ARYAN ORIGINS AND KINSHIP
by WILLIAM HAMILTON STEWART
explains why and when the ancestors of Aryans and most other races left Africa and settled where they lived until about 500 years ago.
The evidence presented below may help answer the above questions.
According to my apostate and irrefutable? theory, genetic and linguistic, etc.
My speculations concern questions not yet answered by other scientists (anthropologists, geneticists, linguists, etc.) about how people are kin, and where we've been, and are written from the perspective of my Celtic and Germanic (Vikings, Anglo-Saxons, etc.) ancestors.
Since I posted it on the Internet in 1995, scientific progress has continued to confrim my theory, and theories similar to mine, like the "Sahara Pump Theory" at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sahara_Pump_Theory and the "Recent single-origin hypothesis" at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Out_of_Africa_theory have been published.
Please read the theory below as a possible explanation of racial origins and kinship, and judge for yourself, without considering the author as an infallible authority on this subject.
References to biblical statements in this document do not mean that I believe that the Bible is any more authoritative or truthful about history than any other source of information. I do not dismiss the Bible as entirely fiction or myth, or think that it contains no truth about the past whatsoever. Whether or not the parts of the Bible which I quote are true is for the reader to decide.
Is educating most Aryans about their ancestry difficult because Christians stubbornly rely on what their preachers have told them (e.g., that they are the true Israelites, that Evolution never happened, etc.)? Are all Judeo-Christian/Muslim religious beliefs based on evidence and science? The Bible states that the sun stood still so the "Chosen" could massacre more gentiles. Do most Christians sincerely believe that the earth stopped revolving on its axis? Have Christians been taught that their god can do ANYTHING, as though we lived in a virtual universe?
Aryans farmers created the earliest, most powerful and greatest civilizations on earth for thousands of years before and after Christianity was imposed on them. How long will Aryan civilization last unless the Aryan masses stop hiding from the truth?
The caption of the above image from L.A. Waddell's "Phoenician Origin of Britons-Scots" book is "Cutti plowing and sowing under the sign of the Cross. From Casel seal of about 1380 B.C.."
Is the middle man holding a sack of wheat seed and feeding it through a funnel to the furrow being plowed? Does the oval in the picture above symbolize the moon, which regulated plantings? The holy cross was a pre-Christian Aryan symbol of Life, the Sun and God. The arms of the cross were bent to form a swastika to show the direction the sun moved across the sky. The circle was an Aryan symbol of God, eternity and the Universe. The "8" sign symbolized infinity and the death of old and rebirth of new generations, the cycles of night and day, etc. Is the combination of long limbs and beards, flowing hair, prominent noses, tall and slender bodies and a farming life style which is evident in all of the images shown on this web-page characteristic of ONLY people of Aryan ancestry? Have all Indo-European languages inherited similar names for all of the objects shown in this picture?
1 The honorable and respectable word "Aryan" may have originally meant "worshipper of Aliyan" (a Canaanite word meaning Lord or God) and was used for millennia before the propaganda of anti-Aryan media owners forced today's politically correct anthropologists to use substitute words like "Indo-Hittite", "Indo-European", etc.
2 The Sahel is the part of the Sahara which is humid enough to grow grasses (but too dry to grow the forests of equatorial Africa). The Sahel was less habitable during the driest centuries of the last Ice Age, so approximately every 26,000 years, parts of its population had to leave Africa (the equatorial forests were already inhabited) and find humid areas in Asia and other regions of the world which had not already been too populated to conquer. This climatic cycle explains the genetic distance between all non-African races.
Knowing where mirror sites are helps protect our right to read
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http://www.geocities.com/anthropogenesis/
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http://William_H_STEWART.tripod.com/
http://wsws.tripod.com/
Please read our kind web-hosts' disclaimers, and thank them for allowing their servers to be bastions of free speech, without which you might never have heard of my iconoclastic theory. That its Judeo/Christian owners and censors respect our right to communicate does not mean that they in any way approve, condone or condemn this material, which is posted here for informational purposes only. Do the owners of most of the mass broadcast media make sure that their editors and live talk show hosts keep off the air anyone who dares to criticize our REAL masters?
I use the following Abbreviations:
S = "The History and Geography
of Human Genes", by Cavalli-Sforza (1994)
N = New Standard Bible Dictionary (1926)
c = circa (by "c38+ KYA" I mean "not
less than about 38,000 years ago")
K = thousand
Y = years
A = ago
p = page
M = million
WHO IS ARYAN OR NOT?
FROM WHOM DID THE GENES OF ARYANS COME?
I am trying to be brief, so let's begin with the following excerpts from http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=Amorites
According to Easton's 1897 Bible Dictionary, "The Amorites ....are represented on the Egyptian monuments with fair skins, light hair, blue eyes, aquiline noses, and pointed beards. They are supposed to have been men of great stature; their king, Og, is described by Moses as the last "of the remnant of the giants" (Deut. 3:11)."
If the aforesaid description of the Amorites fits the description of the seven foot tall Germans who live around Hamburg and Bremen, might Germans and other Aryans be of the same race as the ancient Amorites?
If the Amorites were Hamitic, were Hamites the ancestors of the Aryan race?
What other pure blooded race fits that description?
Does any tribe of African Negroes have fair skins, light hair, blue eyes, aquiline noses, and pointed beards?
Does any Mongolian race have fair skins, light hair, blue eyes, aquiline noses, and pointed beards?
Does any tribe of Semites (Arabs, Hebrews, etc.) have fair skins, light hair, blue eyes, aquiline noses, and pointed beards?
Are fair skins, light hair, blue eyes, aquiline noses, and pointed beards typical of southern Europeans? Do southern Europeans look like Semites because both are branches of the Cro-Magnon race?
From page.411 of L.A.Waddell's book, THE PHOENICIAN ORIGIN OF THE BRITONS, SCOTS & ANGLO-SAXONS: "The uniquely important archaic inscription figured at p.257 (Fig.43) affords, through its explanatory Sumerian script, an additional key to the pre-historic Cup-mark script of Early Britain, etc.; and also attests the use of Cup-mark script by the Mors or Amorites, who are therein called Ari or "Ary-an". It, moreover, establishes still further the newly found fact that a large proportion of the words used by the Aryan Mors or Amorites, so early as about 4000 BC, are radically identical in sound and meaning with common words in our modern English.
DID ARYAN LANGUAGES COME FROM TJE HAMITIC FAMILY OF LANGUAGES?
Prehaps the easiest way to answer this question would be for you to look up the word "Indo-Hittite" in an excellent dictionary. Even http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=Indohittite will do:
"Indo-Hittite n : the family of languages that by 1000 BC were spoken throughout Europe and in parts of southwestern and southern Asia [syn: Indo-European, Indo-European language, Indo-Hittite]"
The above definition is of course based upon the scientific research which confirms that English is a branch of the Germanic family of languages, which is a branch of the Indo-European family of languages (Indo-European, Aryan, and Indo-Hittite are synonyms).
Were Amorites and Hittites two of the approximately 13 Hamitic tribes that inhabited Canaan before they were either massacred or driven out by Hebrews and other savage Semitic herdsmen? Why have Christians denied that the ancestors of Aryans were the survivors of the Hamitic nations which were holocausted in the name of the Hebrew God their ancestors were forced to worship?
Germans (Anglo-Saxons, etc.), Celts, Slavs (so named because Hebrews enlaved Slavs), Kurds, Persians ("Iran" = "Aryan"), Afghans, Aryans of India, etc. are members of a nation and language family which anthropologists and linguists call Indo-HITTITE, Hattian, Indo-European, or ARYAN. Click here to see a more complete list of Aryan nations/languages. Aryans are also loosely and erroneously called "Caucasian" and metonyms like "European", or "WHITE", terms which confuse Aryans with some non-Hamitic and non-Aryan Europeans (CroMagnon Basques, etc.), Asians (Semites, Dravidians, etc.) and Africans (Berbers, etc.).
