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1. A boy attempts suicide, brought to PRIVATE doctor and he is successfully
cure. Doctor should
a. inform police
b. not required to inform
c. report to magistrate
d. callup girlfriend and ask her to make up
Ans. b
2. Basanti age 27 years, female thinks her nose is ugly; her idea is fixed
and not shared by anyone else. Whenever she goes out of home, she hides her face
with a cloth. She visits to Surgeon. next step would be:
a. investigate and then operate
b. refer to psychiatrist
c. reassure the patient
d. immediate operation.
Ans. b
3. patient of head injury, has no relatives, requires urgent cranial
decompression; Doctor should
a. operate without formal consent
b. take police consent
c. wait for relatives
d. take
Ans. a
4. A patient present with waxy flexibility, negativitism and rigidity.
Diagnosis is
a. Catatonic schizophrenia
b. paranoid schizophrenia
c. heb schizophrenia
d.
Ans. a
5. with 20 permanent teeth and 8 temporary teeth, the age is likely to have
been
a. 9 yrs
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
Ans. c
6. A pt with pneumonia for 5 days admitted to hospital. He suddenly ceases to
recognize doctor and staff and think that the he is in jail. He complains of
scorpions attacking him, is in altered sensorium: condition is:
a. acute delirium
b. acute dementia
c. acute schizophrenia
d. acute paranoid
Ans. a
7. A patient having sensation of bugs crawling all over his body: this may be
effect of
a. cocaine
b. alcohol
c. tea
d. benzodiazepines
Ans. a
8. A person missing from home, found wandering purposefully, well groomed,
has some degree of amnesia
a. dissociative fugue
b. dissociative amnesia
c. schizophrenia
d. dementia
Ans. a
9. A woman survives an road traffic accident. After she experiences intense
fear while traveling; diagnosis is
a. PSTD
b. PTSD
c. DTSP
d. STD
Ans. b
10. Babu, age 40 years suffers sudden palpitations and apprehension. He is
sweating lasting 10 minutes, with dooming of death. Diagnosis is
a. hysteria
b. cystic fibrosis
c. panic attack
d. generalized anxiety disorder
Ans. c
11. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following:
a. ca kidney
b. ca colon
c. testicular terotoma
d. ca cervix
Ans. d
12. Dinesh, age 56 years man with complaints of slowness of movements,
postural instability, tremors, rigidity and memory loss. Diagnosis is
a. multi infarct dementia
b. Alzheimer's disease
c. parkinsonism
d.
Ans. c
13. Gettlers test is done for
a. death by drowning
b. hanging
c. burns
d. phosphorus poisoning
Ans. a
14. Indicative of ante-mortem drowning?
a. cutis anserina
b. rigor mortis
c. washerwomans feet
d. grass and weeds grasped in the hand
Ans. d
15. A man with alcoholic liver failure requires general anesthesia for
surgery. Anaesthetic agent of choice is
a. ether
b. halothane
c. methoxyflurane
d. isoflurane
Ans. d
16. All of the followings are true regarding the pudendal nerve, except
a. sensory and motor
b. derived from S2,3,4
c. comes out through the lesser sciatic foramen
d. main nerve supply of pelvic organs
Ans. c
17. In the fracture of middle cranial fossa, absence of tears would be due to
lesion in
a. trigeminal ganglion
b. ciliary ganglion
c. greater superficial petrosal nerve
d. cervical ganglion
Ans. c
18. All of the following are true about coronary artery except-
a. right coronary in anterior interventricular groove
b. usually 3 obtuse margical artery arised from left coronary artery
c. in 85% cases posterior descending artery arises from right co. art.
d.
Ans. b
(ref. gray's) 19. Pivot test is for
a. anterior cruciate ligament
b. posterior cruciate ligament
c. medial meniscus injury
d. lateral meniscus injury
Ans. a
20. Babu, 19 yrs has small circumscribed sclerotic swelling over diaphysis of
femur bone; diagnosis is
a. osteoclastoma
b. osteosarcoma
c. ewings sarcoma
d. osteoid osteoma
Ans. d
21. babloo, age 10 years, presents with fracture of humerus. Xray reveals a
lytic lesion at the upper en
d. Likely condition is
a. unicameral bone cyst
b. osteosarcoma
c. giant cell tumour
d. osteo chondroma (?)
Ans. a
22. Most common site of osteosarcoma
a. femur, upper end
b. femur, lower end
c. tibia, lower end
d. fibula, lower end
Ans. b
23. A patient had injury on his shoulder. Following anterior dislocation of
the shoulder, he develops weakness of flexion shoulder, lack of sensation over
the lateral aspect forearm; nerve injured:
a. radial
b. musculocutaneous
c. axillary
d. ulnar
Ans. b
24. A patient had injury to the upper limb 3 yrs earlier, now he presents
with paresthesia over the medial border of the hand and anaethesia over medial
two finger. The injury is likely to have been:
a. supracondylar fracture
b. lateral condyle fracture humerus
c. medial condyle fracture humerus
d. posterior dislocation of the humerus
Ans. b
25. Basanti aged 61 years, falls from height. She comaplains lower limb
extended, externally rotated, pain and inability to move lim
b. Most likely diagnosis is -
a. fracture neck femur
b. trochanteric femur fracture
c. posterior dislocation hip
d. anterior dislocation of hip
Ans. b/c ?
26. In a post polio case, ilio-tibial tract contracture is likely to result
in
a. extension at the hip and knee
b. extension at the hip
c. flexion at the hip and the knee
d. extension at the knee
Ans. ? (a/d)
27. Triple arthrodesis foot involves
a. calcaneocuboid, talonavicular and talocalcaneal
b. tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid and talocalcaneal
c. ankle joint , calcaneocuboid and talocalcaneal
d.
Ans. a
28. A patient has involvement of PIP joint, DIP joint and the carpo-metacarpal
of base of thumb, sparing the wrist joint is seen in
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Osteoarthritis
c. Ankylosing spondilytis
d. Psoriasis arthritis
Ans. b
29. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of the
a. left gastric
b. splenic
c. celiac trunk
d. gastroduodenal
Ans. d
30. Motor supply of the diaphragm
a. thoracodorsal
b. intercostal nerves
c. phrenic nerve
d. sympathetic
Ans. c
31. In left coronary artery thrombosis, most likely involved ares is
a. anterior wall of right ventricle
b. anterior wall of left ventricle
c. anterior wall of right atrium
d. inferior surface of right ventricle
Ans. b
32. All of the following are supplied by the facial nerve except
a. lacrimal gland
b. submandibular gland
c. nasal glands
d. parotid
Ans. d
33. neonate has recurrent abdominal pain and diaphoresis on feeding, with
murmur, which may lead to MI. diagnosis is
a. asd
b. vsd
c. tof
d. coronary anomalous
Ans. d
34. Ramu, 8 yr old boy presents upper GI bleeding . On examination, there is
splenomegaly, no ascites, no hepatomegaly; esophageal varices present on UGIE.
