What exactly is speaking in tongues?
I have done some research on this topic and gathered two articles with opposing opinions about what exactly is this speaking in tongues
For Speaking in Tongues
Against Speaking in Tongues
Now that you are aware of both views on this subject, let's read these verses they are referring to.
All Scripture (unless noted otherwise) is from the King James Version of the Bible
View the Scripture Passages
We've heard both sides of the story, we've read what Scripture is saying. Now let's look over and see just what the Scripture IS saying.
Mark 16:17-18
Jesus predicts that His disciples will speak with "new tongues". In Mark 16:15, we find Jesus telling His disciples "go ye into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature". This passage shows us what Christ wants His disciples to do and how they are going to do it. One of the things they will be able to do is to speak with "new tongues". Without this gift, it would be impossible for the disciples to witness to everybody because not everybody speaks the same language. For example, a spanish person talks to a french person. Unless this french person understood some spanish, he would have no clue what the spanish person was saying. Likewise, unless the disciples studied all the other languages, they would have no means of communicating with "the world". They would be limited to only witnessing to those who spoke the same language as they.
Acts 2:1-36
Jesus' prediction in Mark has now come true. On the day of Pentecost, the Holy Spirit descended and the 120 believers who were gathered were given the ability to speak in tongues. Is this referring to some 'ecstatic' or 'angelic' language or is it just the ability to speak in foreign languages? In verses 5-12 of Acts chapter 2 we read that when the disciples spoke in tongues that all the people gathered, consisting of multiple types of people, "they were all amazed and marvelled", "and how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?" These verses show the results of the disciples speaking in tongues, showing that this gift was indeed the ability to speak in a foreign language. Revelation 9:11 clearly shows that the term tongue is used to indicate a different language. The Bible has now shown us there is at least one aspect of this 'gift of tongues' being the ability to speak in foreign languages. Let us focus on the rest of these passages that some people use to imply that there is a second aspect of the 'gift of tongues', being able to speak in an "angelic" or otherwise "unknown" language.
Acts 10:44, 46
Again we have the Holy Spirit coming upon a group of believers and enabling them to speak in tongues. Very similar situation found in Acts chapter 2. How do we know it's similar?? Peter tells us here "the Holy Ghost fell on them, as on us at the beginning." Peter is saying the exact same thing that happened before in Acts 2, is happening again now.
1 Corinthians 12-14
These chapters have generated the largest amount of controversy about the possibility of speaking in an "angelic" or "unknown" language. Let's take a closer look at each of these.
1 Corinthians 12
In verse 10 we read about Paul mentioning some types of spiritual gifts including speaking in tongues and interpreting tongues. In verses 12-30, Paul specifically says that not all believers have these gifts. He spends those 18 verses reinforcing his point that not all believers have the gifts. In John 20:41 we read "And many resorted unto him, and said, John did no miracle: but all things that John spake of this man [Christ] were true." John the Baptist, did no miracles, he did not speak in tongues, but He was saved. Since all believers do not have all or even some of the gifts, this does not prove whether someone is or is not saved. Verse 31 leads into chapter 13. "yet shew I unto you a more excellent way".
1 Corinthians 13
Paul opens this chapter with a hypothetical situation in verse 1: "though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels and have not charity (love), I am become as sounding brass or a tinkling cymbal. Many people think this verse helps indicate that there is an angelic language that we can speak. This whole chapter, though, is dedicated to showing that love is to be cherished above anything else. It explains what true love really is. Paul's hypothetical situation "though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels"...he is saying even IF he could speak in an angelic language, if he does not have love, he is only so much noise and is basically worthless. He does not ever say he is able to or has spoken in an angelic language.
1 Corinthians 14
In chapter 14, there are multiple mentions of the phrase "unknown tongue". This "unknown tongue" is what is claimed to be an 'angelic' language. Note the word unknown is italicized and in some versions it is omitted. Why would it be omitted and why is it italicized when it is included?? The answer is simple, the word "unknown" does not appear in the original greek manuscripts of the Bible. This means "unknown" is something the translators added, which is also why some of the translators leave out the word. Those translations, though, actually don't 'leave out' the word, they just omit it because it was not part of the original greek manuscripts. The whole basis of speaking in "unknown tongues" or an 'angelic' language is 100% dependant on the word "unknown" some translators decided to include, which was not included in the original Bible. What we believe in is the Bible as written by the original authors. Since the original authors did not claim there were unknown tongues, then neither will we say there are. We will look at this chapter with the viewpoint that the tongues were indeed known languages, as defined in Acts chapter 2.
