A. 0.44
B.1.5
C. 0.8
D.2.25
Ans. D Ref.
89. In a study conducted among ten thousand men,6000 men were given carotene out
of which60 men developed the disease. Out of remaining 4000, who were not given
carotene,40 men developed the disease. Which of the following statement is true
about the study
A. Carotene increases chances of carcinoma
B. Carotene does not increase chances of carcinoma
C. Carotene decreases chance of carcinoma
D. Data is insufficient
Ans. B Ref.
90. Biological oxygen demand denots contamination with
A. Bacteria
B. Organic matter
C.
D.
Ans. B Ref.
91. Asbestosis causes all except
A. Mesothelioma
B. Calcified pleural plaque
C. Pnemoconiosis
D. Alveolar damage
Ans. D Ref.
92. Pnemoconiasis is caused by all except
A. Silica
B. Coal dust
C. SO2
D. Tobacco
Ans. D Ref.
93. Sentinal survillance is done to detect
A. Incidence of disease
B. Total number of cases
C.
D.
Ans. B Ref.
94. If cofficient of variance is1.1, it shows
A. Strong association
B. Negative association
C. Wrong calculation
D. Some association
Ans. C Ref.
96. Double Elisa test was performed on a population. This is result in
A. Increased Specificity and Positive Predictive Value (PPV)
B. Increased sensitivity and increased PPV
C. Increased sensitivity and Negative predictive Value (NPV)
D. Increased specificity and increased NPV
Ans. D Ref.
97. Pulses and cereals are given together in a balanced diet because
A. Pulses lack lycin and cereals lack threonin
B. Pulse are rich in methionine and cereals lack methionine
C. Pulses lack methionine and cereals lack lysin
D. Pulses have essential amino acids and cereals have non-essential amino acids
Ans. C Ref.
98. Best graph for demonstration of relationship between ages and weight
A. Bar Diagram
B. Histogram
C. Scatter
D. Pie diagram
Ans. Ref.
99. Iron and Folic acid supplementation is a type of
A. Specific protection
B. Health promotion
C. Health education
D. Primordial protection
Ans. A Ref.
100. Vitamin B12 and Folic acid causes macrocytic anemia thorugh
A.
B.
C. Inhibit DNA synthesis
D.
Ans. Ref.
PAEDIATRICS
101. A2 year old child present with fever (38.5 C) and respiration rate50 per
minute without chest retraction. He is suffering from
A. Very sever pnemonia
B. Severe pnemonia
C. Pnemonia
D. Simple fever
Ans. C Ref.
102. A child with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis will have
A. Hyperchlorimic acidosis with aciduria
B. Hypochlorimic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria
C. Hypochlorimic acidosis with paradoxical alkalosis
D. Normochloric Acidurea
Ans. B Ref.
103. A neonate presents with acute obstruction with multiple fluid levels.
Diagnosis is
A. Pyloric Stenosis
B. Duodenal atresia
C. Ileal atresia
D. Lazz’s band
Ans. C/B Ref.
104. A child with high fever and coryza for last3 days developed maculopapular
erythmatous rashed with lasted48 hours, leaving behind no pigmentation
A. Measles
B. Fifth disease
C. Typhoid
D. Roseola infantum
Ans. D Ref.
105. Which of the following would cause concern about development of a12 week
child
A. If don’t voccalise
B. If don’t babble
C. If neck holding at90 is absent
D. If don’t change ring from one hand to other if given in hand
Ans. A Ref. NOT "C", Ahuja (psyciatry)
106. Guddu, neonate, present with seizures and skin rashes. On blood examination
hyperammonimea and lactic acidosis were found. Likely diasgnosis is
A. Organic aciduria
B. Mitochondrial enencephaly with lactic acidosis
C.
D.
Ans. B Ref.
107. A8 year old girl presents with recurrent urinary tract infectoin. On
micturating cysto urthrogram, Bilateral vesicouterine reflex of grade IV was
found. Bladder is normal. Most effective treatment will be
A.
B. IV antibiotics
C. Ureterinc reimplantation
D. Join left urter with right ureter
Ans. C Ref.
108. A two old girl has weight of6.7 Kg. She suffered an attack of diarrhrea. If
skin in picnhed, her skin goes back in seconds. Which of the following is true
about her
A. Severe dehydration
B. Mild Dehydration
C. Moderate dehydration
D. No comment can be made on these data
Ans. D Ref.
109. Which of the following is false about hyaline membrane disease
A. It occurs when delivery occurs before34 weeks
B. Diabetes mellitus is a predisposing factor
C. Cyanosis
D.100% oxygen is the treatment
Ans. D Ref.
110. Most common cause of neonatal liver disease is
A. Hemachromatosis
B. Alpha-1-antitryption defeciency
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Glycogen Storage disease
Ans. Ref.
111. A down syndrome girl has21/21 translocation of chromosomes. Her father is
carrier of balanced translocation. Risk of down syndrome in next pregnancy is
A.100%
B.50%
C.25%
D. 0%
Ans. A Ref.
MEDICINE
112. Sudden development of rewspiratory distress and wheeze on right side with
decreased respiratory movement. X-ray shows more opacity on right side.