Diagnosis is
a. budd chiari syndrome
b. non cirrhotic portal fibrosis
c. cirrhosis
d. veno occlusive disease
Ans. b
35. A neonate delivered at 32 weeks, on ventilator, xray shows 'white out',
ABG reveals SpO2 of 75, ventilator settings are as, FiO2 70, rate 50/minute.
Next step to be taken?
a. increase rate to 60
b. increase FiO2 to 80
c. continue with the same
d. weaning ventilator
Ans. ? (d)
36. In renal failure, true statement about drug metabolism is
a. drugs can be given in same dose if they do not form toxic metabolits
b. drugs can be given with increased dose interval
c. loading dose is same and maintainance dose is decreased
d. interval between maintainance dose is same
Ans. d
37. A male pseudohermaphrodite child of 46 XY karyotype presents with BP
110/80 mmHg. Most likely enzyme deficiency is
a. 21 hydroxylase
b. 17 hydroxylase
c. 11 hydroxylase
d. 3-beta hydroxylase
Ans. ? b/d (if neonate = d)
38. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis, lytic skull lesions, ear
discharge, hepatosplenomegaly; likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. lymphoma
c. histiocytosis X
d.
Ans. c
39. A 5 year child of is suffering from nephrotic syndrome is well responding
to steroid therapy. What would be the finding on light microscopy:
a. no finding
b. basement membrabne thickning
c. podocyte lesions
d.
Ans. a
40. A neonate presents with respiratory distress, contralateral mediastinal
shift and multiple cystic air filled lesions in chest. Most likely diagnosis is
a. congenital diaphragmatic hernia
b. congenital lung cysts
c. pneumonia
d.
Ans. b (ref. chapman)
41. A child aged 2 years with 'a positive family history'. On peripheral
blood smear target cells oare seen. He has hypochromic microcytic anemia with Hb
6 gm%. Next investigation of choise is
a. Hb electrophoresis
b. coombs test
c. liver function tests
d. Osmatic fragility test
Ans. a
42. (repeated) A child aged 2 years with 'a positive family history'. On
peripheral blood smear target cells oare seen. He has hypochromic microcytic
anemia with Hb 6 gm%. Next investigation of choise is
a. Hb electrophoresis
b. coombs test
c. liver function tests
d. Osmatic fragility test
Ans. a
43. A neonate with jaundice and clay white stools. On liver biopsy giant
cells were seen. diagnosis is
a. physiological jaundice
b. neonatal hepatitis with extrabiliary atresia
c. neonatal hepatitis with physiological jaundice
d.
Ans. b
44. Most common cause of urine obstruction in a boy:
a. antr urethral valves
b. posterior urethral valves
c. stone
d.
Ans. b
45. A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratory distress and
froths at the mouth. Diagnosis is
a. tracheoesophageal fistula
b. tetralogy of fallot
c.
d.
Ans. a
46. A 5 yr child present with calculus of size 2 cm. in the upper ureter. He
has haematuri
a. On USG no obs is seen. TT of choice
a. ureterolithotomy
b. endoscopy
c. ESWL
d. observation
Ans. c
47. ground glass appearance is NOT seen in
a. hyaline membrane disease
b. pneumonia
c. left to right shunt
d. obstructive TAPVC
Ans. c
48. 3 month old child presents with intermittent stridor. Most likely cause
is
a. laryngotracheobronchitis
b. laryngomalacia
c. respi. obstruction
d.
Ans. b
49. surfactant production in lungs starts at
a. 28 weeks
b. 32 wks
c. 34 wks
d. 36 wks
Ans. a
50. potts shunt is
a. rt subclavian artery to rt pulmonary
b. descending aorta to left pulmonary
c. left subclavian to left pulmonary
d. ascending aorta to right pulmonary
Ans. b
51. Which of the following is true regarding cretinism
a. short limbs compared to trunk
b. proportionate shortening
c. short limb and short stature
d. short limn long stature
Ans. c
52. Basanti age 29 yrs from bihar presents with tuberculosis. She delivers
baby. She will be instructed all of the followings except
a. give baby BCG
b. withhold breast feeding
c. give ATT for 2 years
d. proper disposal of sputum
Ans. b
53. If urine sample darkens on standing, most likely condition is
a. phenylketonuria
b. alkaptonuria
c. maplpe syrup urine disease
d. DM
Ans. b
54. Source of the nitrogen in urea cycle
a. aspartate and ammonia
b. glutamate and ammonia
c. argenase and ammonia
d.
Ans. a
55. Which of the following condition requires dialysis
a. salicylate toxicity
b. digitalis toxicity
c. barbiturate toxicity
d.
Ans. a
56. Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk?
a. linoleate
b. linolenic
c. palmitic
d. d-hexanoic * * *
Ans. d (ref. harper) 57. Highest binding of iron in plasma is seen with
a. transferrin
b. ferritin
c. hemoglobin
d. ceruloplasmin
Ans. a
58 Maximum no. of H bonds are found between which base pairs?
a. A-T
b. G-C
c. A-G
d. C-T
Ans. b
59. Protonation and deprotonation at pH 7 occures in which amino acid
a. serine
b. histidine
c. threonine
d. proline
Ans. b
60. Basic amino acids are
a. aspartate and glutamate
b. serine and glycine
c. lysine and arginie
d.
Ans. c
61. All of the follwings are true about gout except
a. due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines
b. due to increased met
a. Of purines
c.
d.
Ans. a
62. blood is non-newtonian fluid because
a. viscosity changes with velocity
b. density changes with velocity
c. density does not changes with velocity
d. viscosity does not changes with velocity
Ans. a.
This effect is called the sigma effect (Ans. by Mr. Vinay Shandilya)
63. A woman has had 2 previous anencephalic babies, risk of having a third
one is
a. 0%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d. 50%
Ans. b
64. Patient of 47 XXY karyotype presents with features of hypogonadism;
likely diagnosis:
a. turners
b. klinefelters
c. edwards
d. Down syn.
Ans. b
65. mother has sickle cell disease; husband is normal: % chances of children
having, respectively, sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait:
a. 0 and 100
b. 25 and 75
c. 25 and 50
d. 25 and 25
Ans. a
66. father has blood gp B, mother has AB, children can have all the blood
group excepts
a. O
b. A
c. B
d. AB
Ans. a
67. DNA analysis of chorionic villus/ amniocentesis NOT likely to detect
a. tay sachs
b. hemophilia A
c. sickle cell disease
d. duchenne muscular dystrophy
Ans.b/c ?
68. Which of the following RNA has abnormal purine bases
a. tRNA
b. mRNA
c. rRNA
d. 16S RNA
Ans. a
69. Which bond is not formed between an enzyme substrate complex
a. electrostatic
b. covalent
c. van der waals
d. hydrogen
Ans. b
70. Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by
a. cyanide
b. carbon monoxide
c. MAO
d.
Ans. a
71. A baby with refusal to feed, skin lesions, seizures, organic acids in
urine, lactic acidosis with normal ammoni
a. diagnosis is
a. organic aciduria
b. multiple carboxylase deficiency
c. propionic acidemia
d.
Ans. b
72. A child presents with white patch over the tonsils and resp. distress. A
throat swab was taken. It should be cultured with
a. loeffler serus slope
b. LJ medium
c. Caryblair media
d.