1 Corinthians 14:1-19
Paul opens this chapter by telling the Corinthians to follow love and to desire spiritual gifts. Now note he says "but rather that ye may prophesy." He wants them to seek spiritual gifts like they have been doing, but he wants them to seek, most importantly, the gift of prophecy. Verses 2 & 3 seem to indicate that there might be an 'ecstactic language.' From what we've read so far and from what we will read, there is absolutely no concrete evidence that there is an 'ecstatic language' and nowhere else in the entire Bible is there mentioned anything about an 'ecstatic language'. Remember Paul is correcting the carnal Corinthian church. Paul is the only one who mentions it to the Corinthians, and the whole purpose of his letter is to correct the Corinthian church from their carnal ways. Unless you can show me in Scripture where it says that there is an 'ecstatic language', then I will continue to believe the Truth of what the Bible says that there is no 'ecstactic language.' Read verse 4 now: "He who speaks in tongues edifies himself". Is edifying ourselves what Christ would want us to do? Absotively not!!! We are supposed to edify each other and not selfishly try to edify ourselves. Paul goes on in verses 5-26 diminishing the gift of tongues and encouraging the Corinthians to seek after the gift of prophecy. Verse 5 Paul says he wants everyone to be able to speak in tongues. A lot of churches stop reading right there. They don't bother reading the rest of the verse: "greater is he who prophesieth than he who speaketh with tongues. In verse 12 "try to excel in gifts that build up the church" -- NIV. Paul is directly telling the Corinthians to edify the church and not themselves. So how can the Corinthians do this? By seeking to prophesy instead of speaking in tongues. Please keep in mind that they could not obtain any gifts by themselves, the gifts were given to whoever the Holy Spirit chose to give them to. (1 Cor. 12:4-11)
1 Corinthians 14:2
Why does this verse say that when somebody speaks in tongues "no man understandeth him"?? Surely this would mean we can speak angelic languages, right? Not so, the problem in Corinth was that nobody present could understand the person speaking in tongues. He spoke in an intelligable language, but there was no one there who understood that particular language. Therefore he was not speaking unto men. Ok, so men don't understand, but God does, so it's still ok, right? Nope, Paul says speaking in tongues edifies ourselves, not the church, and Paul continually stresses to edify the church.
1 Corinthians 14:20-25
Paul starts verse 20 by comparing the Corinthians to children. He tells them to start acting like adults. How do they do this? Paul just told them how in verses 1-19. In verse 21 Paul quotes the prophet Isaiah. Referencing Isaiah 28:11 & 12. Paul, John, etc, are not jews, they are gentiles. Isaiah states that "men of other tongues" will speak to the jewish people. Obviously the gentiles could not speak the jewish language but with the gift of tongues they could. In verse 22, Paul says "tongues are for a sign not to them that believe, but to them that believe not." This statement is proven in Acts 2:6-7. All the people were astonished that these believers were able to speak to them in their native languages. The unbelievers, knowing the people did not know their native language, would know that it this was a sign from Heaven to them. This gifts whole purpose was to give unbelievers an opportunity to hear the gospel in their own language. In verse 23 Paul shows that speaking in tongues, the way the Corinthians were doing it, can hinder an unbeliever coming to Christ. "will they (the unbeliever) not say that ye are mad?" Verses 24 and 25 Paul shows that seeking to prophesy is far better to bring others to Christ in a worship service.
1 Corinthians 14:26-40
In these verses Paul instructs the Corinthians to correct their misuse of speaking in tongues. How do we know they were misusing this gift? Because Paul is instructing them here how to correctly use the gift. Let's see exactly what his instructions are. In verse 27 Paul says NO MORE than 3 people may speak in tongues at a service and they MUST speak one at a time. It also says that one of those 3 must interpret (translate) what they are saying. If there is no one that can understand them, then they should keep silent. For example, what good is it for someone to speak in german when no one present understands any german? Verse 34 many people neglect in their reading. "Let your women keep silence in the churches." What does this mean? That women aren't allowed to say anything in church? No, because Paul is talking about prophesying and speaking in tongues when he says this. Paul is directly stating that women are not to 'speak in tongues' or 'prophesy'. He is very specific about this. Let's take a look at what chapter 11 verse 5 has to say. "And every woman who prays or prophesies with her head uncovered dishonors her head". First of all, is this verse saying that a woman's head should be covered when she prays? Yes! But with what? Read verse 15 of chapter 11. "but that if a woman has long hair......For long hair is given to her as a covering." Paul is stating that her long hair is sufficient covering. Now what was the reason of looking at this chapter? For the first phrase of verse 5 "And every woman who prays or prophesies". This does not say praying in tongues, just normal praying. Therefore not contradicting chapter 14 where Paul says women are not allowed to speak in tongues. How about this other element in verse 5 of chapter 11? It states that it is ok for a woman to prophesy. Does this contradict what Paul says later? Of course not, Paul, speaking in the context of speaking in tongues and prophecying and interpreting, means that a woman is not allowed to interpret a prophecy. She is allowed to prophesy, but not to interpret a prophecy. The interpreting was a job for the men to do. Paul then goes on in verse 37 of chapter 14 to directly challenge the Corinthians and tells them bluntly: "The things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord."
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