A. Foreign body aspiration
B. Massive pleural effusion
C. Pnemonia
D.
Ans. A Ref.
113. A child present with sudden onset of stridor with decrased respiratory
sounds on left side and X ray show hyperinflation on right side. Most likely
diagnosis is
A. Emphysema
B. FB aspiration
C. Pnemonia
D. Massive pnemothorax
Ans. B Ref.
114. Which of the following is feature of lobulated pleural effusion
A. Obtuse angle with mediastinum/chest wall
B. Anti razor sharp border
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
115. In cases of acute poisoning requiring gastric lavage, endotraheal
intubation is mandatory because
A. To prevent aspiration
B. To relieve respiratory distress
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
116. Medullary cystic kidney disease is best diagnosed by
A. Radionuclide scanning
B. Biopsy
C. USG
D. IVP
Ans. C/D Ref. H-1601
117. A8 year old patient presents with fever, sore throat and lymphadenopathty.
On examination no hepatosplenomegaly was found. Peripheral blood film shows20%
atypical lymphocytes. Likely diagnosis is
A. CLL
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. ALL
D. CML
Ans. B Ref.
118. For the diagnosis of brain death all of the following are required except
A. Absent deep tendon reflex
B.
C. Complete apnea
D. Heart do not response to Atopine
Ans. D Ref.
119. Which of the following is aaociated with HLA
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Fibrocalcific DM
D. MODY
Ans. A Ref. H-1836
120. True about Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
A. Increased APTT
B. Increased AT
C. Increased BT
D. Increased CT
Ans. A Ref. If C option was TTP ?
121. True about HSP
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Increased tendency of infection
C. Intracranial hemorrhage
D. Melana
Ans. D Ref.
122. Renal osteodystrophy can be differentiated from nutritional and genetically
Vit D dependent rickets by
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hyperphosphaetemia
Ans. D? Ref.
123. Which of the following is not found in pheochromocytoma
A. Paroxymal hypertension
B. Postural hypotension
C. Headache
D.
Ans. D Ref.
124. Sareef has undergone semen analysis. Sperm count is15 million/ml.60% of
sperms are motile and60% show normal morphology. Diagnosis is
A. Azoospermia
B. Oligospermia
C. Testicular atrophy
D. Normal recults
Ans. B Ref.
125. SI unit of Blood Pressure is
A. mmHg
B. pKa
C.
D.
Ans. C Ref.
126. All of the following are charscteristc of Myxoma except
A. Hypertention
B. Fever
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
127. All of the following are Autosomal dominant condition except
A.
B. Hereditary Spherocytosis
C. Sickel cell anemia
D. Glucose6 PD def
Ans. D Ref.
128. Best diagnostic tool for Invasive amoebiasis is
A.
B. Haem agglutination
C. ELISA
D.
Ans. C Ref.
129. Pankaj comes for blood donation but he is having HbsAg and HbeAg positive,
and serum transaminase level is normal, what would be the next line of
management
A. Treat with interferone
B. HBV DNA estimaion
C. Liver biosy
D. Observation
Ans. A Ref.
130. Abdul, present to causalty6 hr after snake bite, he is having pain and
local swelling less than2 inches with no systemic symptomand bleeding. Next line
of mangement
A.
B. Start polyvalent AVS
C. Stop antivenom
D. Obseravation
Ans. D Ref.
131. Annu,24 yr, positive for HIV is pregnant. ART given before dilivary would
reduce chances of perinatal transmission by
A.35 %
B.50 %
C.65%
D.100 %
Ans. B Ref. H1858
132. All of the following are correct about Thromboangitis obliterance except
A. Caudication
B. Reynold’s phenomenon
C. Absent poplitial pulse
D. Migratory superficial thrombophelibitis
Ans.C H-1436 Ref.
133. Which of the following have hypergastrinemia with decrease acid output
A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. ZES
C.
D. Pernicious Anemia
Ans. D Ref.
134. Topically applied floride causes
A. Deposition of hydroxy apatite
B. Inhibition of plaque causeing bacteria
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
135. Which of the following is transmitted by blood transfusion
A. Parvovirus18
B. Dengue fever
C. CMV
D. Hepatitis G
Ans. Dengue is not tranmitted H738. Ref.
136. Apo48 and Apo100 are different from each other on the basis of
A. Genetic composition
B. RNA spilicing
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
137. Rheumatic factor estimation is important in a case of arthritis because
A. Rh +ve cases have poor prognosis
B. Rh -ve excludes diagnosis of rheumatic arthritis
C. Rh factor is specific for rheumatic arthritis
D. It is important incase of juvenile arthritis
Ans. A Ref.
138. Which of the following is not found in conn’s syndrome
A. Hypokalimia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypertention
D. Oedema
Ans. D (escape phenomenon) Ref.
139. TSH infusion test is used to detect
A. LH
B. ACTH
C. FSH
D. GH reserve
Ans. B Ref.
140. Hypoglycemia is not seen in
A. Hypo pituitarism
B.
C.
D. Acromegaly
Ans. D Ref.