Ans. a
73. Cystine deficient lactose (CLED)media is preferred over McConkey agar
because
a. former prevents swarming of proteus
b. it is a differential medium
c. prevents pseudomonas growth
d. promotes growth of candida
Ans. a (ref. Jawetz microbio.)
74. A beta hemolytic bacteria resistant to vancomycin, gentamycin and
ampicillin. It shows growth in 6.5% NaCl and bile is likely to be
a. strep agalactiae
b. strep pneumococcus
c. enterococcus
d. strep bovis
Ans. c
75. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis:
a. RSV
b. Rhinovirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Rotavirus
Ans. c
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76. Basanti, age 26, pregnant woman from bihar presents with hepatic
encephalopathy. The likely diagnosis:
a. Hep E
b. hep B
c. sepsis
d. maternal alcohol toxicity
Ans. a
77. Toxin involved in the streptococcal toxic shock syndrome PJC
a. pyrogenic exotoxin
b. erythrogenic toxin
c. hemolysin
d. M Protien
Ans. a
78. All of the following are true regarding NK cells, except
a. activated by IL-2
b. variant to large lympho.
c. CD3 and TCR receptor present
d.
Ans. c
79. All of the following are correct regarding streptococcus except
a. M protein is virulent factor
b. mucoid colony
c. m type is most common
d.
Ans. ? 80. Which of the following organism gives greenish/yellow coloured
colonies
a. staphylococcus
b. E. Coli
c. Pseudomonas
d. Peptostreptococcus
Ans. c
81. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause infections with
a. Tinea saginata
b. Tinea solium
c. Hydatid cyst
d. Trichuris trichura
Ans. b
82. All of the following are true regarding regarding Ureaplasma urealyticum
except
a. causes non gonococcal urethritis
b. associated with infertility
c. bacterial vagnosis
d. epididymitis
Ans. c (ref. Oxford med.)
83 All of the following are correct regarding EHEC excpet
a. sereny test +ve
b. fermants sorbitol
c. causes HUS
d. shiga like exotoxin
Ans. a
84. Which of the following is not a complete sterilization agent
a. glutaraldehyde
b. absolut alcohol
c. hydrogen peroxide
d. sodium hypochlorite
Ans. b
85. A patient with 14 days of fever, suspected to have typhoid. Most
appropriate test is
a. blood culture
b. widal test
c. stool culture
d. urine culture
Ans. b ?
86. A girl presnts with primary amenorrhea; grade V thelarche, grade II
pubarche; no axillary hair; possible diagnosis
a. testicular feminisation
b. mullerian agenesis
c. turners
d. gonadal dysgenesis
Ans. a
87. Rekha, a 45 yrs woman with negative pap smear with +ve endocervical
curratage. next management will be
a.
b. vaginal hysterectomy
c. conisation
d. Warthim hysterectomy
Ans. c
88. A 50 yrs old woman having post coital bleeding. She has a visible growth
on PS. Next mm
a. punch biopsy
b. colposcopic biopsy
c. pap smear
d. cone biopsy
Ans. a
89. Bilateral ovarian cancer with capsule breached, ascites positive for
malignant cells: stage is:
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Ans. a (ref. CGOT and Gyn. Dutta)
90. Rokitansky Kuster hauser syndrome: most likely condition is
a. ovary agenesis
b. fallopian tubes absent
c. vaginal atresia
d. bicornuate uterus
Ans. c
91. All of the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in APH
patient except
a. 37 weeks
b. IUD
c. Transverse lie
d. continous profuse bleeding
Ans. c (ref. dutta)
92. All of the following are true regarding a patient with acid peptic
disease except
a. mesoprostol is the drug of choice in given with NSAIDS
b. DU is preventable by the use of nighttime H2 blockers
c. omeprazole may help ulcers refractory to H2 blockers
d. mesoprostol is DOC in pregnant
Ans. d
93. A case of carcinoma cervix found to be in altered sensorium and having
hiccups. Cause could be
a. septicemia
b. uremia
c.
d.
Ans. b
94. A woman presents with 2 months of amenorrhea, lower abdominal pain,
facial pallor and shock. Diagnosis is
a. ruptured ovarian cyst
b. ruptured ectopic pregnancy
c. threatned abor.
d. septic abortion
Ans. b
95. A woman presnts with 6 weeks amenorrhea and lump in the RIF.
Investigation of choice
a. USG abdomen
b. Laparoscopy
c. CT
d. shielded X - ray
Ans. a
96. A female 30 yrs old, presents with has abdominal mass with complain of
sudden ab
d. Pain. Most likely diagnosis is
a. torsion of subserous fibroid
b. twisted ovarian cyst
c. rupture of ectopic preg.
d.
Ans. b
97. In a pregnant woman with red degeneration. Management is
a. myomectomy
b. conservative rx
c. hysterectomy
d. termination of pregnancy
Ans. b
98. ovarian cyst detected in a pregnant woman; mgt:
a. immediate removal by laprotomy
b. wait and watch
c. second trimester surgery
d. remove at time of cesarean section
Ans. c
99. FALSE regarding hCG
a. secreted by cytotrophoblasts
b. acts on same receptor as LH
c. has luteotrophic action
d.
Ans. a
100. consequence of maternal use of cocaine is
a. hydrops
b. sacral agenesis
c. cerebral infarction
d. hyper trichosis
Ans. c
101. In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy reveals proliferative changes.
Which Hormone should be prefered?
a. MDPA
b. Desogestrol
c. norethisteron
d.
Ans. a ?
102. patient complains of post coital bleed, no tumor seen per speculum, next
step:
a. colposcopy biopsy
b. conisation
c. repeat pap smear
d. culdoscopy
Ans. a
103. true regarding adenomyosis:
a. more common in nullipara
b. progestins are not useful
c. presents with menrrhagia, dysmenorria, and enlarged uterus
d. more common in multipar
a.
Ans. c
104. Snow storm appearance is seen in USG
a. hydatidiform mole
b.
c.
d.
Ans. a
105. A pregnant diabetic on oral sulphonyl urea is shifted to insulin. All of
the followings are true regarding this, EXCEPT a) sul. urea causes PIH b)
insulin does not cross placenta c) oral hypoglycaemics crosses placenta and
deplete foetal insulin d) during pregnancy insulin requirement increases and
cannot be provided with sulphonyl ureas
Ans. a
106. Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala
a. robert's
b. naegele's
c.
d.
Ans. b
107. All of the following are true regarding ticlopidine except
a. directly interacts with platelet membrane
b. onset of action is delayed
c. ecconaid dependent/independent ???
d.
Ans. ? 108. reason for reducing drug dosage in elderly
a. body water decreased
b. increased baroreceptor sensitivity
c. lean and thin mass
d.
Ans. b
109. drug containing two sulfhydryl groups in a molecule
a. BAL
b. EDTA
c. Penicillamine
d.