Did the names "Scot" and "Briton" evolve from "Catti" or "Khatti", the ancient Hittite word from which are derived the Hebrew words "Khittim", "Heth", and "Hitt" (which became Hittite)?
Heth (the ancestor of the Hittites) was a "son of Canaan" according to the Hebrew Tanach (Christian "Old" Testament), which claims that Canaan was a descendant of Ham, one of the three sons of a common ancestor, "Noah".
Did farming spread into Europe because Aryan farmers colonized Europe or because uncivilized Aryans already in Europe adopted farming? S maps DNA evidence which traces Aryan ancestry to the Near East. Renfrew (1987) says Aryan language entered Europe from Anatolia and the Middle East. Read S p300 (and p280-285 if you are French). "The hypotheses whereby Indo-Europeans entered Europe as the first farmers show the best fit. There seems to be no cogent reason to think that the farmers' spread was due to factors other than their tendency to grow in numbers." (Indo-European Origins, p129 of American Journal of Physical Anthropology Vol. 96, #2, Feb., 1995). Since these conclusions are based on genetic evidence, by "tendency to grow in numbers" I assume the author meant "to genetically reproduce themselves" (not to grow in numbers by spreading their culture to other races).
Is the Pentateuch (the first five books of the "Bible") a trustworthy source of information? Like Aryan history (pagan myth?), before written, it was handed down by specialists who could memorize contents of entire books. Its authors were closer witnesses than we, and for centuries had access to the learned men and libraries of Hamitic civilization, like the one at Alexandria, Egypt (some say it was burnt in AD 391 by Jews and Christians to eliminate pagan scriptures - see Deuteronomy 7.5).
The Crucifixion of Wisdom
Does the crucifixion of the Serpent Draconis (symbol of Wisdom ) on the cross as depicted in the early alchemist image above express the opinion that the knowledge held by the Classical Greeks was destroyed with the burning of the Library at Alexandria by religious fanatics and the Inquisition? Were the Amerindian civilizations destroyed by the Conquistadors for the same reason? See http://www.crichtonmiller.com/the_cross_and_the_serpent.htm (a web-site worth perusal).
According to Genesis 10, Hittites (Aryans) descend from HAM (Hamites), the youngest (a newcomer?) of the three sons (three races descended from a common postulated? ancestor) of Noah.
I speculate that Hebrews understood there to be three human races, the oldest being the JAPHETH, which occupied the "isles of the Gentiles" (Genesis 10.2-5), "i.e. the coast lands of the Mediterranean Sea in Europe and Asia Minor." (quotes from Unger's Bible Dicitonary, under "Japheth").
The Cro-Magnon Japhet are not to be confused with the Aryan Phoenicians and other seafaring Canaanite nations who began to sail the seas from ports like Tyre and Sidon, and who established colonies around the Mediterranean, like Carthage, millennia before the Hebrew conquest of Canaan.
I speculate that the common ancestors of the Japheth (the PRE-ARYAN Basques, Caucasians, Greeks and other southern Europeans, Hungarians, Finns, Picts, etc., some of which adopted the languages of Aryan Civilization) and the Semitic races and any other non-Aryan "White" races of Europe and the Middle East left North Africa via the Sinai c38+ KYA due to desiccation of the Sahara, and settled in the Middle East and throughout Europe during a warm phase of the last (approximately 100,000 year long) Ice Age.
Glaciation peaked about 18 KYA and forced these Cro-Magnons into southern Europe. The further south one travels in Italy, the more the population resembles non-Aryans. For example, their limbs are shorter, their torsos are larger, their skins are hairier and darker, their height is shorter, their facial features are more like those of Jews and their crime rates are higher than those of Aryans.
Was the youngest (last to leave Africa) of the three races ("sons of Noah") known to the Hebrews called "sons of Ham" (Hamites)? I speculate that c20 KYA Hamitic clan/families were forced northwards down the Nile from the Sahel (south of the Sahara) by the most severe desiccation of the Sahara during the Last Ice Age. Some settled in the abandoned forests of Canaan c20 KYA, but others continued on, perhaps as far as America, where their remains were recently discovered (Kennewick man), and into India where they may have become the ancestors of the Dravidians.
Until their contact with civilized Hamites 2,000 years ago, Negroes had lived only in the coastal forests west of the Cameroon Mountains, and had hardly begun using the crudest of stone tools. Could such forest dwellers cross the Sahara?
Using only their ancient technology, Hamitic Berbers (aboriginal non-Semitic African "WHITES", some blond and blue eyed) have for about 150,000 years roamed about the Sahara from the Mediterranean south to the southern edge of the Sahara (borders of the Negro states).
Although Berber (also known as Amazigh) homelands have been occupied by Semites who have discriminated them against for many centuries, those that survive deep in the interior of the Sahara have retained more of their racial, cultural and linguistic purity. Berber is still spoken by peasants in the countryside, as one would expect of a nation conquered by Semites. Aryans were terrified into accepting Semitic religions in the same way that Conquistadors converted the Indians of America. The last to succumb were the peasants (pagan means peasant).
Will Berber languages become extinct before linguists investigate whether Indo-European is more closely related to Berber than to the Cro-magnon languages (Finno-Ugaric, Causcasian, Basque, Semitic, etc.)? Will linguists and geneticists who study the Berbers discover that all Aryan languages originated in Hamitic Africa?
A couple of high-spirited Algerians whom I encountered bar-hopping a few weeks ago told me that "Berbers look exactly like Europeans". Mr. Willemsen's letter at MAIL.htm provides more information about this subject.
Photograph of a Berber
According to my theory, the genetic distance between Berbers, Cherokees, Aryans and Dravidians is about 20,000 years.
"Today it is broadly asserted that there are five main groups of Africans. First there are the so-called 'aboriginal' Bushmen of the Kalahari region, Hottentots of the south-west, and Pygmies of the Congo forests. . . . Secondly, there are the so-called 'true Negroes' of West Africa. Thirdly, there are the so-called 'Bantu Negroes' who occupy most of Africa south of the equator. But 'Bantu' is not really a race term but a language term, and the phrase 'Bantu Negroes' is therefore an unscientific one. Fourthly, there are the diverse 'Hamitic Negroes' of north-eastern and east-central Africa. The Hamites have mixed with the Negroes but are themselves not Negroes at all; the pre-Dynastic Egyptians were Hamites, as are many of the Saharan nomads and the Berbers of the Barbary coast. Therefore, fifthly, there are the non-Negroid inhabitants of North Africa, including Hamites and Arabs. The above passage was copied from Chapter One, written by Sir Mortimer Wheeler on page five of "The Dawn of African History", by Roland Oliver, in the 2nd edition, 1968. Newer editions of this book are less "scientifically correct" in order to be more "politically correct", in my opinion.
I categorize the five races still indigenous to Africa as:
"Berber-speakers were the original inhabitants of North Africa, though many regions succumbed to colonization by the Roman Republic and Empire and later (from the 7th century ) to conquest by the Arabs." Source: Britannica Concise Encyclopedia
"... populations ancestral to the Berbers have been in the area since the Upper Paleolithic era." Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Berber_people
"Man's presence on Moroccan soil dates back over a million years to the lower paleolithic era and his progress can be followed down through succeeding ages. Much later, rock carving found in the High Atlas and the Sahara, copper and bronze artefacts show that he went through several important evolutionary stages. In this same period the Libyco-Berbers appeared as the first populations of North Africa.
"Morocco moved into the historical period by making contacts with more civilized peoples. Archaeological excavations in Larache and Essaouira indicate that the first of these contacts was with the Phoenicians, who were replaced soon afterwards by the Carthaginians who, according to the Periplus of Hannon, carried out a careful exploration of Morocco's Atlantic coast and founded several trading posts there. In any case archaeologists have found numerous traces of their presence." The above two paragraphs are quotes from the Moroccan Sahara (a web site formerly at www.magi.com/~morocco/saharah.html) .