141. Which of the following is not associated with steroid intake
A. Hypertrophy of muscles
B. Peptic Ulcer
C. Suppresion of pituitory-adreno axis
D. Osteoporasis
Ans. A Ref.
142. Anion Gap is increased in
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B.
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
143. Anion Gap is normal in
A. DKA
B. Antifreeze ?? B.
C.Shock
D.Chronic renal failure
Ans. Ref.
144. Acute decrease in serum calcium conc. results in
A. Chronotopic and ionotopic effect on heart and teeth
B. Release of parathyroid and thyroid hormones
C. Irritability and easy excitability
D. Osteoporosis of bones
Ans. Ref.
145. All of the following are trnsmitted genetically excpet / Pheochromocytoma
is associated with all except
A. Vonrecklin housen sysndrome
B. Marfan sydrome
C. Tuberosclerosis
D. Von hipple lindu syndrome
Ans. B Ref.
146. Hypokalemia causes all except
A. Muscle wasting
B.
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
148. A child died to acute rheumatic fever. Which of the following will not be
seen in heart
A. Rupture of papillary muscle
B. Fibrinus pericarditis
C. Ascoff’s nodule
D. Mc callum’s patch
Ans. A? Ref.
149. False about dorsal horn cell disease
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
150. Chandresh, a30-year-old man presents with hypertention, claudication and
h/o stroke. On investigation, noching on lower border of anterior rib was found.
Most likely diagnosis is
A. VSD
B. Superior-Vecal obstruction
C. Coarctation of aorta
D. Benign hypertension
Ans. C Ref.
151. Sodium130, K =1.9, HCO3 =19, fluid given is
A.
B.
C. MgSO4
D. Hypertonic saline
Ans. Ref.
152. Nafisa, a53 year old lady had blood sugar =600, Na = 122. She was treated
and present blood sugar level is100. What will be the next step
A. Sodium level will automatically come to normal
B. Saline has to be infused
C.3% saline
D.
Ans. Ref.
153. Birju developed sudden resp distress during central venous catheterisation.
Most likly cause is A. Septicemia
B. Injury
C. Pneumothorax
D. Ans. Ref.
154. Original syndrome described by Zollinger and Ellison is
A. Hypergastrenimia with non beta cell tumour
B. Hypergastrenemia with beta cell tumour
C.
D.
Ans. A Ref.
155. CMV occurs in AIDS if CD4 count fall below
A.50
B.100
C.150
D.200
Ans. A Ref.
156. Budhia, a52 year old man comes with history of blood loss. His BP is80/60.
PT, CT, APTT increased and there is thrombocytopenia. Which of the following is
best IV solution for him
A. Frozen plasma
B. IV Saline
C. Colloid
D.
Ans. A Ref.
157. Globi cells in lepromatous leprosy are consist of
A.
B. Foam cells with fat globules
C. Foam cells with lysozomes
D. Macrophage cell laden with acid fast bacilli
Ans. D Ref.
158. Which of the following is true about baby of a diabetic mother
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Polycythemia
D.
Ans. A Ref.
159. Renal venous thrombosis is associated with
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Minimal change disease
C. Glomerulopathy
D. Membranous GN
Ans. D? Ref.
160. Urine of a gout patient is to be preserved to detect gouty crystals. Best
solution is preserve is urine is
A. Alcohol
B. Formaldehyde
C. Acetic Acid
D.
Ans. A Ref.
161. Most common cause of congenital cardiac anamoly is
A. Autosomal dominent
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X Linked
D. Multifactorial
Ans. D Ref.
162. Not true about Jugular venous pressure
A. c wave denotes atrial contraction
B. a wave denote ventricular contraction
C.
D. v-y = rapid decent in
Ans. Ref.
163. True statement is
A. cannon wave denoted complete heart block
B.
C. Superior venacaval obstruction result in increase in JVP and exaggerated
pulsation
D.
Ans. Ref.
164. Which is the best investigation tool for15th day of typhoid fever
A. Blood culture
B. Stool culture
C. Urine culture
D. Widal test
Ans. A? bone marrow is best and widal and blood culter are equally positive
on15th day. Widal may be non specific.
165. Granulocytic hepatitis is not caused by
A. Candida
B. Metastatic carcinoma
C.
D. Halothan
Ans. Ref.
166. Bilateral peri-hilar alveolitis with wheeze….. is found in
A. Extrinsic alveolitis
B.
C.
D. Sarcoidosis
Ans. Ref.
MISCELANEOUS
167. Superior external pudendal artery is a branch of
A. Internal Iliac artery
B. External iliac artery
C. Pudendal artery
D. Femoral artery
Ans. D Ref.
168. Barbiturates are contraindicated in
A. Acute intermittent porphyria
B. Anxiety
C.
D.
Ans. A Ref.
169. Intestinal biopsy from a46 year old patient shows
numerous bacteria. Most likly cause is
A. Celeic disease
B. Whipple's disease
C.
D.
Ans. B Ref.
170. All of the following are true regarding case control
study except
A. Relative risk can be calculated
B. Less expensive
C. Suitable for rare diseases
D. Backward study
Ans. Ref.
171. True statement regarding Direct standardization is
A. Age specific rates are required
B. Age specific rates are not required
C. It is a type of cae control study
D. Two populations with diff. age groups are compared
Ans. B Ref.