Ans. a
110. All of the following are true about apomorphine about selegiline except
a. apomrphine is used in on-off phenomenon
b. selegiline is a MAO-A inhibitor
c. used in parkinsonism
d. selegiline does not cause cheese reaction
Ans. b
111. True about inverse agonists?
a. attach to recetor and act in same direction
b. attach to recetor and act in opp. direction
c. inhibit the attachment of agonist
d.
Ans. b
112. which of the following is a FALSE statement
a. iv N.
a. increases systolic and diasotlic BP and causes tachycardia
b. iv Adr increases systolic, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
c. iv isoproterenol causes no change in systolic, decreases diastolic BP and
causes tachycardia
d. dopamine decreases peripheral resistance, improves renal perfusion
Ans. a
113. Force generating proteins are
a. myosin and myoglobin
b. dynein and kinesin
c. calmodelin and G protien
d. troponin
Ans. b
114. Protein involved in intercellular connections
a. connexin
b. integrin
c. adhesin
d. desmosome
Ans. d (ref. Ganong)
115. Initiation of nerve impulse occurs at the axon hillock because
a. it has a lower threshold than the rest of the axon
b. it is unmyelinated
c. neuro transmitter are release at this place
d.
Ans. a
116. Single most important factor in control of automatic contractility of
heart
a. end diastolic volune
b. right atrial volume
c. SA node pacemaker potential
d. symps. Stimulation
Ans. ?
117.Which is true about measurement of BP with syphgnomonmeter
a. Less than intravascular pressure
b. More than intravascular pressure
c. Equal to IVP
d. Depend upon blood flow Ans a
118. All of following is correct regarding capillaries except
a. greatest surface area
b.
c. contains more blood than veins
d. have single layer of cells bounding the lumen Ans c
119. mechanism of action of tetracycline
a. binds to A site ribosome
b. inhibits peptidyl transferase
c. causes misreading of mRNA
d. causes termination of peptide chain elongation Ans a
120. Albumin contributes the maximum to oncotic pressure because it has
a. high mol wt, low concentration
b. low mol wt, low conc
c. high mol wt, high conc
d. low mol wt, high con
c. Ans d
121. All of the following are correct about alkylating agent except
a. folinic acid terminates the action of methotrexate
b.
c.
d. Ans a
122. drug that is radioprotective
a. paclitaxel
b. vincristine c, amifostin
d. Etoposide Ans. c
123. metalloproteins help in jaundice by what mechanism
a. increased glucoronyl transferase activity
b. inhibit heme oxygenase
c. decrease RBC lysis
d. increase Y and Z receptors Ans. b
124. beta blocker that can be used in renal failure
a. propranolol
b. pindolol
c. sotalol
d. oxyprenolol Ans. c
125. tidal volume is calculated by
a. inspiratory capacity minus the inspiratory reserve volume
b. total lung capacity minus the reserve volume
c.
d. Ans. a
126. A 0.5 litre blood loss in 30 minutes will lead to
a. increase in HR, decrease in BP
b. slight increase in HR, normal BP
c. decrease in HR and BP
d. prominent increase in HR Ans. b
127. which of foll. NOT found in diabetic retinopathy on fundus examination
a. microaneurysms
b. retinal hemorrhages
c. arteriolar dilatation
d. neovascularisation Ans. c
128. Vitamin B12 deficiency is likely to cause
a. bitemporal hemianopia
b. binasal hemianopia
c. heteronymous hemianopia
d. centrocecal scotoma
Ans. d
129. Facial nerve injury following head trauma; fracture of the mastoid
present; intervention:
a. immediate decompression
b. wait and watch
c. facial sling
d.
Ans. a
130. A case of bells palsy; no improvement after 2 weeks; what to do next
a. vasodilators and ACTH
b. physiotherapy and electrical stimulation
c. Increase steroid dosage
d. Electrophysiological nerve testing
Ans. b
131. A patient has meiotic pupil, IOP = 25,normal anterior chamber, hazy
cornea with shallow anterior chamber of fellow eye. Diagnosis is
a. acute antr uveitis
b. acute angle closure glaucoma
c. acute open angle glaucoma
d. senile cataract
Ans. a
132. Woman complains of coloured haloes around lights in evening, nausea and
vomiting, with normal IOP. Diagnosis is
a. incipient stage glaucoma open angle
b. prodromal stage, closed angle glaucoma
c. migraine
d.
Ans. b
133. boy aged 15 has unilateral nasal blockade, mass in the cheek, epistaxis:
a. nasopharyngeal ca
b. angiofibroma
c. inverted papilloma
d.
Ans. b
134. diabetic aged 40 has blackish nose discharge
a. mucormycosis
b. actinomycosis
c.
d.
Ans. a
135. A 5 yrs child presents with large cornea, lacrimation and photophobi
a. Diagnosis is
a. megalocornea
b. congenital glaucoma
c. congenital cataract
d. anterior uveitis
Ans. b
136. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen in all except
a. syphilis
b. lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
c. post papilledema optic neuritis
d. traumatic injury to the optic nerve
Ans. c ?
137. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following is
a. supraglottic ca
b. ca glottis
c. ca nasopharynx
d. subglottic ca
Ans. b
138. eye deviated laterally and downwards, patient unable to look up or
medially, likely nerve involved
a. trochlear
b. trigeminal
c. oculomotor
d. abducens
Ans. c
139. Most common cause of meningitis in kids 6 months to 2 years of age
a. pneumococcus
b. staph
c. H influenza
d. E.coli
Ans. c
140. elderly male with heart disease has sudden loss of vision in one eye,
examination reveals a cherry red spot; diagnosis
a. central retinal vein occlusion
b. central retinal artery occlusion
c. amaurosis fugax
d. acute ischemic optic neuritis
Ans. b
141. patient presents with recurrent duodenal ulcer of 2.5 cm size; procedure
of choice
a. truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
b. TV and GJ
c. highly selective vagotomy
d. Laparoscopic vagotomy and GJ
Ans. a
142. FALSE regarding hyperplastic tuberculosis of GI
a. mass RIF
b. Barium meal shows pulled up caecum
c. most common site is ileocecal
d. ATT alone can be used as rx
Ans. d
143. 56 year old woman has passed no stools for 14 days. Xray shows no air
fluid levels. Probable diagnosis is
a. paralytic ileus
b. agangliionosis of the colon
c. intestinal pseudo obstruction
d. duodenal obs.
Ans. d
144. A patient on same evening after thyroidectomy has swelling and
difficulty breathing. Next mmg.
a. open immediatly
b. intubate oro tracheally
c. wait and watch
d. oxygen by mask
Ans. a
145. A patient has neck swelling and respiratory distress 8 hours after a
thyroidectomy surgery. Next mmg
a. open immediatly
b. Trecheostomy
c. wait and watch
d. oxygen by mask Ans. a
146. long standing case of multinodular goitre develops hoarseness and sudden
increase in size. likely diagnosis is
a. follicular ca
b. papillary ca
c. medullary ca
d. anaplastic ca
Ans. a
147. swelling in the neck after a thyroidectomy; what is the likely
complication.
a. resp. obstruction
b. recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
c. hypo volumia
d.
