Have You Ever Wondered?
Introduction: What is Man
Have You Wondered - Part 1
Have You Wondered - Part 2
Have You Ever Wondered Answers
Page 1
1. Was Adam created in heaven, or on earth?
Adam was created on Earth. But what did God CREATE here? The body? Or his
soul/spirit nature? First off, note that God formed man's body out of ALREADY
EXISTING MATERIALS, in the same manner a potter forms a vessel. Thus man's
body was not a CREATION, but rather, a FORMATION. Gen. 2:7 says it was formed
out of the dust of the ground, or FROM EXISTING MATTER. To create, then, means
to bring into existence something from nothingness. The inner man, the soul
and the spirit, were CREATED. The soul and spirit were not taken from
something that existed, but rather they were created by God, when He breathed
the breath of life into the lifeless body of Adam. Vine's Expository
Dictionary of N.T. Words, Vol. 4, p. 54 says:
"The spirit may be recognized as the life principle bestowed on man by God,
the soul as the resulting life constituted in the individual, the body being
the material organism animated by soul and spirit."
Scripture dealing with the immaterial, invisible part of man:
"Nephesh", "Psuche" - Soul
I Kings 17:21 (KJV)
And he stretched himself upon the child three times, and cried unto the LORD,
and said, O LORD my God, I pray thee, let this child's soul (5315 - "nephesh")
come into him again.
Matt. 10:28 (KJV)
And fear not them which kill the body (4983 - "soma"), but are not able to
kill the soul (5590 - "psuche"): but rather fear him which is able to destroy
both soul (5590 - "psuche") and body (4983 - "soma") in hell.
*****************************************************************************
Matthew 10:28 - THE SOUL EXISTS AFTER DEATH - THE BIBLE TEACHING
In Matt. 10:28 Jesus says, "Do not be afraid of those who kill the body but
cannot kill the soul. Rather, be afraid of the One who can destroy both soul
and body in hell." In this verse, the Greek word used for "soul" is "psuche".
* * *
How do you reconcile the Watchtower position with Matt 10:28, which clearly
indicates that it is possible to kill the body WITHOUT killing the soul?
If the word "soul" is just another way of referring to the "whole person"--as
the Watchtower Society teaches--then wouldn't the soul die when the physical
body dies?
* * *
******************************************************************************
Acts 2:27 (KJV)
Because thou wilt not leave my soul (5590 - "psuche") in hell, neither wilt
thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.
"Ruwach (ruach)", "Pneuma" - Spirit
Eccl. 12:7
Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was; and the spirit (7307 -
"ruwach") shall return unto God who gave it.
Luke 8:55 (KJV)
And her spirit (4151 - "pneuma") came again, and she arose straightway; and he
commanded to give her meat.
Acts 7:59 (KJV)
And they stoned Stephen, calling upon God, and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my
spirit (4151 - "pneuma").
******************************************************************************
Acts 7:59 - "LORD JESUS, RECEIVE MY SPIRIT" - THE BIBLE TEACHING
In Acts 7:59 we read, And they went on stoning Stephen as he called upon the
Lord and said, 'Lord Jesus, receive my spirit!'" This verse would make
virtually no sense if we interpret "spirit" (pneuma) as simply the life-force
within Stephen that ceased to exist at the moment of his death. Why would
Stephen ask Jesus to "receive" that which was about to cease existing? He is
clearly asking Jesus to receive and take to Himself that part of his self that
would survive the death of his physical body.
* * *
From a plain reading of Acts 7:9, doesn't it seem unlikely that Stephen would
appeal to Jesus to "receive my spirit" if the spirit was merely his life-force
that was about to be extinguished and cease existing?
* * *
******************************************************************************
Rom. 8:16 (KJV)
The Spirit (4151 - "pneuma") itself beareth witness with our spirit (4151 -
"pneuma"), that we are the children of God.
I Cor. 5:5 (KJV)
To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the
spirit (4151 - "pneuma") may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.
James 2:26 (KJV)
For as the body (4983 - "soma") without the spirit (4151 - "pneuma") is dead,
so faith without works is dead also.