172. Webers test is done by
A. Putting the tuning fork on patient's forehead and occluding external auditory
canal
B. Comparing bone conduction of patient with that of examiner
C. Putting tunig form first on mastoid and than on forehaed
D. Putting tuning fork on patient vertex and asking him in which ear he hears
better
Ans.D Ref.
173. In case of raised intraocular pressure, tonography is
used for
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
174. True statement about disc prolapse is ???
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
175. In a patient under anaesthesia, Helium is given with
oxygen becuase
A. It releaves pain
B.
C. It helps in better delivery of oxygen
D.
Ans. Ref.
176. All of the following are true about congenital rubella
syndrome except
A. Cardiac anamolies
B. Deafness
C. Eye involvement
D. ASD
Ans. D Ref.
177. Drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder
A.
B.
C. Clomipremine
D.
Ans. C Ref.
PSYCHIATRY
178. A chronic alcoholic has left drinking alcohol since3 days. He has developed
…… Most likely cause is
A. Koroskoff psychosis
B. Delerium tremens
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
179. Delusion is not seen in
A. Depression
B. Delirium
C. Schizophrenia
D. Mania
Ans. A Ref.
180. Visual and auditory hallucinations are characteristically seen in
A. Organic brain lesion
B.
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
181. A child create nuisense everywhere. He is so naughty that his activities
disturb all other children in the class. He cannot stay at one place. Most
likely diagnosis is
A. Attention deficient hyperkinetic disorder
B. Autism
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
182. Prakashchandra,42 year old man has complain non progressive headache since
many weeks. He has visited several neurosurgeons saying that he has brain tumour.
Clinical examination and laboratory investigations are negative. He is not ready
to accept the reports. His psychological is being done. He is probably suffering
from
A. Hypochoandriasis
B. Somatization
C. Somatiform disorder
D.
Ans. A Ref.
183. Pooja, a27 year old female eating voraciously and taking luxative and than
eating more and more again and again. Most likly diagnosis is
A. Bulemia nervosa
B. B
C. Anorexia nervosa
D.
Ans. a Ref.
184. A45 year old lady has typical ….. movement of hands and ….. She cannot
recall any of the events. Most likely diagnosis is
A. Dissociation disorder
B. Conversion disorder
C. Temporal lobe epilepsy
D. Fugue
Ans. Ref.
185. All of the following are true about visual hallucination
A. Depends upon will of observer
B. Seen against vivid background
C.
D. It is percepted without stimulus
Ans. Ref.
SKIN / VD
186. Genital Elephentitis is seen in
A. Chancroid
B. Syphilis
C. LGV
D.
Ans. C Ref.
187. Wickhems stria are seen in
A. Psoriasis
B.
C.
D. Lichen planus
Ans. D Ref.
188. Rameshwar lal was receiving steroids for psoriasis. He has developed fever
and pustules all over his body after stopping steroids. Most likely cause is
A. Drug eruption
B. Pustular psoriasis
C. Septicemia
D.
Ans. B Ref.
189. Scaly lesions on chest with -- distribution. Most likely cause is
A. Pitriasis versicolr
B. Pitriasis Alba
C. Psoriasis
D. Pitriasis rosea
Ans. D Ref.
190. In fungal infection of nail antifungal drugs are given for
A.3 weeks
B.6 weeks
C.3 month
D.6 month
Ans. Ref.
191. Drug not given in Pitriasis versicolor
A. Gresiofulvin
B. Ketoconazole
C. Selenium
D. Clotimazole
Ans. A Ref.
192. Which of the following is not a STD
A. Chlaymidia
B. Molluscum contagiosus
C. E. granulosus
D. Streptococcus B
Ans. C Ref.
SURGERY
193. A46-year-old man comes for some problems. He has been operated for varicose
veins at age of21. Dye was injected and it was freely flowing from thigh to
foot. -- saphenous vlave is found to be patent. Most effective treatment for
this patient is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
194. Begum nazeer, presents with amenorrhea and galactorrhea. She has two
issues, having age of5 and6 years respectively. On investigation, serum
prolactin level is raised and empty sella turcica was found. She is most likely
suffering from
A. Prolactinoma
B.
C.
D. Sheehan syndrome
Ans. A Ref.
195. Sentinal LN biopsy is done for
A. Ca Breast
B. Ca thyroid
C. Retropharyngeal Ca
D. Lung Cancer
Ans. A Ref. Bailey -767
196. ACTH production by a pituitary tumour can be diffrentiated from ectopic
ACTH production by
A. Dexamethasone suppression test
B. Petrosal sinus sampling of blood
C. Serum ACTH levels
D. CT scan
Ans. B Ref. H.,15th ed.2093
197. Which of the following is a true statement
A. CT scan can differentiate adrenal adenoma from adrenal hyperplasia
B. MRI scan can differentiate adrenal adenoma from adrenal hyperplasia
C. MRI is better to CT in differentiating pitutary cause of cushing syndrome
D.
Ans. C Ref.
