Posted by Gari [Gari] on April 01, 1999 at 20:35:11 {feW1wc1uNQeyonal8IUEtymDqHhetw}:
In Reply to: ***Memorial questions, pls answer posted by Joseph Malik on April 01, 1999 at 16:02:21:
Mr. Malik,
First of all, Christ's last meal, called the Passover, was not actually that. At least, it was not on that Passover day. It preceded the Passover. There is no evidence that a lamb was prepared and eaten by the Lord and
his disciples. The true Lamb was present with them, and he would be slain on the morrow of this same 14th Nisan, fulfilling the type to the letter. No one should be disturbed by the designation of this last meal as the Passover by the
synoptics, for without doubt the term was used in an accommodative sense because it so resembled and so nearly coincided with the actual Passover. John's gospel makes it impossible to believe that it was actually the ordinary Passover.
Furthermore, Christ did not refer to it as the passover until the disciples had suggested it; and even then he referred to "keeping" rather than "eating" it.
Apparently in 1 Corinthians 11:20, the disciples were coming together for
two different meals. One for nourishment, the other for "the Lord's supper." Paul was angry at them for abusing the occation, specifically the second meal, being the Lord's supper. Paul went onto say in verse 24 that the body was broken
for them, then in verse 25, the cup was drank. Both done in remembrance of our Lord, until he comes again (10:26)
Gari