Last time I was there, 90% of about one million Mauretanians were aboriginal "Whites". The Negro 10% lived in the south, in the Senegal river valley and governed Mauretania, since they were the only Christians in this ex-colony of France. These demographics have changed since the recent Mauretanian race-war (not reported because the owners of the mass broadcast monopolies did not want Americans to know about it?).
According to Collier's Encyclopedia, 1982, traditionally, "Berber society is EGUALITARIAN, with authority vested in local assemblies of adult males." (as it was in ancient Canaan? See Joshua 9.11).
THE ARYAN HOLOCAUST
Holocaust: Great destruction resulting in the extensive loss of life, especially by fire.
According to Joshua 4.13-19 Hebrews began the holocaust of Canaan four days before "Passover" (before their victims could harvest their crops).
What was the population of these Aryan clan/nations before being devoured (Deuteronomy 7.16) by Hebrews? How many millions of civilized, democratically governed, and peaceful (Joshua 9.11) Aryan farmers and their wives and children did Hebrews exterminate (Joshua 11.14), in order to rob (Joshua 24.13 Aryans of their farmlands and homes, etc. in the name of their "great and terrible" god?
In Deuteronomy 7, the Hebrews asked Moses about the nations of Canaan: "these nations outnumber us, how can we drive them out?", and Numbers 26.51 says that just before this Hebrew genocide of the Hittite and other Aryan nations of Canaan there were 601,730 Hebrew men over 20 years old fit for military service. Does the Bible usually list Hittites first because they were the largest Canaanite nation?
The Bible also refers to the eleven (Aryan?) nations of Canaan (Hittites [Kelts?], Amorites [giant Rephaim = Germans?] etc., Egyptians and other Hamites) as "GENTILES" (an Aryan word which may have meant people of only ONE race or nation (Hamites) before it came to mean ALL non-Jews, like the Hebrew word "goy".
Egyptians (peasant caste?), Berbers, Somalis, Nubian Cushites, etc. are sub-groups of the Hamitic race which survive in Africa.
SKIN COLOR
Nubians ruled Egypt 712-670 BC. Rarely are people depicted as black skinned on the walls of the ancient tombs of Egypt, etc. Those that are were probably Nubians. Nubians are BLACK AFRICAN HAMITES (NOT Negroes - see "Ethiopia" N p232) and have psychic and facial features, etc. like Europeans. Do the dark skinned Aryans of Iran or India, etc. have Negroid psychic and facial features? So why call the Aryan race "White"? And why stigmatize and discard the earlier, internationally accepted, more precise word "Negro" (the "N-word?), Negre (French), Nigger (the Latin of educated Confederates), etc., and use instead of Niger-based words (Nigeria, Niger, etc.) misleading, confusing and scientifically useless metonyms like "black", "African", "people of color", "colored", etc. which are quite recent and inferior in fitness of expression? Might those who promote the use of such euphemisms be condescendingly implying that the Negro race is unpleasant and offensive, or trying to disassociate mulattos from their reputation and history?
What color was the skin of the first homosapiens? The same color as the skin of most animals protected by thick hair, fur, feathers, etc.? Have you ever seen a black-skinned chicken, cat, dog, sheep, monkey, etc.? Why would unexposed skin need color? The polar bear has black skin under its white fur (to soak up heat, I guess) but would heat absorption be advantageous in the almost treeless Sahara region? Is colored skin the result of harmful sunlight or the need for camouflage?
Are Pygmies, Negroes, Hamitic Nubians, etc. black-skinned due to evolution in dark forests, and other Hamites fair because of evolution in the savanna and sandy environments of the Sahel? Few animals lack adaptive coloration. Forest panthers are black; savanna lions are blond like Aryans. Aryan soldiers blacken their faces in dark forests, and Negro troops lighten theirs in deserts. Before Europeans discovered them, Canary Islanders were Neolithic (farmers), blue-eyed, blond and spoke Guanche, considered to be a Berber language. Like Berbers, "Lybians (Hamites) are pictured upon the tombs of Beni Hassan as tall and beautiful, with light complexion, blue eyes, and blond hair." (N p234).
All homo sapiens originated in Africa, but today's "experts", without any evidence whatsoever, postulate that Aryans "originated" in Central Europe or the steppes of Asia! Has the Negro so tainted Africa?
Mostly on foot, some in ox-carts, Aryans fled their catastrophically beleaguered Fertile Crescent homelands (Atlantis?) to new farmlands in Europe and Asia, etc. across the steppes of central Eurasia, much of it through inhospitable deserts, etc. Did they spread out as they walked, a bagpipe bellowing to minimize members getting lost as they searched for food (lizards, grasshoppers, plants, etc.)?
After Aryan farmers had reached verdant lands suitable for cultivation, built a log shelter and planted a crop ready to harvest, how long before Semitic or Mongoloid herdsmen (like Genghis Khan and Attila the Hun) rode up, set on robbing and burning their farms, raping and murdering their families, and capturing slaves? "Slav" comes from the word slave, a trade in which Jews prospered for millennia. Common era travelling Jewish slavers reported Slavs (Russians etc.) "spoke the language of Canaan". Would Aryans who escaped the melee continue traveling away from these predatory savages until they found deep forests, such as existed in Western and Southern Europe (where there was no grass for the herds of nomads)?
I believe that the ancestors of Berbers and other Hamitic ethnic nations indigenous to North Africa have lived in the savannas and desert regions of northern Africa since they left the forests of Central Africa c150,000 YA and thereby separated themselves from the ancestors of Negroes and Pygmies, etc. Would the ancestors of the proud, hardy and relatively indomitable Berbers leave verdant Eurasia for the less hospitable Sahara, and be able to displace inveterate populations which had not lost the skills and knowledge of water sources, etc. needed to survive there?
Ancient Egyptian (and its descendant Coptic), Berber, Cushitic (Somalia), Omotic, Beja, Chadic, Hausa of Niger (some Negro nations have been governed by Hamites and adopted Hamitic language), etc. are related Hamitic languages of Africa. My theory is that Indo-European languages have been separated from Hamitic Berber, etc. c20 KY, and c40 KY from pure Semitic and other non-Hamitic Eurasian languages of the "White" race (Caucasian, Basque. Hungarian, Finnish, the pre-Aryan languages of the southern Europeans, etc). Some linguists join Hamitic and Semitic languages into "Afro-Asiatic", which is joined to Indo-European in "Nostratic".
Hadza is spoken by a few hundred hunter gatherers in the Lake Eyasi basin of northern Tanzania and is related to both Cushitic and Khoisan. Capsian burials, stone tools and use of pottery also link the Hamites of Canaan with Hamites as far south as Kenya.
The Torah (Moses' 5 books) says Yaohu created the Universe c3929 BC and that all races except Semites, descendants of Japheth (non-Semitic Cro-Magnons?) and Hamites died in a 40 day rain that submerged Earth (Everest?) 2272 BC but honest scientists say that after a billion years of Earth's accretion life EVOLVED from microbes into fish, amphibians, reptiles and mammals (whether we like or not, we may all be kin) by 200 MYA, when all the continents were one land mass. Large dinosaurs died off 65 MYA, and primates emerged 15 MY later.
Science News 6-29-91, p405 reported that a jaw found in Namibia, estimated to be 10 to 15 MY old, may represent one of the last ancestral species common to modern African apes (chimpanzees) and hominids (which includes humans); did this species live and feed mostly in trees? Namibia changed from humid forest to today's desert c6.5 MYA. Man's upright walking ancestors' (Australopithecus afarensis) footprints were found in volcanic ash near Olduvai c3.5 MYA, and used tools c2 MYA and fire c500 KYA.
DNA may indicate Aryans split:
According to DNA tests of a Neanderthal skeleton in 1997, 500.000 to 800.000 years is the genetict distance between modern humans and Neanderthals.
Did Homosapiens first divide into separate populations when the evolution of human intelligence or vocal anatomy made spoken language possible for enough of the population? Were only humans capable of verbal speech good enough hunters to leave the equatorial forest to compete for food with more specialized predators in surrounding grasslands?