Ans. a
148. A 45 year old woman presents with hard and mobile lump is breast. Most
confirmatory investigation is
a. FNAC
b. USG
c. Mammography
d. Excision biopsy
Ans. d
149. case of blunt trauma, in shock, not responding to IV crystalloids, next
step:
a. immediate laparotomy
b. blood transfusion
c. albumin transfusion
d. abdominal compression
Ans. a
150. A man aged 60 yrs has h/o IHD and atherosclerosis. He presents with
abdominal pain and maroon stools:
a. acute intestinal obstruction
b. acute mesenteric ischemia
c. peritonitis
d. appendicitis
Ans. b
151. An elderly man has abdomianl pain, found to have fusiform dilatation of
the descending aorta. Likely cause is
a.
b. atherosclerosis
c. right ventricular failure
d. syphilis aortitis
Ans. b
152. Primary peritonitis is more common in females because
a. ostia of Follopian tubes communicate with abdominal cavity
b. peritoneum overlies the uterus
c. rupture of functional ovarian cysts
d.
Ans. a
153. man aged 60 has testicular tumor; most likely to be:
a. germ cell
b. sertoli cell
c. teratocarcinoma
d. lymphoma
Ans. d
154. A 45 yrs old man presents with progressive cervical lymph nodes
enlargement, since 3 months, most appropiate investigation
a. xray soft tissue
b. FNAC
c. Lymph node biopsy
d.
Ans. c
155. male aged 60 has foul breath, regurgitates food that is eaten 3 days
ago:
a. zenkers diverticulum
b. meckels diverticulum
c. scleroderma
d. achalasia cardia Ans a
156. patient presents after trauma, with blood at the tip of urinary meatus.
Can only pass a drop of urine. Next step:
a. arrange for dialysis
b. MCU
c. Catheterise, drain bladder, remove foleys
d. Catheterise and retain foleys.
Ans. b
157. Most common cause of unilateral parotid swelling in a 27 yr old male
a. warthins tumor
b. pleomorphic adenoma
c. adenocarcinoma
d. Haemangioma
Ans. b
158. fistula in ano, what is true.
a. postr fistulae have straight tracks
b. high fistulae can be operated with no fear of incontinence
c. high and low division is based on pelvic floor
d. intersphincteric is the most common
Ans. c
159.In a 27 yr old male most common cause of a colo-vesical fistula:
a. crohns
b. ulcerative colitis
c. TB
d. Cancer
Ans. a
160. All of the following are correct about axillary vein thrombosis except
a. cervical rib may cause
b. can be treated with iv anticaogulant
c. Embolectomy done in all cases
d.
Ans. c
161. what is true regarding pyloric stenosis
a. more common in girls
b. hypochloremic alkalosis
c. hellers myotomy is the procedure
d. most often manifests at birth
Ans. b
162. A pt is brought with head injury, head on collision and BP 90/60.
Tachycardia present. diagnosis.
a. EDH
b. SDH
c. Intracranial hemorrhage
d. Intraabdominal bleed
Ans. d
163. most common site for squamous ca esophagus
a. upper third
b. mid third
c. lower third
d. GE jn.
Ans. b
164. pancreatic ca is caused by
a. fasciola
b. clonorchis
c. paragonimus
d. Ans b
165. patient has tumor of the lower jaw, involvement of the alveolar margin.
He is edentulous. Rx of choice
a. hemimandiblectomy
b. commando operation
c. segmental mandiblectomy
d. marginal mandibulectomy Ans c (ref CSDT)
166. All of the folloing are correct regarding AV fistula except
a. arterialisation of the veins
b. proximal compression causes increase in heart rate
c. Causes arhhythemia
d. Cause Lv enlargement and LVF
Ans. b
167. patient with pancreatitis undergoes sudden loss of vision; possibility:
a. methanol toxicity
b. ethanol toxicity
c. methanol toxicity followed by ethanol therapy
d. purtschers retinopathy
Ans. d
168. pts semen sample reveals 15 million sperms, 60 % normal morphology, 60%
motile, sperm volume is 2 ml, no agglutination: diagnosis
a. azoospermia
b. aspermia
c. oligospermia
d. normospermia
Ans. c
169. patient undergoes thyroid surgery, following which he develops perioral
tingling. Blood Ca is 8.9 meq, next step is
a. vit D orally
b. oral Ca and vit D
c. intravenous calcium and serial monitoring
d. wait for Ca to decrease to < 7.0
Ans. c
170. Chandu. A 45 yrs male has calcification on AP view Rt side of abdomen.
In lateral view the calcification is seen to overlie the spine. most likely
diagnosis
a. gallstones
b. calcified mesenteric nodes
c. renal stones
d. Calcifird Rib Ansc c
171. ulcer developing in burns tissue
a. marjolins
b. rodent
c. melanies
d. curlings
Ans. a
172. ca prostate commonly metastasises to the vertebrae because
a. valveless communication with batsons plexus
b. Drain to Sacral lymph node
c. Direst Spread
d.
Ans. a
173. a patient with B/L proptosis, heat intolerance and tolerance, unlikely
diagnosis
a. hashimoto's thyroiditis
b. thyroid adenoma
c. diffuse thyroid goitre
d. reidel's thyroiditis
Ans. d
174. hundred children out of whom 28 are immunise
d. 2 of them get measles simultaneously. Subsequently 14 get measles. Assume the
efficacy of the vaccine to be 100%. What is the sec. Attack rate?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 21.5%
Ans. c
175. in a population of 10,000, beta carotene was given to 6000; not given to
the remainder. 3 out of the first group got lung cancer; 2 out of the other 4000
also got lung cancer; conclusion:
a. beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to one another
b. the p value is not significant
c. the study is not designed properly
d. beta carotene is associated with lung cancer
Ans a
176. Subcentre in a hilly area caters to
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 3000
d. 5000
Ans. c
177. Under the national TB programme, for a PHC to be called a PHI-R,
requisite is
a. microscopy
b. microscopy plus radiology
c. radiology
d.
Ans. b
178. FALSE about DOTS is
a. continuation phase drugs are given in a multiblister pack
b. medication is to be taken in presence of a health worker
c. biweekly dosage
d. improves compliance
Ans. c
179. population of 10,000, birth rate 36 per 1000, 5 maternal deaths, the MMR
is
a. 14.5
b. 13.8
c. 20
d. 5
Ans. b
180. A country with population of 1000 million, birth rate 23, death rate 6,
is in which phase?
a. early expanding
b. late expanding
c. plateau
d. declining
Ans. b
181. 10 babies are born in a hospital on same day. All weight 2.8 kg each;
calculate the standard deviation.
a. zero
b. one
c. minus one
d. 0.28
Ans. a
182. Of 11 births, 5 babies weighed over 2.5 kg and 4 weighed less than 2.5
kg. What value does 2.5 represent
a. geometric average
b. arithmetic average
c. median average
d. mode
Ans. c
183. ELISA is performed on a population. What would be the result of
performing double screening ELISA tests?
a. Incresed sensitivity and positive predictive value
b. Incresed sensitivity and negative predictive value
c. Incresed specificity and positive predictive value
d. Incresed specificity and negative predictive value Ans d ?
