesn’t this methodological rule incorporate metaphysical presupposition about the existence of some discoverable genuine order in nature? And doesn’t Popper’s criterion of demarcation between empirical science and metaphysics make the idea that there are genuine regularities in the world (laws of nature) constitutive of science as distinct from metaphysics? We always have two kinds of alternative possibilities of explanation of some observable events – the one based on some hypothesis about genuine regularities (laws of nature) and the second admitting no such regularities (all that happens is just sheer chance). But the second alternative is excluded from science by Popper’s criterion of demarcation, for no empirically testable predictions follow from it.

In fact, Popper did admit science needs metaphysical belief, or even psychological presupposition, that there are such genuine regularities in the world. So, in “The Logic of Scientific Discovery”:

“And our guesses are guided by the unscientific, the metaphysical (though biologically explicable) faith in laws, in regularities which we can uncover – discover.” (Popper 2002, 278)

And in “Realism and the Aim of Science”:

“…we may – and indeed, undoubtedly do – believe this. And perhaps this belief is psychologically important in our search for true laws. But even this would not make it a methodological presupposition; it would merely make it a psychological one.” (Popper 2005, 75)

So, Popper admits that the belief in the existence of “laws, … regularities which we can uncover – discover” is psychologically necessary for scientific activity, but seems to deny that it “belongs chiefly to methodology or the theory of knowledge” (Popper 2005, 74)

I think that this distinction is mistaken and that in fact that belief (presupposition) is incorporated in Popper’s methodology, as remarked above. For more detailed discussion see my article “Popper on Metaphysical Presuppositions of Science”.

 

Isn’t This Induction?

“…there may be a "whiff" of inductivism here. It enters with the vague realist assumption that reality, though unknown, is in some respects similar to what science tells us or, in other words, with the assumption that science can progress towards greater verisimilitude.” (Popper 1992, 1193)

For a theory which has been well corroborated can only be superseded by one of a higher level of universality; that is, by a theory which is better testable and which, in addition, contains the old, well corroborated theory – or at least a good approximation to it. It may be better, therefore, to describe that trend – the advance towards theories of an ever higher level of universality – as ‘quasi-inductive’. The quasi-inductive process should be envisaged as follows. Theories of some level of universality are proposed, and deductively tested; after that, theories of a higher level of universality are proposed, and in their turn tested with the help of those of the previous levels of universality, and so on. The methods of testing are invariably based on deductive inferences from the higher to the lower level...” (Popper 2002, 276)

In e-mail discussion about how to interpret Popper’t theory of falsification S.Law has remarked that “Popper's starting point is that there is no sound inductive reasoning”, while, on my interpretation, “he actually ends up defending a version of it – falsification will be a kind of inductive argument”.

Quite a many Popper’s critics have seen his theory as veiled inductivism, and quite a many of his more radical followers complained about remnants of inductivism in his philosophy. For example, Stephano Gattei qualifies as “Popper’s Later Fall Back into Inductivism” (Gattei 2004, 461) Popper’s views on the role of corroboration in science, as expressed in the article “Truth, Rationality and the Growth of Scientific Knowledge” of “Conjectures and Refutations”.

So, isn’t my interpretation of critical rationalism a kind of induction-theory? My answer is: No, in the meaning in which I see it appropriate to use the word 'induction', and in which Popper persuasively argued that induction is neither existent nor needed for knowledge. In some other meaning of the word 'induction', it surely can be “Yes”. Surely, you can use the word 'induction' in some other meaning, in which neither I nor Popper would deny induction. No one can forbid anybody to use any word in whatever meaning he likes. I have no irrational fear of the word. Neither Popper had. You can clearly see it in quotations above.

It won’t be superfluous to remind what exactly was that 'induction' which Popper rejected.

Popper argued that there is no induction in traditional weighty philosophical meaning which engenders Hume’s problem of induction – induction as valid inference from true singular statements (of observable facts) to universal statements-theories which ensures truth or, at least, high probability ("in a sense laid down by the calculus of probability"). The method which is really used in empirical sciences – method of conjectures and refutations – is not that induction in two major features.

First, it has totally different logical structure. Theory of induction says that acquisition of new theoretical knowledge begins with observations of individual facts, then those facts are inductively processed, and, as result, you get universal theories. Popper’s theory says that it goes quite otherwise: we begin with a problem; then we conjecture hypotheses as its possible solutions; then we test them with (experimental) observations of individual events; as result, we tentatively accept as true those hypotheses which have successfully passed examinations, and reject those which didn’t.

Second, it doesn’t ensure neither truth nor high probability.