Bushmen's ancestors hunted in East and South Africa, Hottentot ancestors in southwest Africa and the Saharan ancestors of non-African races hunted the north African grassland, which becomes a barren desert during colder phases of Ice Ages, but has a northern escape hatch (the Sinai Peninsula).
Did those who lived deeper in the forest, or who were intellectually or anatomically incapable of verbal speech, become the ancestors of Pygmies and Negroes? Many of the most intelligent people may be Negroes, but statistics and studies say the average Negro (mulatto?) IQ is about 85% of the average American's, and even less that of Hebrews and Asians. (Hebrews and Asians, but not Aryans, were considered separately from "Whites". Not all "Whites" are Aryans, so the average intelligence of Aryans may be more or less than either Hebrew's or Asian's). See page 279 of "The Bell Curve" by Murray and "Rabbi" Herrnstein.
In his "Atlas of African History", Colin McEvedy said the most important happening in African history was probably the outpouring of Negro tribes across the center of the continent from their original eastern limit in the Cameroon Mountains through the Zaire Basin [Congo] to the headwaters of the White Nile, opening up equatorial Africa into E. Africa c2 KYA (after Hamites taught Negroes to farm and make iron). Centuries later Negroes pushed back Pygmies, yellow-skinned Bushmen and Hottentots (still openly enslaved and viewed as sub-human by Negroes), who were no match for iron-weapon armed Negro conquistadors of the southern half of Africa. Bantu continued south until they met the Boers in the 19th century..
Aryans do not look like Semites. Abraham and other Hyksos were shorter, hairier, darker skinned than Aryans
Was the need for camouflage why Hamites evolved blond hair and beards? And why they retained the fair skin that was covered by thick dark body hair before humanity became almost hairless due to heat and lice, etc. during the warm epoch before the last Ice Age? The Sahel and much of the Sahara have been grassland or desert, where dark skin would be poor camouflage.
Are the legs of Aryan males longer because being taller helped them view their hunting territory and travel long distances? (Homo sapiens leg length has gradually increased over the course of its evolution from tree dwelling chimpanzee-like primates).
Did Aryans evolve to be tall, slender, and fair to dissipate the heat of north Africa, and the Mediterranean race more dark, short, stocky (like Neanderthals) and hairy for warmth in the forests of glaciated Europe for about 30,000 years? Do the fair skins of Aryans help keep them cool by reflecting heat? Are Aryans the only race that shows blood in its face (when over-heated, angry or blushing) because this helped their ancestors dissipate the heat of the Sahara?
Aryans who try to buy off the shelf clothing in southern France discover that the legs of pants with their size waist are far too short; pants with their leg length have waists twice as big as theirs; shoes that are long enough for their feet are too wide, etc.) because Europe has been occupied by at least TWO DISTINCT "WHITE" RACES: 1) pre-Aryans, mostly Mediterranean peoples, and 2) Aryans, mostly in areas racially cleansed by the last Ice Age.
Why do most Aryans and other "White" races have larger ears than most Negroes (and gorillas)? Are larger ears advantageous in open grasslands and deserts, where sound is less muffled by thick vegetation that might snag projecting ears or long hair?
Desert animals often evolve specialized noses to humidify air, etc. Compare the narrow, high-bridged noses of Semites and Aryans whom I believe have dwelt in arid lands for about 100 KY, with the large wide nostrils and broad flat noses of most Negroes and apes who evolved in humid forests.
Do Eskimos and other Mongoloids of northern Asia whose ancestors left the dry Sahara about 70 KYA have flatter faces and noses and rounder foreheads because they have evolved in colder climates? If Aryans evolved in the cold steppes of Ice Age Russia and Europe as long as most current authorities claim, why are Aryan noses not flat like Eskimos'?
Were at least 40,000 years of independent evolution required to create Europe's pre-Christian racial and linguistic diversity?
Although Mongoloids displaced the Australoids from the forests where Australoids evolved their darker colored skins, they evolved in North Africa and the less forested areas of Australia long enough to have bridged noses (S-349); some have blondish hair.
Did blond looks evolve as camouflage in grass and yellowish sand rather than in snow, and did later slective breeding for aesthetic reasons increase its frequency? Did longer limbs evolve because of the need to dissipate heat, travel longer distances, and hunt large game in the grasslands of the Sahel?
Are Aryans spiritually more self sacrificing, compassionate, obedient, respectful and law abiding, and do they more often have fairer skin, blond hair, blue eyes, taller stature etc. because their civilized Canaanite clan/nations selectively bred and domesticated themselves for thousands of years within territories which were confined and isolated by the arid areas that surround the Fertile Crescent?
Were nations of giant German Aryans (Rephaim, Anakim, Zamzummim, the kingdoms of Og and Bashan, etc.?) bred for aesthetics and farm work (from 18 KYA to 4 KYA farmers had no horses) more than most Aryan nations? Numbers 13.33 says Hebrews felt no bigger than grasshoppers amongst them (I felt similar amongst the gorgeous pure blond, blue eyed and clear skinned giant German men and women who are so common in the vicinity of Hamburg and Bremen). Since the crime rates of mostly Aryan homelands are so relatively low, were all Aryan nations bred for the kind of character required for civilized communities to survive? .
Domestication often decreases a breed's intelligence; did c16 KY of civilization lower average Aryan IQ (ability to solve problems and compete?), and in what ways? Does civilization depend more on respect of private property, etc. rights than intellectual genius? And does this quality make Aryans less competitive in some racially heterogeneous social environments?
"Evolutionary psychologists say our "moral sentiments" do, as Darwin speculates, have an innate basis. Such impulses as compassion, empathy, generosity, gratitude and remorse are genetically based. Strange as it may sound, these impulses, with their checks on raw selfishness, helped our ancestors survive and pass their genes to future generations." Quote from an article by Robert Wright in the October 28, 1996 edition of "Time" Magazine. Do genes affect the behavior, the feelings, the spiritual and physical nature of individuals? Is it genes or environment (religion, poverty, etc.) that cause one individual or race to have a higher crime rate than another?
In order to make animals less dangerous and more useful to man, man has altered their genes by breeding them. Did agriculture alone make it possible for large numbers of people to live in close quarters in permanent settlements? Was it also necessary for these settlements to genetically alter the savage natures of their human populations?
Since civilization has not genetically affected (domesticated) all North African Hamitic nations, have some Hamites retained the savage instincts required to survive in increasingly racially mixed societies?
What would a comparison of the genes of Aryans, who have been civilized for over ten millennia, with the genes of Berbers, some of whom have been fairly unaffected by civilization, reveal about the genetic effects of civilization?
When the Sahara became too arid to support an existing human population, would the clan send out scouts to select a route for the families who wanted to emigrate? Would the clan congregate to bid tearful farewells as it divided itself? Did the emigrants travel in large groups, like pioneers in wagon trains (who could survive without his own kind)? Since the luxuriant forests to the south were already inhabited by murderous Negroes, would refugees travel north to search for safer unoccupied lands?
DNA studies estimate how long ago non-African races separated from Aryans: 20 to 30 KY increments are about average and may coincide with rainfall cycles in the Sahara affected by 19 to 26 KY cycles of Earth's orbit (which affects climate by varying the date at which Earth is closest to the sun), the 41 KY drift of Earth's axis, ice ages, etc. Would population resurge during the Sahara's rainy cycles?
"the 23,000 year cycle, driven by the wobbling or precession of Earth's axis, redistributes sunlight so as to alternatively intensify summer heat in the Northern and Southern hemispheres;" See October 25, 1996 edition of "Science", page 499, about Milankovitch and other cycles affecting the earth's climate.
"Precession is the slow wobble of the earth through 360º over a period of 25,920 years and ancient astrologers broke this down into 12 periods of 2,160 years or 30º" See http://www.crichtonmiller.com/the_serpent_of_wisdom.htm
If the common ancestors of Negroes and other races lived in the equatorial African forest 150 KYA, how did people get where they were five centuries ago?