184. Virulance of a disease is indicated by
a. proportional mortality rate
b. specific mortality rate
c. case fatality ratio
d. amount of GDP spent on the disease
Ans. c
185. A man weighs 68 kg, consumes 325 gm carbohydrate, 65 gm protein, 35 gms
fat. What is the most applicable statement regarding him applicable statement:
a. his total calorie intake is 3000
b. he has a equal proportion of fat/carbo/protein as with balanced diet
c. he has a negative nitrogen balance
d. he is consuming 20 % of diet as fat.
Ans. b
186. disease NOT to be screened for in workers to be employed in a dye
industry in gujarat?
a. anemia
b. bronchial asthma
c. bladder cancer
d. Precaancerous lesion
Ans. a
187. adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen which condition
a. hypolipoproteinemia
b. Hypercholestrolemia
c. severe combined immunodeficiency
d. nezelof syndrome
Ans. c
188. tumor associated with polycythemia vera
a. sarcoma
b.
c. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
d.
Ans. c
189. If urinalysis shows RBC casts, likely source is
a. kidney
b. ureter
c. bladder
d. urethra
Ans. a
190. All of the following are correct about cortisol except
a. increase glucose, glycogen sysnthesis in liver
b. attached to membrane and then act on nucleus
c.
d.
Ans. b
191. dry marrow tap, peripheral smear has tear drop cells, being investigated
for anemia
a. leukemia
b. lymphoma
c. myelofibrosis
d. polycythemia rubra vera
Ans. c
192. lacunar infarcts are caused by:
a. lipohyalinosis of penetrating arteries
b. middle carotid artery involvement
c. emboli to anterior circulation
d.
Ans. a
193. male pt, 20 yrs old, from jaipur, has erythematous lesion with central
crusting, on cheek; diagnosis:
a. SLE
b. Lupus vulgaris
c. Chilblains
d. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
Ans. d
194. man aged 30y, has alopecia, boggy scalp swelling; hair easily pulled
out; diagnostic test:
a. KOH staining
b. Culture sensitivity
c. Biopsy
d.
Ans. a
195. girl aged 19 has light brown pigmentation over the malar eminences;
diagnosis:
a. chloasma
b. SLE
c. photodermtitis
d.
Ans. a
196. girl aged 19 with arthritis, alopesia, photosensitive rash on the cheek
a. SLE
b. Not SLE
c.
d.
Ans. a
197. child with itchy lesions over the groin and the prepuce. What will NOT
to be advised
a. bathe and apply scabicidal
b. treat family
c. burn clothes
d. IV antibiotics
Ans. d
198. man aged 19 gets painless penile ulcer 10 days after sexual intercourse
with a professional sex worker. Diagnosis is
a. chancroid
b. herpes
c. primary chancre
d. traumatic ulcer
Ans. c
199. microfilaria are seen in peripheral blood in which stage of filariasis:
a. tropical eosinophilia
b. early elephantiasis
c. early adenolymphangitis stage
d.
Ans. ? c
200. boy aged 8 from TN has a white non anesthetic nonscaly hypopigmented
macule on his face:
a. pityriasis alba
b. pityriasis versicolor
c. indeterminate leprosy
d.
Ans. c
201. most common organism causing tinea capitis
a. trichophyton tonsurans
b. microsporum
c. epidermophyton
d. candida albicans
Ans. a
202. A man presents with mass at duodenojejunal flexor invading renal
papilla. HPE reported as lymphoma, true statement is
a. staging will not be done until bone marrow examination performed
b. II E stage
c. III E Stage
d. IV E stage
Ans. a ?
203. Treatment of of kawasaki disease in children
a. oral steroids
b. iv steroids
c. iv Ig
d. mycophenolate mefentil
Ans. c
204. 60 yr old man with suspected bronchogenic ca; TB has been ruled out in
this pt. What investigation would be chosen.
a. CT guided FNAC
b. Bronchoscopy and biopsy
c. X-ray
d. sputum examination
Ans. b
205. Young patient presents with jaundice. Bilirubin is 21, direct is 9.6,
alkphos 84 KA units. Diagnosis.
a. hemolytic jaundice
b. viral hepatitis
c. chronic active hepatitis
d. obstructive jaundice
Ans. d
206. A man presents with non productive cough 4 weeks, grade III clubbing,
apical lobe lesion on xray. Diagnosis?
a. small cell ca
b. non small cell ca
c. fungal infection
d. tuberculosis
Ans. b
207. young male presents with recurrent abdominal pain and gallbladder stone;
serum bilirubin 2.5, Hb 6, urine shows urobilinogen positive; diagnosis
a. hemolytic anaemia
b. G6 PD deficiency
c. hepatocellular jaundice
d. protoporphyria
Ans. a
208. A patient of acute right ventricle infr. modalities of TT
a. IV fluids
b. digoxin
c. diuretics
d.
Ans. a
209. A man with fever wt loss and cough, mantoux is 17 x 19 mm induration,
sputum cytology negative for AF
b. Diagnosis:
a. pulm tuberculosis
b. fungal infection
c. viral pneumonia
d. pneumonia
Ans. a
210. A destitute woman admitted with altered sensorium, dehydration; urine
analysis showed mild proteinuria and no sugar; what other test would be
desirable.
a. fouchet
b. rothera
c. hays
d.
Ans. b
211. A 18 yr old presents with massive hematemesis; history of fever for the
past 14 days; rx with drugs; moderate spleen present; diagnosis
a. NSAID induced gastritis
b. Drug induced gastritis
c. Esophageal varices
d. duodenal ulcer
Ans. a
/c ? 212. All of the following are true about type I respiratory failure
except
a. decreased PaO2
b. decreased PaCO2
c. normal PaCO2
d. normal A-a gradient
Ans. d
213. True statement is about neurocystisercosis
a. usually presents with seizure resistant to anti epileptic drugs
b. albendazole is more effective than praziquantel
c. usually presents with 6th nerve palsy and hemiperesis
d.
Ans. b
214. A patient presents with MEN IIa. Which of the following is not a feature
of this
a. pituitary adenoma
b. pheochromocytoma
c. medullary ca thyroid
d. neuromas
Ans. a (ref. CMDT)
215. A patient has an accident with resultant transection of the pituitary
stalk: what will NOT occur
a. diabetes mellitus
b. diabetes insipidus
c. hyperprolactinemia
d. hypothyroidism
Ans. a
216 digoxin is NOT indicated in
a. atrial flutter
b. atrial fibrillation
c. high output failure
d. PSVT
Ans. c
217. best test to detect iron deficiency in community
a. transferrin
b. serum ferritin
c. serum iron
d. hemoglobin Ans b
218. A patient on phenytoin for seizures, develops depression, rx with
tricyclics, now complains of lassitude, Hb is 8; next test to do.
a. chest x ray
b. MCV
c.
d.
Ans. b
219. person received tetanus full immunisation 10 years ago, now has clean
wound without lacerations 2.5 hours ago. Next step:
a. full course of tetanus toxoid
b. single tetanus booster dose
c. tet globulin
d. tet glob and booster dose
Ans. b
220. False statement regarding tetanus is
a. five dose immunisation provides life long immunity
b. TT provides no protection in the present injury
c.
d.