******************************************************************************
Genesis 2:7 - Man a "Living Soul"? - THE BIBLE TEACHING
It is true that in the O.T., the Hebrew word for soul (nephesh) can be used in
reference to a living being. Gen. 2:7 is clearly an example of this. BUT
BECAUSE THE WORD CAN BE USED IN THIS SENSE DOES NOT MEAN THAT IT IS LIMITED TO
THIS SENSE, OR THAT MAN DOES NOT HAVE AN IMMATERIAL NATURE. Gen. 2:7 is simply
telling us what man IS (a living being), not what he is NOT. In other words,
while Gen. 2:7 affirms that man is a living being, it does not DENY in any way
that man has an immaterial nature. To interpret this text in any other way, is
to read something into the verse that is simply not there. (In fact, Gen.
35;18 may be an example of "nephesh" being used of man's immaterial nature.)
* * *
Are you aware that the Hebrew word for soul (nephesh) can be used in a variety
of ways in Scripture?
* * *
Besides referring to "living beings", the word "nephesh" is also used in the
OT to speak of the seat of the emotions and experiences:
Deut. 28;65 - Man's "nephesh" can be SAD
Job 30:25 - " " can be GRIEVED
Psalm 13:2 - " " can be IN PAIN
Gen. 42:21 - " " can be DISTRESSED
Job 3:20 - " " can be BITTER
Psalm 6:3 - " " can be TROUBLED
Psalm 86:4 - " " can be CHEERED
Clearly, man's soul can experience a wide range of emotional ups and downs. In
this sense, "nephesh" seems to refer to the "inner man" WITHIN the human
being. This is consistent with verses like 2 Kings 4:7, where we read, "The
man of God said, 'Let her alone, for her soul is troubled WITHIN HER'" (NASB).
Likewise, Psalm 42:6 says, "O my God, my soul is in despair WITHIN ME" (NASB),
and Psalm 43:5 says, "Why are you in despair, O my soul? And why are you
disturbed WITHIN ME?" (NASB).
* * *
Do you concede that the word "nephesh, for example, can be used to refer to
the "inner man" as opposed to man as a living being?
* * *
Now, having said all this, I must mention that one of the most important
principles of Bible interpretation is that SCRIPTURE INTERPRETS SCRIPTURE. We
must ever bear in mind that the interpretation of a specific passage must not
contradict the total teaching of God's Word on a given point. INDIVIDUAL TEXTS
DO NOT EXIST AS ISOLATED FRAGMENTS, BUT AS PARTS OF A WHOLE. The exposition of
these texts must therefore exhibit them in right relation both to the whole
and to each other. Remember, each of the biblical writers wrote within the
larger context of previous biblical teaching. And they all assumed that ALL OF
SCRIPTURE--though communicated through human instruments--HAD ONE AUTHOR (GOD)
WHO DIDN'T CONTRADICT HIMSELF (2 PETER 1:21).
By comparing Scripture with Scripture, it becomes quite evident that while
Genesis 2:7 says only that man became a "living being", other passages clearly
point to man's immaterial nature. Let us now turn our attention to some of
these.
2. Was Adam created mortal, or immortal?
Since Adam was created in the image of God, he was created perfect in every
way. That "image" includes something more than moral and intellectual
resemblance. It involves an invisible being (the soul and the spirit) who
dwells within an outward tabernacle, or body (I Thess 5:23). The use of the
words, "mortal" and "immortal" is very misleading. It leaves the reader with
the impression that it is an "either/or" situation. However, the answer is
"neither". The biblical term is everlasting life or life everlasting,
therefore I prefer NOT to use the term "immortal". Yes, Adam was created with
everlasting life.
Matt. 19:29 (KJV)
And EVERYONE that hath forsaken houses, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or
mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my (Jesus) name's sake, shall
receive an hundredfold and shall inherit everlasting life.
John 4:14 (KJV)
But WHOSOEVER drinketh of the water that I shall give him shall never thirst;
but the water that I shall give him shall BE IN HIM a well of water springing
up into everlasting life.
John 5:24 (KJV)
Verily, verily, I (Jesus) say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth
on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into
condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.
Rom. 6:22 (KJV)
But NOW being made FREE FROM SIN, and become servants to God, ye have your
fruit unto holiness, and the END everlasting life.
Gal. 6:8 (KJV)
For he that soweth to his flesh shall of the flesh reap corruption; but he
that soweth to the Spirit shall of the Spirit reap life everlasting.