198. False statement about kidney is
A. Kidney is a site of portal anastomosis
B. Renal artery gives5 branches before entering hylum
C. Segmental supply is end arterial supply
D. Annular veins arise from surface
Ans. A Ref.
199. Narender presents with … tuft of hairs at back. Most likely diagnosis is
A. Sinus dermoid
B. Phylum terminale
C. Caudal regression syndrome
D.
Ans. Ref.
200. Ganpatrai, a70 year old man suffered suffered45% burn and
scalds, which resulted in blister formation.2-4 blisters have ruptured. All of
the following can be done except
A. Silver sulphadiagine ointment + no dressing
B. Light daily change of dressing
C. Hetrotrophic skin transplantation + sutures to keep it in position + no
dressing
D. Local antibiotics + no dressing
Ans. Ref.
201. Pindborg Tumour
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. Melody khao, khud jaan jao Ref.
202. Diaphragmatic hernia does not occur through
A. Venacaval opening
B.
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
203. A26 year old girl suffered burn on lateral surface of arm.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
204. Sareef, a56 year old patient has painful external hemorrhoids. These pain
sensations are carried by
A. Pudendal Nerve
B. S2,3,4
C. Hypogastric Nerves
D. Splanchnic nerves
Ans. Ref.
205. Transection at C7 level will result in all except
A. Hypotension
B. No effect on respiration
C. Absent tendon reflex
D.
Ans. A Ref.
206. A patient with head injury has developed hypotension. The most likely
region to be involved is
A. Upper cervical
B. Lower cervical
C. Thoracic
D. Lumber
Ans. A/B? Ref.
207. Narendra age35, had injury tempal region of head, admitted to hospital and
gained coma immediately. Next line of management would be
A. MRI
B. CT sacn
C. X-ray Skull
D. Cranitomy
Ans. B Ref.
208. A female underwent throidectomy and removal of a parathyroid adenoma5 years
back. She is recovering from MI (6 weeks back) and have atrial fibrillation. Her
serum calcium level is13. Treatment of choice is
A. Radioactive compound
B. Surgery
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
209. Thyroid storm is not found treatment with
A. Thyroid Surgey
B. Acute infection
C. Radio iodine
D. Thyroid
Ans. C Ref.
210. A patient with thyroid nodule has enlarged neck LN on same side. On needle
aspiration, amyloid stroma is found. Diagnosis is
A. Medullary carcinoma
B. Follicular carcinoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Toxic Goiter
Ans. A Ref.
211. A patient with thyroid nodule has enlarged neck LN on same side. On needle
aspiration, amyloid stroma is found. Treatment of choice is
A. Total thyroidectomy + radical neck dissection
B. Lobular throidectomy with removal of isthmus
C. Lobular throidectomy, removal of isthmus and radical neck dissection
D. Lobectomy + removal of involved lymph node
Ans. A Ref.
212. False about De Querain throiditis
A. Autoimmune thyroiditis
B. Painful
C. Recover spontaneously
D. Viral etiology
Ans. A H-2074 Ref.
213. A patient Nafis presents with enlarged thyroid.5 years back, her mother
died of carcinoma thyroid. Next investigation to be done is
A. Serum T3 T4 TSH
B. ACTH and cortisol estimation
C. Urinary
D. Urinary VMA and HIAA
Ans. D Ref.
214. Bone marrow metastasis in a child is most commonly associated with
A. Rhabhdomyocytoma
B. Wilm’s tumour
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Renal cell carcinoma
Ans. C Ref.
215. Microcalcification in kedney is found in
A.
B. Wilm’s tumour
C.
D.
Ans. B Ref.
216. A patient had surgery for colon cancer. He has developed a2cm solitary
metastatic nodule in liver. TOC is
A. Chemotherapy
B. Radiotherapy
C. Resection
D.
Ans. C Ref.
217. Prophylatic Radiotherapy in CNS is given in all of the following except
A. ALL
B. NHL
C. Hodgkins Lymphoma
D.
Ans. D Ref.
218. Radiotherpy is TOC in
A. Meduloblastoma
B. Oligodendroma
C. Astrocytoma
D. Glioblastoma multiformis
Ans. A Ref.
219. A patient with chronic duodenal ulcer will likely to have obstruction at
A. Antrum
B. Pylorus
C. Duodenum
D.
Ans. Ref.
220. A boy underwent splenectomy after traumatic rupture of spleen, abter3 days
he presents with pain in left lower chest and upper abdomen, CXR shows
atelaectasis in left lower lung flat plate abdomen is showing non specific gas
accumulation in intestine and fluid level in left upper region. Most likely
diagnosis is
A. Pancreatitis
B. Subphernic abscess
C.
D.
Ans. B Ref.
221. All of the following are associated with ulcerative colitis except
A. Sclerosing cholengitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Ankylosong spondilitis
D. Uveitis
Ans. B Ref. H14th,1614
222. Pleural effution is drained at
A.5th ICS midclavicular line
B.7th ICS MAL (Mid axxilary line)
C.10th ICS lateral to vertebral body
D.2nd ICS in midclavicular line (MCL)
223. Mukundlal age35, is suffering from achlasia cardia, which of the treatment
modality used would have maximum recurrenc rate
A. Pneumatic dilation
B. Botulinum toxin
C. Endoscopic surgery
D. Myemotomy
Ans. B Ref.