Ans. a
221. Pulm edema associated with normal PCWP. Which of the following is NOT a
cause
a. high altitude
b. narcotics overdose
c. post cardiopulm bypass
d. bilateral renal artery stenosis
Ans. d
222. A woman has septic abortion done; vegetation on tricuspid valve is
likely to go to:
a. lung
b. liver
c. spleen
d. brain
Ans. a
223. mitral valve vegetations do NOT embolise usually to
a. brain
b. liver
c. spleen
d. lung
Ans. d
224. A woman has bilateral headache worsening with emotional stress; both
children doing badly in school; diagnosis
a. migraine
b. cluster headache
c. tension headache
d.
Ans. c
225. Basanti, aged 30, episodic throbbing headache for past 4 yrs, nausea,
vomiting:
a. migraine
b. cluster headache
c. angle closure glaucoma
d. temporal arteritis
Ans. b
www.bhamaindia.com
226. A woman complains of headache associated with paresthesias of the
right upper and lower limb:
a. trigeminal neuralgia
b. glossopharyngeal neuralgia
c. migraine
d. cluster haedache
Ans. c
227. which of the following is NOT seen on hemoglobin electrophoresis in
sickle cell anemia:
a. HbA
b. HbA2
c. HbF
d. HbS
Ans. a
228. NOT associated with thymoma
a. red cell aplasia
b. myasthenia gravis
c. hypergammaglobulinemia
d. compression of the supr mediastinum
Ans. c
229. In myasthenia gravis, correct statement regarding thymectomy is
a. done in all cases
b. done in cases with ocular involvement only
c. not required if controlled by anticholinesterases
d. most cases are associated with thymoma
Ans. c (ref. CMDT)
230. All of the following are true regarding fibrolamellar cancer of the
liver, except
a. more in women
b. better prognosis than HCC
c. increase AFP
d.
Ans. c
231. A young basketball player with ht 184 cm and arm span 197 cm has a
diastolic murmur. Possibility:
a. AS
b. Coarctation of aorta
c. AR
d. MS
Ans. c
232. A patient with engorged neck veins, BP 80/50 and pulse rate of 100
following blunt trauma to the chest:
a. pneumothorax
b. right ventricular failure
c. cardiac tamponade
d.
Ans. c
233. Following a sexual intercourse, person develops left testes pain that
does not get relieved on elevation of scrotum. Diagnosis is
a. epididymo-orchitis
b. torsion testis
c. fourniers gangrene
d. tumor
Ans. b
234. A patients CSF report is sugar of 40, protein of 150, chloride of 550,
lymphocytosis present, diagnosis is
a. fungal meningitis
b. viral meningitis
c. TB meningitis
d. leukemia meningitis
Ans. c
235. All of the following are associated with HSP except
a. thrombocytopenia
b. abd. pain
c. purpura
d.
Ans. a
236. A diabetic female on INH and rifampin for TB suffers DVT: started on
warfarin: PT is not raised: next step:
a. Long term heparin therapy
b. increase dose of warfarin
c. switch ethambutol for rifampin
d. use LMW heparin
Ans. ? c/d
237. An elderly man has features of dementia, ataxia and difficulty in
downward gaze: diagnosis:
a. parkinsons
b. supranuclear gaze palsy
c. alzheimers disease
d.
Ans. b
238. Which of the follwing is NOT seen in wilsons disease
a. cerebellar ataxia
b. peripheral neuropathy
c. dysphagia
d. stocking and gloving in right hand
Ans. d
239. All of the following statements are true reagrding HIV infection except
a. p24 is used for early diagnosis
b. lysis of infected CD4 cells
c. dendritic cells do not support replication
d. macrophage is reservoir of virus
Ans. c
240. A patient with Hb level of 6, WBC 2000, normal Different. Coutn except
for having 6% blasts, platelets reduced to 20,000; moderate splenomegaly;
possible diagnosis.
a. Acute leukemia
b. aplastic anemia
c. Lymphoma
d. ITP
Ans. a
241. A 30-year-old male complains of loss of erection with low testosterone
and high prolactin level in bloo
d. What is the likely diagnosis- a) Pituitary adenoma b) Testicular failure c)
Cranio pharyngioma d) Cushing's syndrome
Ans. a
242. Which of the following is a post blood transfusion complication:
a. metab alkaosis
b. metab acidosis
c. resp alkalosis
d. resp acidosis
Ans. b
243. patient with arthritis, skin hyperpigmentation, hypogonadism, diagnosis
a. hemochromatosis
b. SLE
c.
d.
Ans. a
244. A patient presents with hemoptysis and cushingoid features with a lack
of dexamethasone supression, likely reason
a. adrenal hyperplasia
b. adrenal adenoma
c. ca lung
d. ectopic ACTH production
Ans. d
245. Kussmaul's sign is NOT seen in
a. restrictive pericarditis
b. constrictive pericarditis
c. cardiac tamponade
d. RV infarction
Ans. c (ref. oxford medicine)
246. Most common fungal infection in febrile neutropenia
a. aspergillus niger
b. candida
c. mucormycosis
d. asper. Fumigatus
Ans.b
247. secondary hyperparathyroidism due to vit D deficiency shows
a. hypocalcemia
b. hypercalcemia
c. hyper phosphatemia
d. hypo phosphatemia
Ans. d
248. All of the following are true regarding DIC except
a. decreased platelets
b. decreased fibrinogen
c. decresaed PTT
d.
Ans. c
249. Chandreash, age 61 years, complains of intermittent claudication,
dizziness and headache. Most likely cardiac lesion
a. TOF
b. ASD
c. PDA
d. Coarctation of aorta
Ans. d
250. A patient presents with LVH. On ECG, left axis deviation and some
pulmonary complications. Most likely diagnosis si
a. TOF
b. tricuspid atresia
c. TAPVC
d. VSD
Ans. b
251. BP Samples from two community are best compared by
a. Paired T test
b. student's test
c. chi squre test
d. cohart
Ans. a
252. Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed by
a. IgM FTAabs
b. fs FTAabs
c. VDRL
d. TPI
Ans. a
253. Babu presents h/o road accident. He is hypotensive. Most likely ruptures
organ is
a. spleen
b. mesentry
c. kidney
d. rectum
Ans. a
254. Dinesh, age 29 years has h/o sore throat 3 days back. Now he has
complains of dysure
a. On urine examination dysmorphic RBC are seen. Most likely cause is
a. post strpt. GN
b. Ig A nephropathy
c. ATN
d.
Ans. b
255. All of the following are correct except
a. thiopantone can be given in fixed cardiac output
b. ether. . ..
c. morphine is preferred preanesthetic medication in children
d.
Ans. c
256. All are true regarding inguinal canal except
a. roof is formed by conjoint tendon
b. deep inguinal ring is formed by transverse abdominus
c. superficial inguinal ring is formed by ext. obliq. Muscle
d. int. obliq muscle forms anterior and post. wall
Ans. b
257. A person comes in contact with other. This is called
a. locard principle
b.
c.
d.