To quote Popper:

"What we do use is a method of trial and of the elimination of error; however misleadingly this method may look like induction, its logical structure, if we examine it closely, totally differs from that of induction. Moreover, it is a method which does not give rise to any of the difficulties connected with the problem of induction." (Popper 1974, 1015)

 

Bibliography

Agassi, J. a. Verisimiluitude. http://www.tau.ac.il/~agass/joseph-papers/ver.pdf

Agassi, J. b. Karl Raimund Popper (1902-1994). http://www.tau.ac.il/~agass/joseph-papers/Popperiep.pdf

Bartley, W. 1984. The Retreat to Commitment. La Salle, London: Open Court.

Campbell, D. 1993. Evolutionary Epistemology. In Evolutionary Epistemology, Rationality, and the Sociology of Knowledge. Ed. By G.Radnitzky and W.W.Bartley, III. La Salle, Illinois: Open Court.

Campbell, D. 1993. Blind Variation and Selective Retention in Creative thought as in Other Knowledge Processes. In Evolutionary Epistemology, Rationality, and the Sociology of Knowledge. Ed. By G.Radnitzky and W.W.Bartley, III. La Salle, Illinois: Open Court.

Gattei, S. 2004. Karl Popper’s Philosophical Breakthrough. Philosophy of Science, 71: 448-466.

Law, S. 2004. Philosophy Gym. London: Headline Review.

Law, S. 2007. The Great Philosophers. London: Quercus.

Miller, D. 1994. Critical Rationalism: A Restatement and Defense. La Salle, Illinois: Open Court.

Miller, D. 2006. Out of Error. Further Essays on Critical Rationalism. Aldershot: Ashgate.

Musgrave, A. 2004. How Popper [Might Have] Solved the Problem of Induction. Philosophy, 79(1): 19-31.

Musgrave, A. 2007. Critical Rationalism. In E.Suárez-Iñiguez, ed.,  The Power of Argumentation (Poznań Studies in the Philosophy of the Sciences and the Humanities, vol.93). Amsterdam/New York: Rodopi :171-211.

Musgrave, A. 2009. Realism and Surrealism about Science. In A.Musgrave, Secular Sermons.  Otago University Press.

Popper, K. 1972. Objective Knowledge: An Evolutionary Approach. Oxford.

Popper, K. 1974. Replies to My Critics. In P.A.Schilpp, ed., The Philosophy of Karl Popper. La Salle, Illinois: Open Court.

Popper, K. 1992. In Search of a Better World. London and New York: Routledge.

Popper, K. 1993. Campbell on the Evolutionary Theory of Knowledge. In Evolutionary Epistemology, Rationality, and the Sociology of Knowledge. Ed. By G.Radnitzky and W.W.Bartley, III. La Salle, Illinois: Open Court.

Popper, K. 2002. The Logic of Scientific Discovery. London and New York: Routledge.

Popper, K. 2005. Realism and the Aim of Science. London and New York: Routledge.

Popper, K. 2008. Conjectures and Refutations. London and New York: Routledge.

Ñàäîâñêèé, Â.Í., 2000. Ýâîëþöèîííàÿ ýïèñòåìîëîãèÿ Êàðëà Ïîïïåðà. Â Ýâîëþöèîííàÿ ýïèñòåìîëîãèÿ è ëîãèêà ñîöèàëüíûõ íàóê. Ðåä. Â.Í.Ñàäîâñêèé. Ì.: Ýäèòîðèàë ÓÐÑÑ.

 

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[1] For, example, V.N.Sadovsky, who has made the largest work in translating Popper’s books and popularizing his ideas in Russia, in the introductory article for collection about evolutionary epistemology and the logics of social sciences, when talking about “the newest literature” on the problems dealt with in Popper’s philosophy mentions, besides his own articles, only one book − “the recent book of one of the nearest Popper’s colleagues David Miller ‘Critical rationalism’ which expounds not only modern interpretation of what now may be called Popper’s-Miller’s critical rationalism, but also states interesting ideas about many criticisms of Popper’s theories” (Ñàäîâñêèé Â.Í. “Ýâîëþöèîííàÿ ýïèñòåìîëîãèÿ Êàðëà Ïîïïåðà íà ðóáåæå ÕÕ è ÕÕI ñòîëåòèé” // Ýâîëþöèîííàÿ ýìèñòåìîëîãèÿ è ëîãèêà ñîöèàëüíûõ íàóê. Êàðë Ïîïïåð è åãî êðèòèêè, Ìîñêâà: Ýäèòîðèàë ÓÐÑÑ, 2000).