224. Cork sckrew apperarance of oesophagus is seen in
A. AC
B. Oesophagia dysmotility
C. Ca Oesophagus
D. Candida
Ans. B Ref.
225. Which of the following surgical procedure is having lowest recurrence rate
in peptic ulcer diease
A. Highly selective vagotomy
B. Vagotomy and antrectomy
C. Vagotomy with pyeloroplasty
D. Billroth II
Ans. B Ref.
226. Predisposing factor of gastric carcinoma is
A. Duedenal Ulcer
B.Intestinal metaplasia type III
C.
D. Blood group O
Ans. B Ref.
227. Most premalignant condition is
A. Leukoplakia
B. Erythroplakia
C. Dysplasia
D.
Ans.B Ref.
228. Anita24 yr, pregnant lady is having thyrotoxic goitre, all of the following
are treatment modalites except
A. Anti thyroid drugs
B. Surgery at2nd trimester
C.
D.131 Iodine
Ans. D Ref.
229. Toti18 yr old lady presents with nonpitting oedema in right leg, which of
the following is cause
A.
B.
C.
D. Hypoplasia of lymphatics
Ans. Ref.
230. Pappu2 yr old child underwent thymectomy. What would be seen
A. Increased IgM
B. Decresed perifollicular cell in lymphnode
C. Incresed ……… in intestinal lymphnodes.
D.
Ans. Ref.
231. Which of the following are correct about Barret Oesophagus
A. Columnar tranformation in lower oesophagus
B. Squamous transformation in lower oesophagus
C. Columnar transformation in Upper oesophagus
D.
Ans. A Ref.
232. True Adenocarcinoma is common in
A. Barret oesophagus
B.
C.
D.
Ans. A Ref.
233. Most common salivary gland tumour
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Warthims tumour
C.
D.
Ans. A Ref.
234. Most common causee of intusseception in neonate
A. Meckel’s diverticulum
B.
C. Polyposis
D. Infection
Ans. D Ref. Bailey1067
235. A70 Kg man faced a burn injury4 weeks back. At that time his weight was90
Kg. Since4 week, he is on IV fluids and has not taken anything from mouth except
antacids. His stool examination reveals melana. He has right-sided inguinal
hernia which is reducible. He also has history of duodenal ulcer. His wound is
healing but showing eschar formation. His lower extremicities show flexion
contractions of joints. Next line of management will be
A. IV alimentation to let him regain his weight
B. Surgery for inguinal hernia
C. Surgery for eschar and nothing by mouth
D.
Ans. A? Ref.
ORTHOPAEDICS
236. Carpul tunnel syndrome is caused by palsy of
A. Ulner nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
Ans. B Ref.
237. Frature neck of humerus is most likely to injure which nerve
A. Radial
B. Ulner
C. Axillary
D. Medial
Ans. C Ref.
238. fractue of lateral condyl of femur is most likely to result in
A. Genu valgum
B. Genu varus
C. Genu
D.
Ans. Ref.
239. Patellar tendon is ligated in POP cast in which fracture
A. Tibia
B. Fibula
C. Medial condyl
D. Patella
Ans. A Ref.
240. Supracondylar fracture of humerus is liest likely to result in injury of
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulner nerve
C. Median nerve
D.
Ans. B Ref.
241. Expansile, lytic lesion in metaphysis of femur with falffy calcification is
most likely a cause of
A. Osteosarcome
B. Chondeosarcoma
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D.
Ans. B? Ref.
242. A young man has met a motor bike accident. On examination, posterior
dislocation of thigh is found. It is result in following disability
A. Extension, adduction and external rotation
B. Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
C. Flexion, internal rotation and adduction
D. Flexion, external rotation and abduction
Ans. C Ref.
243. Sumitra, a33 year old lady has faced a side injury, resulting in fracture
of shaft of femur. On second day, she developed tachypnea and pain in chest.
Most likely, this is due to
A. Pulmonary thromboembolism
B. Fat embolism
C. MI
D. Shock
Ans. B Ref.
244. In inversion injury of foot, all of the following are found except
A. Lateral malleolar fracture
B.5th metacarpal fracture
C. Planter brevis tendon sprain
D. Sprain of digiti minimi brevis
Ans. Ref.
245. Loss of sensation of lateral side of leg results due to
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
246. A boy present with recuurent fracture and anemia. X-ray shows increased
density of bones. Most likely diagnosis is
A. Osteomalacia
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Osteoporasis
D. Hisiocytosis X
Ans. B Ref.
247. A labour Gopal Sharma age45, present to medicine OPD with sudden back pain
radiating to left leg, with inability to lift great toa. Best management would
be
A.
B.
C. Conservative for1 week, if weakness in great toe persist do Laminectomy and
dissectecmy
D. Fusion L4 and L5 vertebrae
Ans. Ref.
248. Most common cause of osteomylitis is
A. Staphylococcal aureus
B. St. Viridens
C. Pnemococcus
D. St. bovis
Ans. A Ref.
249.In a fed state which of the following reaction does not occure
A. Acetyl CoA to acetoacetate
B.
