Posted by J.H. [JH] on March 26, 1999 at 18:07:40 {HR5JhS9/hcaPHRspcgtUMWsHSG.vl05do}:
In Reply to: More on Jan and syllables posted by JaneyJJJ on March 26, 1999 at 07:16:44:
YaKney,
: It means that the "i" is SEPARATE from the "e" and that they are each a separate syllable.
Others have posted references that list iota eta as diphthongs. You ignored it, like you ignored all the other evidence here.
Whatever you call it, it's a fact anyone even vaguely familiar with European languages will know: "i" and "e" can't be pronounced separately. If you have also studied Greek, as I have, you will laugh at the idea of anyone even thinking about an alternative. That Stafford even came up with the idea shows, as anyone can see, that he has never had a single lesson in Greek. perhaps if you talk to him, you should ask him to pose a question to his friend Rolf Furuli. Until you've done that, I suggest you shut up about a topic that just makes you look like a complete idiot.
Alterntively, just go and visit your friendly neigbourhood classics dept, at a university (yaknow, some big building probably in
the nearest city), and ask them how many syllables "iesous" has in Greek.