************************** ECCL 9:5, EZEK 18:4 *******************************
Ecclesiates 9:5 - THE DEAD KNOW NOTHING? - THE BIBLE TEACHING
While evangelical scholars interpret Ecclesiastes 9:5 in different ways, ALL
OF THEM agree that the verse is NOT teaching that man does not have a
conscious existence following death. The following are two major viewpoints:
1) It is well known that the Book of Ecclesiates presents two contrasting ways
of looking at man's plight in the world. One is the secular, humanistic,
materialistic viewpoint that interprets all things from a limited earthly
perspective--not recognizing God or His involvement in man's affairs. This
earthly perspective is the one completely unaided by divine revelation. The
other perspective is a godly, spiritual one that interprets life and its
problems from a God-honoring viewpoint. This viewpoint takes divine revelation
into account when interpreting life and its problems. This perspective
triumphs at the end of the book.
2) There are other evangelical scholars who interpret Ecclesiates 9:5 as
meaning that the dead are not conscious of events taking place IN THE PHYSICAL
REALM. Nevertheless, the dead ARE STILL conscious of things not associated
with the physical, earthly realm.
Besides giving God's viewpoint on matters, the Bible also relates many things
said and done by others, some good and some not so good. It presents human
viewpoints and even the devil's viewpoint. If we carefully study the Song of
Solomon, found in most Bibles immediately after Ecclesiates, we will discover
that it is actually a running conversation involving at least three different
speakers, although they are not clearly identified in the text. Could
something similar be said about Ecclesiastes?
Since Ecclesiates 9:1-10 expresses a strictly human perspective, then verse 5
indicates that FROM A STRICTLY HUMAN VIEWPOINT, the dead are conscious of
nothing at all. This being the case, the verse does not teach GOD'S TRUTH. And
this being so, the verse cannot be used to support the contention that there
is no conscious existence after death.
* * *
Did you know that the Book of Ecclesiates presents two contrasting viewpoints
- one that is strictly humanistic, and another that is spiritual and God-
honoring?
If, as many scholars believe, Ecclesiates 9:1-10 reflects the strictly
humanistic viewpoint, can you see how the statement in verse 5 reflects not
God's perspective but FALLEN HUMANITY'S PERSPECTIVE?
If the phrase "know not anything (Ecc. 9:5 NASB) means the dead are
unconscious in the grave, then doesn't the phrase "nor have they any longer a
reward" mean there will be no resurrection or rewards after this life - even
for Jehovah's Witnesses?
Ezekiel 18:4 - DEATH FOR THE SOUL? - THE BIBLE TEACHING
Ezek. 18:4 (KJV)
Behold, all souls (5315 - "nephesh") are mine; as the soul (5315 - "nephesh")
of the father, so also the soul (5315 - "nephesh") of the son is mine: the
soul (5315 - "nephesh") that sinneth it shall die.
The statement in Ezekiel 18:4 that "the soul who sins...will die" does not go
against the idea that man has an immaterial nature that consciously survives
death. In the present context, it is true that the Hebrew word for soul
(nephesh) is used in the sense of a "living being" or "person". This is not
disputed by evangelicals. (As noted earlier, in certain contexts "nephesh"
means "living being"; it can also have other meanings - such as the "inner
person" of a human being.) Evangelicals point out that since man's immaterial
nature is not discussed in Ezekiel 18:4, we cannot draw conclusions about it,
pro or con, from this verse. All Ezekiel was intending to do was to combat a
false teaching that had arisen in his day - a teaching related to the doctrine
of inherited guilt. Some people were arguing that children were suffering and
dying because of the sins of their fathers. While it is true that there is an
accumulative effect of sin (see Exodus 20:5-6), Ezekiel's point in this verse
was to emphasize that each individual is accountable for his OWN sin. That's
why he said that the soul (or person) who sins will die. He wasn't attempting
to teach anything about man's POSSESSION or LACK OF an immaterial nature. (see
discussion and questions for Gen. 2:7). Gen. 35:18 is an example where
"nephesh" is recognized as distinct from the physical body, which dies.
******************************************************************************
3. If Adam had not been disobedient and sinned, would he have died?
No. God told Adam in Genesis 2:17, "IN THE DAY that thou eatest thereof [of
the tree of the knowledge of good and evil] thou shalt surely die." The VERY
DAY that Adam sinned HE DIED. Obviously, this was not a physical death, for
Adam could still talk and walk around. Did God tell a lie? Of course not! We
read that right away Adam was changed (and Eve, too):
(1) They knew they were naked (v. 7)
(2) They made clothes from fig leaves to hide their nakekness (v. 7)
(3) They hid themselves from the presence of the LORD God (v. 8)
(4) They were afraid because they were naked (v. 10)
(5) Adam blamed Eve, who, in turn, blamed the serpent (v. 12-13)
So the immediate changes as the result of sin were; shame, fear, and blame.
