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Posted by PTL on March 20, 1999 at 21:17:21 {MWV7/1kkPzlK6}:

Why does the New World Translation insert the word Jehovah in the New
Testament when there are absolutely no Greek manuscripts that have it
in there? Isn't this playing with the text?



Follow Ups:

  • *Another Question Jaypeeto 12:39:29 3/21/99 (2)
  • **Another Question PTL 04:20:31 3/22/99 (1)
  • ***Another Question Al; 05:50:52 3/22/99 (0)
  • *Another Question Janey 22:02:23 3/20/99 (1)
  • **Another Question PTL 07:10:16 3/22/99 (0)

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