Posted by Real JW [RealJW] on March 28, 1999 at 16:07:56 {RqyLiBqeogvhVxddkJA6MW6uQi5GMZvdw}:
In Reply to: One more thing posted by JaneyJJJ on March 28, 1999 at 10:09:23:
"Where in the world is Jan getting the "y" from? We are dealing with the iota and eta in Greek. Not the upsilon." Where or where is iota EVER transliterated in Greek grammars as a "y"?"
What nonsense! First, take a look at a Greek grammar! The upsilon is a "u" not a "y", regarless of what its capita;l form my LOOK like.
" Where or where is iota EVER transliterated in Greek grammars as a "y"?""
Did you look at the sections of pronunciation in the books you
consulted?
Did you check "The Elements of New Testament Greek," by J.W. Wenham?
On page 19 of the version which I have, he states:
"iota can also be used as a consonant, e.g., in proper nouns like "Iesous," "Jesus" or "Ioudaios," "Jew," in which case it is pronounced like y in "yes."
It is all the more obvious that this is correct, since, in these cases, it is a Greek rendering of the sound of the Hebrew letter "iod," which is a CONSONANT. It is, certainly, sometimes used as a vowel symbol, but this never occurs when it is the first letter in a word. If you check " A Grammar for Biblical Hebrew," by C.L. Seow, you will find that the pronunciation of "iod" is given as being approximately the same as "y as in 'yet.'" The Greek "iota" in "Iesous" is an attempt to indicate the same sound.
Now, perhaps you will open the shutters on your mind just a tiny little blink and allow a little reason in? If I say more I may get my post deleted - I really can't see why your diatribes have not been!
Real Jehovah's Witness