Posted by Julie on March 21, 1999 at 08:52:06 {MWoa9zs0COcKs}:
In Reply to: **Written to Catholics or JWs? posted by J.H. on March 21, 1999 at 07:35:06:
Actually Jan, to the best of my knowledge, the time in question does require a few details to be "in the know". First of all, as I'm sure you are very aware, literacy a few centuries ago was not very common. Secondly the bible was in Latin at the time, everywhere (again I know you know this, not everyone does). So there were concerns on behalf of the Church regarding several matters. First and foremost among them was that they didn't want the bible haphazardly translated into the native tongues of Christendom fearing "ruinous interpretation", as we all know has happened on a grand scale. (like certain bible characters having their heads "greased" instead of "anointed" to fit certain doctrines *no names please!*) Of course availability had something to do with it, before the advent of the printing press. I have studied history a long time and have not come across a single piece of evidence that proves the Church absolutely forbade the reading of Scripture by laymen.
Of course it is much more fun for those who loathe the Church to state otherwise. It's also fun to believe that all who "left" the Church during the time of the Reformation did so because of some lofty ideals but that too is nonsense in many cases. During that time it was often wise politically to jump ship and also very profitable.
If only people would check out facts and form their own opinions instead of buying into myths without question.......I am a dreamer, no? :-)
Julie