On the other hand, Martin Gardner (well-known author of many books popularizing science) ends his article “A Skeptical Look at Karl Popper” (in Skeptical Inquirer, 25(4):13-14, 2001), which is not very competent criticism of Popper’s philosophy, with a list of books he advises for “readers interested in exploring Popper's eccentric views”. Among this books only one belongs to Popperians (Gardner commends it as “of many books by Popperians, one of the best …, a skillful defense of Popper by his top acolyte”). It is David Miller’s Critical Rationalism: a Restatement and Defence.

[2] It can be objected, that all this is subjective (or intersubjective) evaluation (judgement), which can’t be expressed in objective, formalizable terms. I readily admit this. My principal point is exactly that no knowledge and no rationality is possible without subjective (intersubjective) evaluations (judgements), which can’t be expressed in objective, formalizable terms. "Epistemology without a Knowing Subject"[2] cannot be the whole of epistemology: for some purposes it can be useful to abstract a knowing subject for a while. But you can’t get adequate understanding of how human beliefs (including that specific realm we call scientific knowledge) are acquired and changed, what are necessary constituents and optional possibilities of this process, and which of those optional possibilities are more reasonable (rational), until we reintroduce a subject into the picture.

Especially, if we are talking about rationality, it is exactly the matter of how a person (subject) acquires and/or changes his/her beliefs. By beliefs I mean any idea, theory, proposition, attitude which person accepts, i.e. judges (or, using Miller’s favourite term, classifies) as true (or truthlike, sound, plausible, commendable etc.). Here I agree with Bartley that rationality is holding our views open to criticism (or, in other words, pursuit of truth plus fallibilism).

[3] Joseph Agassi suggests that it was really Einstein’s theory, which Popper assimilated in his epistemology and tried (unsuccessfully) to develop into stronger theory:

"The idea of verisimilitude is implicit in the writings of Albert Einstein ever since 1905… All his life Einstein presented new ideas as yielding older established ones as special cases and first approximations. The news has reached the philosophical community via the writings of Sir Karl Popper half-a-century after Einstein's trailblazing conception…" (Agassi a) "This requirement for resemblance to the truth, for verisimilitude, Einstein characterized as the requirement that the new theory explains the success (success as explanation and success as having passed severe tests) of its predecessors by presenting them as special cases and good approximations. Popper offered a more precise theory of verisimilitude that was devastated by criticism and he withdrew it." (Agassi b)

[4] I have added this paragraph after reading Miller’s article "Induction: a Problem Solved" in his later book Out of Error (2006). There, Miller refers to several writers who have observed that "for most of their histories science and technology proceeded independently of each other" and adduces many examples of prominent “pure” scientists who denied the possibility of some technological accomplishments which later were realized, or couldn’t envision technological application of the foremost scientific theories of their times. For example, Plank, Einstein and Bohr “couldn’t envision applications of atomic theories”. Miller asks: “Why should this have been so if science is, as so often thought, the inspiration of technology? The plain answer … is that science has very little to contribute to the advance of technology except for criticism; and that this criticism can always in principle be replaced by empirical rather than theoretical criticism; that is, but practical testing.” (Miller 2006, 122-123)

On my view, this “plain answer” is mistaken. It is especially obvious if we apply that answer to the case of “applications of atomic theories”. It is obviously not the case that all those tremendous “applications”, invented in XX century, could be as well invented if there was no atomic theory and theoretical physics at all, that all that these theories do could be replaced by empirical testing! As well, there would hardly be considerable technological applications of electricity without theories of electricity. And chemical technologies would do very poorly without chemical theories. Such examples may be multiplied in a very long list.

As for the question “Why many prominent “pure” scientists were mistaken about technological applications of scientific theories or failed to envision them?”, I think that correct answer is really plain: great scientists are just as fallible and lacking prescience on a great many questions as we are.

I think that in this context it is relevant to remind of Donald Campbell’s and Popper’s discussion about evolutionary epistemology. Campbell have proposed, and Popper have agreed, that variations in the process of evolution of knowledge or, more widely, of problematic situation and problem-solving facilities – which encompasses biological evolution as well as human (conscious, conceptual) knowledge – would be more correctly described as “blind”, not “chance”. These variations (mutations in the nature, hypotheses in human knowledge) are “blind” in the sense that they aren’t predetermined by previous developments. But, nevertheless, they aren’t purely chance, they are softly directed by previous developments; previous developments determine dispositions and limitations for new variations. I think that scientific theories similarly direct technological developments – both by creative suggestion and critical elimination.