When this took place, mankind's fellowship with God was broken; this is
SPIRITUAL DEATH. Adam and Eve became spiritually dead. Satan was now their
father, not God. Death always means separation. Physical death occurs when the
body is separated from the soul and the spirit. Spiritual death occurs when
the inner man, soul and spirit, are separated from God through sin. Death,
both physical and spiritual are the result/penalty of sin.
Rom. 7:5 (KJV)
For when we were in the flesh (the state of spiritual death), the motions of
sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto
death.
Rom. 7:24 (KJV)
O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?
Rom. 8:5-11 (KJV)
(5) For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but
they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit. (6) For to be
carnally minded is death (spiritual death); but to be spiritually minded is
life and peace. (7) Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is
not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be. (8) So then they that
are in the flesh cannot please God. (9) But ye are not in the flesh, but in
the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God DWELL IN YOU. Now if any man have
not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. (10) And if Christ BE IN YOU, the
body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.
(11) But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead DWELL IN YOU,
he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies
by his Spirit that DWELLETH IN YOU.
I Cor. 2:14 (KJV)
But the natural man (spiritually dead person) receiveth not the things of the
Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them,
because they are spiritually discerned.
II Cor. 1:9-10 (KJV)
But we had the sentence of death IN OURSELVES, that we should not trust in
ourselves (salvation by works), but in God which raiseth the dead (can be
applied to both physical and spiritual life): Who delivered us from so great a
death, and doth deliver: in whom we trust that he will yet deliver us.
II Cor. 5:17 (KJV)
Therefore if ANY MAN be IN Christ, he is a new creature (spiritually alive):
old things (spiritual death) are passed away; behold, all things become new.
This "new man (creature)" can never die (John 5:24). Eph. 2:1 (KJV) "And you
hath he quickened (made alive), who were dead in trespasses and sins."
(Read Eph. 2:1-10 to establish context.)
4. Did Adam's course of action prove he was mortal, or immortal?
Again, the answer is "neither". I will not use the term "immortal". Death does
not mean that something ceases to exist. The human body dies, but it does not
cease to exist, even when it returns to dust. The elements, minus the
evaporated H 2 O, in the human body remain the same, only the form has changed.
Romans 5:12 (KJV)
"Wherefore, as by one man (Adam) sin entered into the world, and death by sin;
and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned."
5. By his sin, did Adam lose an earthly home, or a heavenly one?
Adam's sin cost him a great deal more than an earthly home or a heavenly one.
One IMMEADIATE penalty was that he lost his perfect Earthly Garden home. (Gen.
3:23-24) Another, he died spiritually the moment he sinned. That is, his soul
and spirit were corrupted and thus became separated from God. Satan became his
father, rather than God. All humans since that time have been born into the
family of Satan. It is only through the "new birth" that this relationship to
Satan can be changed.
John 3:3 (KJV)
"Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a
man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God."
John 3:5 (KJV)
Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, except a man be born of water
(physical birth), and of the Spirit (spiritual birth), he cannot enter into
the kingdom of God."
Luke 17:20-21 (KJV)
"And when he (Jesus) was demanded of the Pharisees, when the kingdom of God
should come, he answered them and said, The kingdom of God cometh NOT WITH
OBSERVATION: neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the
kingdom of God is WITHIN YOU."
Where is the "kingdom of God" located according to the Bible?
Read Luke 17:20-21 again.
See answers 1 through 7.
******************************************************************************
John 3:5 - BECOMING "BORN AGAIN" - THE BIBLE TEACHING
Scripture is clear that the opportunity to become born again is not limited to
144,000 people in the so-called Anointed Class, but is open to ALL who believe
in Jesus Christ. I John 5:1, for example, states "EVERYONE who believes that
Jesus is the Christ is born of God". THERE ARE NO EXCEPTIONS. Any and all who
believe in Jesus Christ are "born again". John 3:16 - WHOSOEVER - John 1:12-13
* * *
Why is it that every passage in the New Testament that speaks of being born
again says that ALL WHO BELIEVE IN JESUS can be born again, with no mention of
limiting this experience to a mere 144,000 people?
Please show me a single passage in the Bible that specifically states that the
"born-again experience" is LIMITTED to only 144,000.