Ans. a
258. Impaired consciousness, visual hallucination, hyperactivity and
fragmentary delusions are typically seen in
a. delirium
b. dementia
c. paranoid psychosis
d. schizophrenia
Ans. a
259. A 45 years male presents with hypertension. He has abnormal movements in
right upper and lower limbs. Mostly likely site of haemorrahge is
a.
b. caudate nuclei
c. pons
d. subthallmic nuclei
Ans. d
260. A 23 year lady presents with dizziness and chest pain. On examinations
there is tachycardia and systolic ejection murmer at mitral are
a. Investigation of choice is
a. echo cardiography
b. ECG
c. Angiography
d. CT
Ans. a
261. More false positive cases in a community signifies that the disease has
a. high prevalence
b. high sensitivity
c. low prevalence
d. low sensitivity
Ans. c ?
262. In 2 comuunities X and Y, Y shows more false +ve cases as compared to X.
The possibility is
a. Y community has low specificity
b. Y community has high specificity
c.
d. Y community has low prevalence
Ans. d
263. Bilateral ptosis is not seen in
a.
b. marfan's syndrome
c. Mys. gravis
d.
Ans. b
264. which of the following is not mediated mediated through negative feed
back mechanism
a. BP
b. GH formation
c. thrombin formation
d. ACTH relase
Ans. c
265. In ASD all are seen except
a. LVH
b. RVH
c. right axis deviation
d. pul. hypertension
Ans. a
266. Basanti, age 28 presents with 6 weeks of amenorrhea. She has developed
pain abd., fluid in pouch of douglous. Most probable diag. Is
a. ovarian cyst
b. ectopic Preg.
c. red degeneration of fibroid
d.
Ans. b
267. Chandu, age 32 presents with ab
d. pain and vomiting. He also complains some psychiatric symptoms and visual
hallucinatios. Most likely diagnosis is
a. a
c. Intermittent. Porphyria
b. hypothyroidism
c. hyperthyroidism
d.
Ans. a
268. All of the following are true except
a. halothane is a good analgesic
b. halothane sensatise the heart for catacholamines
c. halothane
d.
Ans. a
269. A neonate presents with resp. distress. On investigations, his
mediastinum was shifted towards right side.
a.
b. Diagphrmatic hernia
c.
d.
Ans. b
270. In brain, free radicals are detoxified by
a. Supra oxide dismutase
b. MAO
c.
d.
Ans. a
271. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CLL
d. CML
Ans. c
272. A patient is on ventilator. His pH is 7.5 with PO2 = 85mmhg and pCO2 =
25mmHg. HCO3 = 23 mmol per litre. Most likely condition is
a. resp. alklosis
b. resp. acidosis
c. metabolic alkalosis
d. metabolic acidosis
Ans. a
273. A patient with pH 7.23, pCO2= 54, pO2= 66 mmHg and HCO3 = 10 mmol/L.
Most likely condition is
a. resp acidosis
b. metabolic acidosis
c. resp. acidosis with meta acidosis
d. resp. alkalosis with met
a. Acidosis
Ans. c
274. Digoxin is indicated in all of the followings except
a. atrial flutter
b. WPW syndrome
c. atrial fibrillation
d. PSVT
Ans. b
275. Protein responsible for contractility of muscles
a. troponin
b. tetnoin
c.
d.
Ans. a
276. Which of the following is seen in First order kinectics
a. rate depends upon plasma conc.
b. rate does not depend on plasma conc.
c. rate depends upon plasma protein binding
d. elimination depends upon amount of drug
Ans. a
277. Most useful investigation in diabetic mother to identify DM in first
trimester
a. Glycosylated Hb
b.
c.
d.
Ans. a
278. Glycosylated Hb is used for
a. identification of long term Glucose level
b. monitoring of short term Glucose level
c.
d.
Ans. a
279. Correct about theophyllin is
a. t1/2 is less in CHF
b. t1/2 is less in smoker
c.
d.
Ans. a
280. All of following are correct about Thromboxane A2 excpet
a. low dose aspirin inhibit it
b.
c. secreted by WBC
d.
Ans. c
281. Characteristic finding in CT of a TB case is
a. exudates seen in basal cistern
b. hydrocephalus is commonly seen
c.
d.
Ans. a
282. All of the following are false except
a. Oxytocin sensitivity is increased during delivery
b. Prosglandins should be given during II trimester
c.
d.
Ans. a
283. Ocular symptom not seen in Herpes zoster
a. sec. glaucoma
b. viral keratitis
c. ant. uvetis
d.
Ans. a
? 284. Which of the following is not seen in Huntington's disease
a. cognitive symptoms
b. cog wheel rigidity
c. corea
d.
Ans. b
285. Alzheimer's disease is associated with
a. down syndrome
b. marfan'syndrome
c. aicardi syndrome
d.
Ans. a
286. Left sided lateral gaze is affected in leasion of
a. right frontal lobe
b. right occipetal lobe
c. left occipetal lobe
d. left frontal lobe
Ans. a
287. Sampling error is .....
a. alpha error
b. beta
c. gamma
d.
Ans. a
288. All of the following are false except
a. Cox I is non inducible
b. Cox II is released at the site of inflammation
c. Cox I is inducible
d. Leukotrines cause bronchoconstriction
Ans. c
289. All of the following anaesthetic agent can be given in renal failure
excpet
a. sevoflurane
b. isoflurane
c. enflurane
d. halothane
Ans. c
290. Beta blocker which has less first pass metabolism and more excretion
through kidney is
a. propanolol
b. sotalol
c. bisprolol
d. nadolol
Ans. b
291. A person who is on starvation for 5 days. Glucose is given for GTT.
Findings will be all except
a. GH decrease ???
b. decreased ? insulin
c. increase cortisol ???
d. insulin tolerence ???
Ans. Melody khao, khud jaan jao!!!
292. All of the following are true except
a. E coli grows in alkaline media
b. Alkanisation of urine cause uric acid stone
c. acidification is needed insalicylate poisioning
d.
Ans. b
293. Which test is not useful in optic neuritis
a. ERG
b. Evoked Potential Retinogram
c. visual acuity
d.
Ans. a
294. All of the following are correct except
a. HDL is protective for IHD
b. LDL delivers cholestrol in tissue
c. increase cholestrol level causes increase in no. of receptors
d. VLDL is an endogenous triglyceride transporter
Ans. c
295. True about Haemophilia A are all except
a. PTT increased
b. decreased PT
c.
d.
Ans. b
296. In low doses aspirin acts on
a. cyclo-oxygenase
b. thromboxane A2
c. PGI 2
d. lipoxygenase
Ans. b
297. PEEP can cause
a.
b.
c.
d. barotraumas
Ans. d
298. True about hypthyroidism is
a. facial nerve palsy and deafness
b. deaf and mutism
c.
d.
Ans. a
299. In a community, increase in new cases denotes
a. increase incidence rate
b. increase prevalence rate
c. decrease incidence rate
d. decrease prevalence rate
Ans. a
300. Seasonal trend is due to
a. vector variation
b. environmental factors
c. changes in herd immunity
d.
Ans. b
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