By 100 KYA (before the last Ice Age), had the ancestors of Australoids emigrated from the Sahara into Eurasia? Humans arrived in Australia between 116,000 and 176,000 years ago according to the September 29th edition of "Science News" at www.sciencenews.org . Did Mongoloids who left the Sahara about 70 KYA (when the last Ice Age caused the temperature to drop between 5 and 8 degrees F) drive Australoids into a corner of Asia?
European Neaderthals became extinct about 10,000 years after the arrival of Cro-Magnons. Had earlier homo sapiens sapiens migrations not settled Europe because Neanderthals lived there? Neanderthals were shorter than Aryans, stocky, possibly slower and speechless (our vocal anatomy, possibly the result of a genetic "defect" which allows us to choke on food, may never have developed in Neanderthals). I estimate that human speech first developed c150 KYA, tens of millennia before humans became relatively hairless because of a very warm and humid phase in the climate of the Saharan region before the last Ice Age.
In warmer climates, would the survival advantages of hair, such as warmth, camouflage, lubricating places where skin might stick together, protection from solar radiation and abrasion, etc. be less than those of relatively hairless skin, because of parasites such as lice, which might spread typhoid and other diseases?
Did the ancestors of non-Hamitic Eurasian Whites (Cro-Magnons?) emigrate c38+ KYA from the hyperarid Sahara into the Middle East and Europe, where they exterminated (interbred with?) Neanderthals (many Neanderthals died of battered skulls - evidence of Europe's first genocidal HOLOCAUST and "War Crimes")?
Did glacial expansion compress into southern Europe and S. W. Asia the non-Hamitic Eurasian White race, which Genesis 10 and the McMillan Bible Atlas (1968) p21 divides into: 1) Shem’s descendants (Semites) and 2) Japheth ’s descendants (southern Europeans, Basques, Caucasians, etc.?). Genesis 10.5 says Japheth's were peoples of the coasts and islands. Were Javan's (Japheth’s son) pre-Aryan Greeks?
The last Ice age lasted about 100 KY but was interrupted by warmer "Interstadial" Phases. The "Atlas of Paleoclimates and Paleoenvironnments of N. Hemisphere"(1992), p92 says: "Generally warmer climates of the past were accompanied by increased humidity over most of the present semiarid or arid regions." p95 says "between 35 and 25 KYA, the tropical and subtropical regions experienced a remarkable increase in water supply compared with present-day conditions..this increased moisture supply can be explained by relatively high evaporation rates from the neighboring ocean surfaces."
Did humans lose the thick body hair which covered skin as white as any dog's, cat's or chickens' during the last "Interglacial", a warm period which lasted from 125 KYA to 115 KYA?
From 35 to 25 KYA did "Saharans" not driven out by the previous arid millennia repopulate parts of the Sahara abandoned by ancestors of the Cro-Magnon (non-Hamitic Eurasian Whites) race when aridity peaked during the 50 KYA to 38 KYA glacier expansion?
Did Hamite ancestors of Aryans leave the Sahara for Canaan, etc. before aridity peaked 18 KYA?
From quotes above, could one infer that from the Last "Interglacial" to the coldest part of the Last Ice age (c. 18 KYA, when Hamites left the Sahel and occupied Canaan) the overall trend was for the Sahara to become increasingly more arid and inhospitable for people?
Did the ancestors of the races which left the Sahara earlier than the ancestors of Aryans have an easier trek out of the Sahara and Africa, and not need to travel along the Nile valley? Were the ancestors of Hamites (Hamites still occupy the Sahara) able to survive in the South Sahara Sahel longer than Saharans that left Africa earlier because the northern Sahara was drier?
Did the hyperarid period from 20 KYA to 12 KYA drive arrow-shooting Hamites of Capsian culture from the Sahel corridor of the South Sahara into the Nile valley and across the vast Sahara desert via the Nile to Canaan? Was Canaan un-inhabited because the cattle of Semites would starve in a forest?
Was the Kebaron culture in Canaan Hamitic? Wild barley and wheat grains harvested an estimated 19 KYA were found on the shores of Lake Galilee.
Canaanites of the "Natufian" culture, probably women and children (men hunted) were cultivating grains by 11 KYA. Thereafter farmers could build homes and multiply faster than savages, which could explain why Aryan farmers populated northern Europe instead of uncivilized Mediterranean peoples. Why have Hebrews and Arabs had little proclivity for farming, if Semites were the first farmers, as some "experts" maintain?
In the March, 1996 issue of National Geographic there is an article on XINJIANG, a mostly Aryan province on China, with excellent photographs of 4 KY old lifelike ARYAN mummies with beautiful Aryan religious symbols (the swastika, sun-ray symbol, etc.), fabrics (similar to German's), agricultural tools, etc.
Did other Hamites looking for better unoccupied territory skirt the densely occupied agricultural areas of Mongoloid China and continue across north-eastern Asia, possibly as far as America? Is it more likely that the 9,000 year old "Caucasoid" skeleton recently found on the West Coast of the USA was that of a descendant of these Hamites? The Hamites who left Africa c20 KYA in search of a more humid homeland could not settle in suitable territories already claimed by other races, so some might have continued travelling across northern Asia until they reached North America.
The US government seized this 9,000 year old (Hamitic?) skelton from the scientists who were studying it, and until recently refused to give it back to the scientific community which is clamoring to study it. Does the US government not want the "white" race to know about its presence in America 9 KYA?
From c. 26 to c. 10 KYA dry land replaced water in the Bering Strait: did less rainfall or overpopulation in arid areas of Asia cause big-game hunting Mongoloid Indians to emigrate into America in large enough numbers by 9 KYA to push Hamitic AmerIndians into south-east USA (Catawba and Cherokee, etc. Indians look more Dravidian)? Are Hamites closer kin to (mixed with?) AmerIndians than to other Mongoloids? Were the ancestors of Dravidians (separated from Aryan's ancestors about 20 KY, S-103) Hamites who settled India? Did any Neanderthals postpone extinction by fleeing to America c. 26 KYA?
About 18 KYA the British Isles, most of France, northern Europe and much of Asia were covered with ice or permafrost, which pushed most of the pre-Aryan European race south into areas which it occupies today. By 9 KYA had unpredictable raids by Hyksos (Jericho was fortified over 8 KYA), droughts and starvation, etc. caused Canaanite farmers to start emigrating into areas of northern Europe and Asia opened up by glacial meltoff?
Are megalithic monuments in Ireland, Brittany, England, etc. erected from 7 to 3 KYA clues which link Aryans to beautiful stone towns of the Near East? Since farmers can expand their populations quicker than hunter-gatherers, did the miscegenation that eventually helped collapse or impede Aryan civilizations in south Europe and India, etc. affect northern Europe less? Were Arctic Lapps, etc. too few (and isolated by following their reindeer herds) to contribute much genetically to Aryan farmers in northern Europe?
About 9 KYA the Earth's perihelion was in the northern summertime; heavier monsoons spread into northern Africa, and the Sahara turned green (the "Pluvial"), so Canaanites started growing grains (rivers were not needed) in Egypt and Anatolia. Colin McEvedy's "Atlas of African History" p22 says agricultural techniques were transferred from the Jordan valley to the Nile valley c. 7 KYA. Did farming spread into Egypt because Hamitic farmers from Canaan colonized Egypt (the currently "accepted" proposition is that Hamites already in Egypt adopted farming from Semite herdsmen!) Irrigation resulted and allowed colonization of the Tigres-Euphrates (8 KYA) and Anatolia.
I think the caption of the above image reads "Indara spouting Water for benefit of mankind and their cattle and crops. From Hitt?-Sumerian Seal (enlarged 2 diameters). Fig. 2 (After Ward)".
In the image above, is water shown flowing from the right hand of the inventor of irrigation? Does the square above his left hand represent a mud-brick, or a cistern in which to store water during the dry season? Is a triangular water bucket made of leather with a long wooden handle for lifting water from rivers and irrigation canals into the fields shown in the middle? The Sun in the sky above these Sumerian Hamites is represented by a cross. Did the ancient Hebrews despise that Aryan symbol of the sun as much as they detest the Aryan swastika today? The Sun symbolized the Aryan God of Life, which is referred to as "Baal" or "Bel", etc. in the Bible. Why have Hebrew scriptures vilified the civilized Aryan religion? Must the Aryan religion be destroyed and Aryans be compelled to worship a Jew?
