My wife had glasses prescribed several years ago when she was about 30 as she was having problems with headaches. Her prescription was R+.25 cyl-.25 axis40 L +.25. She wore them most of the time with photochromatic lenses.

When she went back for a test, the optometrist told her she didn't need glasses. Her script was R+.25 cyl-.25 axis 40 L +.50; she is now 40. She is now getting headaches but won't wear her glasses as she was told she didn't need them. Is her script enough to need glasses? - Peter

Cara

I wonder how recent this second Rx is. If she's getting headaches, she should definitely try the glasses to see if they help, or if she hasn't had an exam in the past year, I would do that.

At the age of 40, you start to lose your ability to accommodate up close. If she does a lot of near point work, she could need a pair of glasses just for work to alleviate the stress on her eyes, which could be the cause of these headaches.

Glasseslover

Whether an individual should 'wear their glasses' is strictly up to the individual. Whether they 'need' glasses is determined by the refractionist.

Some people can tell the difference between 1/8th of a diopter and therefore the refractionist will prescribe that low of an amount , although it is much more common to prescribe in 1/4 diopter steps.

I know many people who are prescribed minus in higher amouts than 1/4 diopter and refuse to wear glasses and many who wear them constantly for only 1/4 diopter of plus or minus.

There are also psychological implcations, some people insist on wearing glasses with a plano prescription just to have a tint and/or an anti-reflective coating because they feel it enhances their vision or they just plain feel comfortable.

Whether a low Rx person wants to wear their glasses is up to them; whether they 'need' them is strictly a measure of optics as prescribed by the doctor of other refractionist.