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
OPTHALMOLOGY
250. A patient of congestive glaucoma took some drug. This resulted in
blepheroconjunctivitis. Most likely drug is
A. Pilocarpine
B. Timolol
C.
D.
Ans. B Ref. Tripathi152
251. Veritcally dilated pupil. Most likely diagnosis is
A. Open angle glaucoma
B. Acute anterior uveitis
C. Closed angle glaucoma
D.
Ans. C Ref.
252. A young doctor has been asked to exclude open and glaucoma. This can be
done best by testing
A. Depth of the chamber (anterior)
B. Angle of the chamber
C. Cupping of the disc
D. Pupillary reflex
Ans. C Ref. Nima152
253. Visual field is minimum is which direction
A. Superior
B. Nasal (medial)
C. Inferior
D. Temporal (lateral)
Ans. A . Ref. Nima64
254. Occulomotor nerve do not supply
A. Medial Rectus
B. Superior pal
C. Lateral Rectus
D. Inferior Rectus
Ans. C Ref.
255. One can see different colours by combination of three colours - red, blue
and green. If his eyes are week to see a particular colour, intensity of that
particular colour is to be increased so that he can see all the colours. If some
one’s eye is week to see red colour, this defect is called
A. Deutroanopia
B. Protanopia
C. tri anopia
D. tetra anopia
Ans. B Ref.
256. Ramavtar, a42 year old man has problem is reading at near distant. He is
prescribed +1.5 lens for near vision. When he looks down, his spects slides down
on his nose. This will cause his near vision to
A. Decrease
B. Distort
C. Increase
D. Not affected
Ans. A Ref.
257. Ramesh has complains of poor vision. After maximum correction of1.5 power
in left and4.5 poor in right eye, his vision is3/6 in left and5/6 in right eye.
Most likely diagnosis is
A. Occipetal lobe lesion
B. Amblyopia
C.
D.
Ans. B Ref.
258. Macula (fovea centalis) has maximum number of cones for which colours
A. Red and Blue
B. Red and Green
C. Blue and yellow
D. Green and blue
Ans. B Ref.A.K.Khurana page no.300, Acquired colour blindness (P.S.Bhattacharya)
259. Wernicks hemianopia is seen in lesion of
A. Optic chiasma
B. Genuculate ganglia
C. Optic nerve
D. Optic tract
Ans. D Ref.
260. Drug of choice for anterior uveitis with raised intraocular pressure
A. Pilocarpine
B. Lansprot
C. Phospholine iodide
D. Depivefrine
Ans. C Ref. (Dr. P.S. Bhattacharya).
261. Epiphora means
A. Flow of excessive tear due to obstruction at punctum
B. Inversion on eye lashes due to infection
C.
D.
Ans. A Ref.
ENT
262. A47 year old person has buccal mucosa cancer which has invaded the superios
surface of mandible. He is edentulous. All of the following can be treatment
regime for him except
A. Segmental mandibulectomy
B. Mandibulectomy
C. lateral half
D. Radiotherapy
Ans. Ref.
263. Glottic carcinoma, stage T1 N 0 M 0, can be treated by
A. External Beam Radiotherapy
B. Brachytherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Surgery
Ans. A? Ref.
264. Truck driver with coryaza and sneezing. Treatment of choice
A. Promethazine
B. Phenylephrine
C.
D. Citrezine
Ans. Ref.
265. Which of the following is not a sensory supply palate
A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Facial
C. Vagus
D. Maxillary
Ans. A Ref.
266. Most common cause of ASOM in children
A. Streptococcus Pneumonai
B. H. Inf.
C. St. viridens
D. Staphylocossus aureus
Ans. A Ref.
267. A9 month old infant present with hoarseness. On laryngoscopy, a red mass is
seen in subglottic region. All of the following can be given to him except
A. Micrlarngoscopic resection
B. Steroids
C. Radiotherapy
D. Endotracheal intubation
Ans. Ref.
268. False statement about Ramsay Hunt syndrome
A. Viral etiology
B. VII nerve most commonly involved
C. May involve VIII nerve
D. Spontaneously recovered cases have excellent prognoses
Ans. D Ref.
269. Fistula test is positive in all except
A. Dear ear
B. Fenestration operation
C. Hypermotile foot plate
D. Fistula
Ans. A Ref.
270. Treatment of karotosis of larynx consist of all except
A. Vocal cord striping
B. Partial laryngectomy
C. Radiotherapy
D. Microscopic Surgery
Ans. B Ref.
271. Tympanotomy is performed on posteroinferior quadrant of tympanic membrane
A. Because this area is relativly less vascular
B. To prevent injury to mid ear bones
C. Because this area is easily approachable
D. To prevent chorda tympani nerve
Ans. Ref.
GYNAE / OBS
272. A lady present with infertility. Hystosalpingography shows beaded tubes
with. Most likely diagnosis is
A.
B. Gonococuss
C. Tuberculosis
D. Trichonomas
Ans. C Ref.
273. A patient with vaginal infection and discharge was evaluated and
endocervical biopsy chlamydia was found. Treatment to be given is
A. Azithromycin + contact tracing
B. Metronidazole
C. Azithromycin
D. Doxycyclene + Metronidazole
Ans. A Ref.