Anatolian Aryans (HITTITES) made copper and lead 8 KYA. Did the Hittites of Anatolia help their Hittite kinsmen from Canaan and other Aryan farmers who fled genocidal Semites, such as those described in the book of Joshua (eg. Joshua 24.11-13), etc. recover enough to survive their treks across the vast and unknown steppes and deserts of Eurasia into verdant northern India and northern Europe (depopulated by the last Ice Age)?
Aryan civilization reached the Indus valley (Eden?) 8 KYA (S-218), and Britain (tin mines). Scandinavia had become warm enough for farming 5 KYA. Mesopotamians invented writing c. 5.3 KYA and Phoenicians passed it on to Europe.
By 1000 BC Phoenician Hamites (Tyre, Sidon, etc.) had sea power, ports and colonies like Carthage around the Mediterranean and had sailed past Gibralter (and around Africa?), S-217.
See two articles in the July, 1996 issue of "Archaeology" magazine which describe archeological sites of the Natufians and Canaanites now being wantonly destroyed by the rebuilders of the city of Beirut, Lebanon.
Abraham and other Hyksos herdsmen began the conquest of the farmers of ancient Egypt about 4,000 years ago. For the next few centuries Semites treated their enslaved Hamitic peasants like worthless cattle. Many Hamties fled from their genocidal bondage. Is this why Aryan tribes known as Ionians or Aeolians (Achaeans) began to migrate into Greece between 3850 and 3600 years ago?
Did the first (so purest and greatest?) civilized people just disappear, or did the ancestors of Aryans bounce back after utter devastation, as the Germans and Japanese have? Did the Hittites of Anatolia shelter these Holocaust survivors until they could regroup according to their various tribes and languagues, and continue their migration into Europe and Asia? Did Aryan nations which fled Moses' "men of war" (and many previous millennia of Semite attacks) re-establish farms and civilizations in Europe and Asia?
Egyptian Hamites are said to have overthrown their Semite rulers about 3250 years ago, who fled into ancient Canaan. How savagely Hebrews and other tribes of Semites treated the Canaanites is recorded in the Bible.
Although Semites had enlaved the Hamitic populations of Mesopotamia and ancient Egypt instead of commit outright genocide, did Moses order that Hebrews kill every Hamite that breathed, in order to eliminate the threat of another rebellion? During the 250 years that followed, the Delian tribe of Aryans migrated into Greece, and the Illyrians advanced to the Mediterranean Sea. Aryan Greeks settled in Epirus, Aetolia, and Acarnania,. Aeboian Aryans migrated to the Peloponnesus and to Crete and southwestern Asia Minor by sea.
The Hellenic peoples known as "Sea People" or Philistines, (after whom Palestine is named) interrupted the Hebrew holocaust by returning to Canaan c. 1168 BC from the Aegean (Crete) and Asia Minor. As long as hated Philistines (their name is still held in contempt) kept secret how to smelt iron, Hebrews could not exterminate them. Jerusalem held out until c. 1000 BC. The strongly fortified cities on the coastal plain also surivived for centuries. By 1000 BC Kelts had occupied and introduced iron from the Black Sea along the Danube to the Atlantic (S-260).
Once completed the Hebrew conquest divided civilization in half, and enabled Hebrews to tax trade between Egypt and Mesopotamia, etc.
Fighting for the spoils amongst themselves led to the disintegration of the "Hebrew" empire. Egyptians and other Aryan nations soon whisked the Hebrew state out of the way. Israelites began to establish synagogues and other communal institution and use them to colonize and function autonomously within the homelands of other nations.
In order to enrich and make themselves more acceptable to other races, have Jews disguised themselves as a religious instead of a racist community and spread universalistic forms of Jew-worship (mostly via terror)? Because Aryans, American Indians and other nations throughout the world swallowed the lies of the Self-Chosen hook, line and sinker (that Judaism is the religious foundation of Aryan civilization, etc.), have Jews benn able to re-organized the societies of other nations with new political and social institutions (like "communism" and other forms of Christianity)? Have the Muslim and Christian religions made it possible for Jews to overthrow traditional forms of government and thereby dominate and enslave indigenous populations? What factor has motivated Aryans to change themselves and act more decisively than the force of their fantasy-based religious beliefs?
Is the ultimate goal of the tribe that enslaved the domesticated Aryan farmers (golem hicks) of ancient Ur to conquer all of mankind via an amalgamated borderless world tyrannically ruled by a Jewish "Mesiah(s)" under the guise of a multi-cultural "Western" civilization? What hutxpah! Must Judaism now reorganize its teaching of world history to incorporate its worldwide perspective according to its own judgement and evaluations, without of course, falling into the trap of making all historical events equal so as to give equal weight to all peoples?
Did Aryan civilizations in south Europe (ancient Greece, Rome, etc.) eventually collapse due to miscegenation because Aryans did not exterminate pre-Aryan Europeans as Mediterraneans had Neanderthals (S-210)?
Could Hamite farmers fleeing Canaan long survive dispersed in cold and arid Asian steppes with Semitic and Mongoloid herdsmen roaming about?
The March 1995 edition of Archaeology reported red-haired Tocharians of Chinese Turkestan who resemble Germans and Kelts were the easternmost branch of the Aryan language and race (exterminated by Mongoloids?); 110 European corpses with blond hair and long noses buried between 2.4 KYA and 4 KYA were found. Did mass flight help preserve intact various Indo-Hittite nations?
ARYAN LANGUAGES
Anglo-Saxon and Celtic belong to the Indo-Hittite (Aryan) branch of the HAMITIC languages and were spoken by the civilized Aryan farmers who began to settle northern Europe after the last Ice Age.
Northern Europeans speak Germanic instead of Aramaic or Hebrew, so how have Christian priests convinced so many blond, blue eyed Christianized descendants of Aryan farmers that their ancestors were the "Lost Tribes of Israel"? Semite herdsmen also conquered and converted to Islam the Aryans of Asia.
Does the English language reveal anything about the religion of our Aryan ancestors?
Some of our months are:
Linguistic paleontologists search Indo-European languages for clues about the ancestors of Aryans. Canaan was a land "flowing with milk and honey" (Exodus 3.8). Cuneiform Hittite, Gothic, Old Irish, Latin and Greek all have similar words for honey. English, Old Irish, Latin, Greek, Old Slavonic, Armenian, Umbrian, Lettish, Avestan, Vedic (India) and Tocharian all have similar words for cows. Our common Aryan ancestors were farmers who had stone and metal tools and dogs, ducks, geese, goats, pigs and later horses, plowed with ox, and grew grains like barley, wheat, oats, etc. (which grew wild in Canaan). English, German, Latin, Greek, Lithuanian, Russian, and Vedic have similar words for winter and snow, which still falls on Canaan (less since glaciers melted?). Words for fish, animals, crops or trees that could not be grown or carried to distant farmlands in the colder north either became extinct through disuse or took on new meanings.
Latin, Celtic, Iranian and Indic political and religious words reveal that Aryan's ancestors had priests (Druides, etc.) which transmitted sacred lore verbally, and monarchical and aristocratic social classes, like those of Ancient Canaan, Egypt, etc. (Somalis and Scots have clan chieftains).
Authoritarian government can be democratic: Unger's Bible Dictionary p493 writes that Hamitic Hivite elders did not command, but reasoned and communed with citizens, who had considerable voice; Hivites were not vindictive or warlike but warmhearted, impulsive, overly-trusting (Aryan and Hamite-like qualities?) and diplomatic businessmen. According to Collier's encyclopedia, 1982, Traditionally, "Berber (Hamites who have never left north Africa) society is EGUALITARIAN, with authority vested in local assemblies of adult males."