* * *
Being "born again" (literally, "born from above") simply refers to the act in
which God gives eternal life to the one (ANYONE!) who believes in Christ
(Titus 3:5). Being born again thus places one in God's eternal family (I Peter
1:23) and gives the believer a new capacity and desire to please the Father (2
Cor. 5:17) This fits with what we read in John 3:6: "That which is born of the
flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit" (NASB). The
"flesh" includes not only what is natural but what is sinful in man - that is,
man as he is born into this fallen world and lives his life apart from God's
grace. Flesh can only reproduce itself as flesh, and this cannot pass muster
with God (cf, Rom. 8:8). *the law of reproduction is 'after its kind'. So
likewise, the Spirit produces spirit, a life born, nurtured, and matured by
the Spirit of God. This experience of fallen man receiving eternal life from
God is open to all who believe in Christ. Since each person's nature, because
of Adam's sin, is sinful, each person (or soul) must change this condition.
What is sinful CANNOT ENTER THE KINGDOM OF GOD. (John 3:5). The only way one
can enter God's kingdom is to experience a spiritual rebirth. In John 3, this
is precisely what Jesus is emphasizing to Nicodemus.
******************************************************************************
6. If Jesus came to restore that which was lost by Adam's fall, what will be
restored?
The kingdom of God that is WITHIN the believer. (Luke 17:21). Volumes could
and have been written to answer this question, since Jesus Christ and His
redemptive plan for mankind is the major theme throughout the entire Bible,
both Old and New Testaments. When Adam sinned, his total nature (body, soul
and spirit) became defiled by his rebellion and transgression. Adam
immediately died spiritually - he became separated from God. Jesus Christ came
to restore spiritual life within the soul and spirit by redeeming fallen
mankind.
Rom. 3:24 (KJV)
Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ
Jesus.
7. Was Adam composed of two distinct parts, the soul and the body?
No. He was created a tripartite being: body, soul and spirit.
Genesis 2:7 (KJV)
And the LORD God formed man (120 - "adam") of the dust of the ground, and
breathed (5301 - "naphach") into his nostrils the breath (5397 - "neshamah")
of life (2416 - "chay"): and man (120 - "adam") became a living (2416 -
"chay") soul (5315 - "nephesh").
Ps. 104:29-30
29 Thou hidest thy face, they are troubled; thou takest away their breath
(7307 - "ruwach"), they die, and return to their dust.
30 Thou sendest forth thy spirit (7307 - "ruwach"), they are created: and thou
renewest the face of the earth.
Ps. 146:3-4
3 Put not your trust in princes, nor in the son of man, in whom there is no
help.
4 His breath (7307 - "ruwach") goeth forth, he returneth to his earth; in that
very day his thoughts (6250 - "eshtonah": from thinking) perish.
******************************************************************************
Psalm 146:3, 4 - IS MAN CONSCIOUS AFTER DEATH? - THE BIBLE TEACHING
In context and in consideration of the original Hebrew, what is the true
meaning of these verses? What is the message that the writer of Psalm 146
meant to get across? Were these verses penned to instruct readers about the
condition of the dead?
When all of Psalm 146 is read in context, it becomes obvious that verse 4 does
not deny conscious life after death. The lesson of Psalm 146 is that we should
put our trust in God rather than in human leaders. God is to be praised (v. 1-
2). In contrast to man, God is a Helper who gives secure hope (v. 5), who
created heaven and earth (v. 6), who brings justice for the oppressed (v. 7),
who heals the sick (v. 8), who cares about the lowly ones (v.9), and who is
King forever (v. 10). Man, on the other hand, offers no real salvation (v. 3),
because he himself dies and everything he intended to do dies with him (v. 4).
An actual example of the lesson of Psalm 146 is found in the death of
President John F. Kennedy. He was a "prince" whom many people trusted to help
them improve their lot in life. Yet, when he died, "all his thoughts did
perish"--with him gone, his plans and programs soon collapsed. People who had
put all their trust in him were disappointed. Their primary trust should have
been in God, who offers real hope, justice, healing, and salvation--and who
remains King forever.
Clearly, Psalm 146 cannot be used to support the idea that there is no
conscious existence after death. It is man's plans and ambitions--not his
consciousness--that perishes at death.
* * *
Since the Hebrew word for "thoughts" carries the idea of plans, doesn't it
make sense to interpret the psalmists words as meaning that peoples' PLANS and
AMBITIONS cease and come to nought at the moment of death?
Introduction: What is Man
Have You Wondered - Part 1
Have You Wondered - Part 2
Home Page