274. A patient with positive antiphospholipid antibodies would have all except
A. Recurrrent Abortion
B. Venous Thrombosis
C. Thrombocytosis
D. Neurological Manifestation
Ans. C Ref. H14th,1344
275. A lady presents with recurrent abortion and venous thrombosis with positive
antiphospholipid antibody. True statement is
A. Increase APTT
B. Antiphospholipid syndrome
C.
D.
Ans. B Ref.
276. Causes of increased chances of thrombosis in pregnancy (are all except??)
A. Increased Viscosity
B.
C. Increased APTT
D. Increase Antithromin III
Ans. A Ref.
277. Chandrika devi, a44 year old complains of hot flushes. Which of the
following will be used for this problem
A. Estriol
B. Progestins
C. Paracetamol
D. Morphine
Ans. A Ref.
278. Which of the follwoing is not a risk factor for Endometrial carcinoma A.
Irradiation
B. Oral contraceptive pills
C. Tamoxifen
D. Estogen
Ans. B Ref.
279. A40 lady has complain of polymenorrhea. On examination nothing was found.
What will be the first line on management
A. Give progesteron for three cycles
B. Give OCP for3 cycles
C. Dilatation and curratage
D. Hysterectomy
Ans. B Ref.
280.5 year failure rate of LNG (Levonorgestrol) IUCD is
A. 0.5 %
B.1.0 %
C.1.5 %
D.2.0 %
Ans. A Ref.
281. A pregnant lady Anu, having grade II mitral stenosis, comes with labour
pain all of the following can be done except
A.
B. Cut short2nd stage
C. Inj Methargin at delivery of anterior shoulder
D. Apply forceps in indicated
Ans. C Ref.
282. All of the following are correct about episiotomy except
A. It dilate birth canal
B. Median and lateromedian are coomonly employed
C. Median episiotomy have less bleeding and good healing
D. Anal spicture involvement is type3rd/4th degree perineal tear
Ans. A Ref.
283. All of the following are indication of LSCS except
A. Planceta previa grade IV
B. Abruptio Placenta
C. CIN III of cervix
D. Herpes simplex of vagina
Ans. B Ref.
284. All are correct about forcep delivary except
A. Complete cervical dilatation is only prerequesic
B. It can be used in ventuse failure
C. In breech presentation
D.
Ans. A Ref.
285. True statement is
A. Ventose can be used to convert occipito postrior to
occipito anterior
B. It can be applied in a premature baby
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
286. Breech presentation is assocated with all except
A. Cornual implantation of placeta
B. Congenital malformation
C. Low lying placenta (cervical)
D. Placenta arrecata
Ans. D Ref.
287. Kusum25 yr old, is taking OCP, Which of the following drug would increase
chance of ocp failure
A. Ampicilin
B. Phenytoin
C. Grisiofulvin
D.
Ans. Ref.
288. Which of the following is true about pregnancy
A. Incresed vaginal pH
B. Increased lactobacillus in vagina
C. Incresed anerobic bacteria in vagina
D.
Ans. Ref.
289. Which of the foolowing is false about Ideopathic Cholestasis of pregnancy
A. Itching
B. Bilirubin > 5 mg %
C. Alkaline phosphate is markedly elevated
D. SGOT/SGPT is60 U
Ans. B Ref.
290. Most cause of psedo hermaphrodite female is
A. Congenital adrenogenital syndrome
B. Arrhenoblastom
C.
D.
Ans. A Ref.
291. True statement about cephalhematoma is
A.
B. Subperiosteal effusion
C. Aspiration has to be done
D.
Ans. Ref.
292. Ramkali has complains of slowly developing hirsutism. LH/FSH estimations
has to be done in which period of a menstruation cycle
A.1-3 days
B.7-8 days
C.15-18 days
D.26-28 days
Ans. A/D Ref. Shaw12th,77
293. Jyoti, a24 year girl present with complains of rapid development of
hirsutism and change in voice. Blood levels of which of the following hormone
should be estimated
A. Testosterone
B. LH/FSH
C. Oestrogen
D. Gonadotropin
Ans. A Ref. Rapid Hirsutism = Testosteron, Slow = PCOD
294. All of the following can be given for treatment of menorrhagia except
A. NSAIDS
B. Danazol
C. Progesterons (norethisterone?)
D. Clomiphene
Ans. D Ref.
RADIOLOGY / RADIODIAGNOSIS
295. Most penetrating rays are
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. X-rays
Ans. C Ref.
296. For detection of dense bone, which of the following needs to be increased
A. mA (Milli ampeare)
B. KV
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
298. Commonest uterine prolapse is A. Cystocoele
B. Urethrocoele
C. Enterocoele
D. Rectocoele
Ans. A Ref.
299. All of the following can result in exfoliative dermatitis except
A. Psoriasis
B. Drug eruptions
C. Erythema Multiforme
D. Pitryiasis rubra
Ans. C Ref.
300. Which of the following method is best to measure pulmonary artery pressure
A. EPWP
B. Right Atrial pressure
C.
D.
Ans. Ref.