The Cambridge Ancient History, Vol I, Part 1, p128 says "..Aryans in SYRIA and PALESTINE during the Late Bronze Age. Indo-Aryan personal names, reflecting a language closely akin to Vedic Sanskrit, show up in 15th century BC documents from Alalakh IV and are attested in the south for approximately the same period in the Tanach Letters. The continued presence of these Indo-Europeans is well documented in the Amarna Letters of the 14th century BC."
Unger says some Amarna letters from the governor of Jerusalem (not conquered by Hebrews until c. 1000 BC) to Pharaoh Akhnaton ask "for Egyptian troops to stem off these invaders..likely the actual invading armies (Habiru) under Joshua."
Jews claim they took 40 years to holycaust Canaanites. Some say that holocaust began in 1440 BC and some say c. 1200 BC. I suspect that the genocide lasted for centuries.
Unger p143 says evidence for Indo-Aryans in the Near East comes not only from Hittite texts but also from Amarna, Nuzi and Alalakh tablets, and from Middle-Assyrian inscriptions-as well as from miscellaneous sources; these Aryans worshipped specifically Vedic Gods, as has been proven conclusively by Paul Thieme, and they employed specifically Indic forms of numerals (for instance, 'one' [German 'ein'] is written aika, like Sanskrit eka, and not eva, like Iranian aiva).
Did the differentiation of Aryan languages begin 16 KYA? See S-103. Despite Semite attacks, did c. 14 KY of respectful coexistence between Hamite clans of Canaan provide the stability required to evolve separate languages and national identities before the ancestors of Aryans were driven out of Canaan? If so, some Indo-European languages are not descended from Hittite, but from a common ancestral Proto-Hittite language.
Under "Ham", Unger's Bible Dictionary (1957) implies the Tanach depicts Hamite's ancestors as evil hunters, not herdsmen, "and are presented in Genesis 10.8-10 as developing earthly imperial power (an undivided race/civilization?) in their first appearance in human history" "Cush (Nubia), Mizraim (Egypt), and Phut (Somalia) were the progenitors of the tribes that peopled (north) Africa, and Canaan became the father of those that principally occupied Phoenicia and Palestine." (Parenthetics are mine). Were Cush, Mizraim, Phut and Canaan Hamitic clan names?
Under "Accad" Unger says "The inhabitants of this region were originally non-Semitic Sumerians, who racially must have been of Hamitic origin, according to Genesis 10.8-10 and who were the inventors of cuneiform writing and the cultural precursors of their later conquerors the Babylonian Semites."
Could the near-extinction of Hamitic spoken languages in Canaan by Semites (except for many Indo-Hittite place names in Canaan, etc.), and use of a Semitic WRITTEN language (writing came from pre-Semite-conquered Sumer) by Canaanites have led some linguists to mistake ancient Canaanites and Phoenicians for Semites, not Aryans?
Were Aryans (and Sumerians) who could not flee Semitic conquest of "the Promised Land" exterminated, enslaved and too endangered to speak Hamitic? See (2 Chronicles 8.7-9 and 1 Kings 9.20-22. The New English Bible translation is more telling.
After Semites had conquered civilization in the Fertile Crescent, was Semitic (later Latin, Greek, etc.) its official lingua franca, even between bilingual speakers of divergent Aryan languages? Can Canaanites, Amorites, Sumerians, etc. be biologically classified as Semitic based on language under such circumstances? Can southern Europeans and Aryans be considered the same race simply because they speak Aryan languages?
Unger's explanation of why Phoenicians are considered Semitic by anthropologists and ethnologists is that Phoenicians "must have succumbed to the pressure of racial and linguistic intermixture with Semites with the loss of their own ethnic predominance" because Canaan "was like a bridge between Egypt and great Semitic empires".
Wilmot Robertson's "Dispossessed Majority" says Hebrews are disproportionately represented in certain academic disciplines, educational etc. institutions and own most of the media.
I obtained the image below from L.A. Waddell's poorly edited "Phoenician Origin of Britons-Scots" (available from "Truth at Last", POB 1211, Marietta GA, 30061). He wrote that Phoenicians were thought to be Semites due to the cultural, religious and racial bias of modern Semites, Judeo-Christians and Muslims, etc.
I think the caption on the above image reads 'Plate IV, Fig. 1 Indara (or "Andrew") slaying the Dragon. From Hittite seal of about 2000 BC (After Ward.) Note the X on the crown, and the fire-altar below the dragon, which the latter was presumably destroying'.
My interpretation of the above seal is that the Hittite is defending himself and his religion (as I have) against the attack of a savage beast. The crosses in the sky, and above the fire-altar, and on the hat of the Hittite king represent the sun, fire, and light, which (like the swastika) are symbols (not gods) of the civilized Aryan religion of Life, which has always been monotheistic. The Dragon represents the savage Hyksos herdsmen (like Abraham) who conquered the Hamitic civilization of ancient Egypt about 2000 BC. Was the "Cross of Indara" in the image above the ancestor of the "Cross of Saint Andrew" shown on the flags of Scotland, the Confederate States of America, Russia, etc.?
ARYAN RELIGION
For evidence that the ancestors of Aryans called their God Bel, see http://www.jrbooksonline.com/pob/pob_ch01.html
Most Aryans are not aware of how much of the spirit and traditions of the Aryan religion of their ancestors still exists, and that they still practice it. Click here EASTER.htm for an example.
How are our children's civilized souls and minds affected by Sunday schools that teach them that Ham's descendants were Negroes (not Aryans), and that God commanded Hebrews to enslave (see Genesis 9.25) and exterminate (see Deuteronomy 7) Hamites (and by extension, Negroes, Cherokees and any other non-Semitic nation)?
Despite the fact that the Bible itself states clearly that Canaanites were Hamites (Genesis 10.6), do so many Bible "authorities" maintain that pre-holocaust Canaanites were Semites, not Hamites, because for about 4,000 years Semites have imposed their languages (Amharic, Aramaic [includes Syriac and Chaldee], Arabic, Hebrew, etc.) on the Hamitic nations they enslaved? Racist Hebrews diligently avoided conflicts with other branches of their own Semitic race (read Deuteronomy 2).
Has the priesthood of the Semitic religions (Judaism, Christianity, Islam, etc.) censored our knowledge of our Hamitic origins in order to keep us confused about our true historical identity? Does it want us to remain ignorant of our noble Hamitic ancestors' preeminently civilized and glorious pre-Christian past? Does it want us to know that our ancestors were the Hamites who were dispossessed, driven out of their Fertile Crscent homelands, enslaved, and exterminated by Semites? Is it too late to end the "Dark Ages" of exploitation and genocide against our noble race/civilization by ruthless herdsmen?
How could the Hebrew authors of the Pentateuch have known of the existence of any race outside their own geographical range? Why have the mass broadcast and religious media proclaimed that the Egyptian Hamites accursed by the Hebrews and their god were Negroes, even though the beautifully and profusely colored wall paintings of the tombs of ancient Egypt, etc. infrequently depict black skinned individuals? Because race is sometimes confused with skin color and geography, or for a politico-religious reason or agenda?
Unless your ancestors are from southern Europe, how could they have been of the race the Bible calls JAPHETH? Aryans are not the indigenous race of southern Europe. Aryan farmers (from the Middle East) began moving into unpopulated northern Europe as the glaciers retreated and the climate warmed up enough for farming. They founded civilizations in southern Europe (Greece, Rome, etc.) much later, about the same time Hebrew and other Semitic nations were holocausting the Hittite, etc. nations of Canaan (pre-Negro "white flight"?).
During the Dark Ages, the Christian church was the repository and teacher of ALL scholarly knowledge. Might it have considered that it was contrary to the interest of the church to reveal the real racial identity of the Indo-European (HITTITE) VICTIMS of their god's "CHOSEN" people?
Since Canaanites could no longer identify themselves geographically, after Semitic herdsmen had driven them from their civilized homelands in Canaan ("Atlantis"?), would it not be natural for them to identify themselves religiously, as "Aryan"? Might the word "Aryan" come from "Aliyan", a Canaanite word for "Lord" (used when speaking of their God)?
Aryans wrote hieroglyphs in stone where Aryan civilizations existed in Ireland, Scotland (as in the above image), Anatolia, Mesopotamia, Canaan, etc.
"Determined Roman attempts to stamp out the Druids and Celtic religion in Gaul in the latter half of the first century BC, and in Britain after the Roman Conquest may have been in part due to fear of the use of that religion as a rallying point against the Romans." From "Celtic Art" by Megaw (1989).
Some of the following guesses are based on L.A. Waddell's books:
Did Aryans symbolize God by a circle or dot meaning Universal because Aryans felt all Life is ONE?
The Sun is composed of the same star-dust as all living beings. The Sun energizes Life so symbolized both God and Life. The CROSS (seen when squinting at the sun) was another symbol of Life/God.
The sun rises (birth) in the East and in the northern hemisphere moves RIGHT (to the good side) across the southern sky, which is why the arms of the swastika point clockwise. The sun's path across the sky represents all stages of life. Sunset depicts grieving and dying, and night is symbolic of death and the after life. New generations rise like the sun (the Resurrection of Life). Is this what swastikas on ancient Aryan gravestones say?
Even though swastikas have had sacred meaning for many nations (see other web sites) and so many other Aryan symbols have been incorporated into the Judeo-christian religion, is this religious icon so taboo because it was most symbolic of the Aryan faith?
Are the sun, water, etc. still religious symbols of pagan Berber Hamites of the Sahara because they remain less conquered by Semites and closer to nature, so less centered on anthropomorphic symbols (concept of a father-god, angels, etc.)?
Is the Christian trinity monotheistic (how can a god be his own son)? Might expressions of attributes of God, such as fertility, etc., have evolved into (or been misinterpreted as) polytheism or idolatry?
Does one religion fit all? Can the religions of savage aliens satisfy compassiionate Aryan souls?
Are Jahweh, Jehovah, and other non-secret versions of "Yaohu", really the call of a wolf? Did Hebrews rename "Yaohu" the Aryan name "God" to win Aryans over?
Did Yaohu worshippers counterfeit, demonize or pervert Aryan symbols, concepts and holidays like the Cross and Swastika, the Ressurection, respect for individual "rights" (civilized laws), the winter solstice celebration (Christ-mass), the tribute to the dead celebration (Samain or Halloween), the celebration of the resurrection of life (Baal time or May Day), etc. in order to facilitate the Christianization or Muslimization of Aryans?
Were Psalms and Proverbs mostly of Aryan origin, and Job the fourth Aryan king of the Hittites of Anatolia and Mesopotamia? Has Semitic religion incorporated Aryan law, poetry and history?
Aryan priests of Mesopotamia kept lists of their ancestor-kings (the Bible names some), and these have been preserved in the sacred scriptures of the Aryans of India.
Did Hyksos think the first king on that list (Adam, who reigned c. 5.4 KYA) was the first man? Is that why the Bible claims Yaohu created everything (Jews calculate Yaohu created the first man from dust and the dinosaurs, Sun, etc. c. 3928 BC.) about that time? Was Eden an Aryan colony in the Indus valley?
Aryan hieroglyphs make sense: domestic animals (geese, bulls, Unicorns, etc.) symbolized civilization, which had to be protected from Semites (wolves or snakes in hieroglyphs) by Aryan kings (government), who were represented by men with wings (origin of angel fantasy?) because the Sun-hawk, which overlooks us like the sun above, symbolized their government, as it still does today (the German, etc. eagle).
Can all Aryan religions be traced to the Fertile Crescent (Canaan, etc.) despite different names for God: Thor (Thursday), Woden (Wednesday), Zeus, Re, etc.?
Kelts celebrate fertility and rebirth (spring) at Beltine (Bel time?), when children circle phallic May poles (Exodus 23.24?); Babylonians called God "Bel" (and Canaanites "Baal"), meaning "Lord".
Rabbits symbolized fertility (Easter). Samain (which honors the dead?) has sacrilegiously become Halloween (scare time?).
Was the Tanach's account of creation taken from a 2500 BC Sumerian scripture of how Marduke, the patriarch of civilization in parts of the Fertile Crescent, created order by overthrowing darkness and watering deserts to create a paradise of farms and villages, etc., for his descendants?
Did Canaanites teach this story to Israelites? Savages were depicted as snakes or wolves, who worshipped the Moon god.
Is Aryan religion the outward manifestation of an Aryan's inborn Soul? Is Aryan religion instinctive (Romans 2.14) and immediately recognizable in fellow Aryans (only)? Is Aryan religion in many ways as incomprehensible to non-Aryans as the religion of aliens is to Aryans?
As long as Aryans remain true to their inner Aryan nature, do Aryans manifest the religion of their ancestors throughout their lives, especially from birth, before their intellects have been muddled by alien influences?
Are Aryan's ancient ancestral religions symbols, like the cross or swastika, no matter how unfashionable, profaned and villified, still deeply and instinctively meaningful (if not openly, irresistably and secretly) to Aryans, like the song of a bird who has never heard its own kind?
Might Aryans who learn the meaning of the symbols and religion of their Aryan ancestors better recognize their own spiritual nature? And if these customs have been lost would liberated Aryans not struggle to reinvent them and refine them for many millennia, as did our Aryan ancestors?
Even if the life of an Aryan who betrays his inborn soul becomes easier, less painful and more profitable by conforming to the demands of aliens, can doing so ever compensate for his subsequent inner pain and the loss of his pride and joy?
Can the hateful and grievous demonization and destruction of the Aryan religion prevent it from arising anew like the Phoenix; even after many dark centuries of oppression?
Can the real, inner religion of Aryans be destroyed only by the total miscegenation and destruction of the Aryan race?
Could a study of the religious practices of ancient Aryans help answer the above questions, and facilitate the satisfaction of Aryans' spiritual needs?
Beginning with the Semite conquest c. 4.4 KYA of Amorite (German?) Accadians, has most Hamitic civilization from Mesopotamia to Egypt until now been ruled by a Semitic minority or elite, which has herded Hamites via religion, etc. as aptly and deftly as any domesticated animal?
For Rabbi Ravages' opinion of Judeo/Christianity, click here (short and worth reading).
Is the Muslim world as far as India, North and East Africa [Somalis, Berbers, etc.] and Christendom now ruled by Arab Semites, via religion, or ownership of other mass broadcast media?
Do those who tell us that they are an especially holy people ("chosen" by God or otherwise sacred and virtuous) depend on this false impression of sanctity and godliness to turn off our critical reasoning faculties so we will easily accept the most absurd lies as true?
Is genocidal behavior that is godly for Abraham, Moses, Solomon, King David, Abraham Lincoln and Sharon wicked for a Shicklegruber (Hitler)?
Someone wrote me: "You elude to Aryans learning about and practicing the Aryan religion. Where is the detail to learn?".
On September 2, 2001 I replied: I have not had time to work on my web sites for many months, and I regret not having time to go into greater detail at this time; briefly, my opinion is that the Aryan religion is written in the Aryan soul and conscience (which is that of a relatively civilized race). A civilized race is one which is more likely to be compassionate and loving towards others, and respect the property, etc. rights of others.
From Aryan souls, an Aryan religion can be reconstructed which is similar to the one our Aryan ancestors first created.
I think the source of most of the civilized content of Christianity, Islam, and Judaism was the ancient religion of Aryan civilization. However, Aryans can find their religion more within their own souls than they can in Bibles contaminated by the savagery (eg. Deuteronomy 7) of other races.
April 9, 2007 Note: A thorough reading of the web-site at http://www.crichtonmiller.com/ might provide useful information about the pre-Christian religion of the ancestors of Aryans.
1) Mail from readers
2) My commentary on the article "The
Early History of Indo-European Languages" by Thomas V.
Gamkrelidze and V. V. IVANOV in Scientific American.
3) Later Notes
4) Federal Opposition to Science
5) Common Sense Answers
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