My wife has near (but not quite) perfect eyesight. She had a very thorough eye test last week and was told that one eye was better than the other; she also said that her vision was improved by the use of lenses. However, the optometrist said that her sight was not bad enough to require glasses. She was given no prescription, however they did type a low prescription into their computer for their records.

What is the lowest point at which you would prescribe glasses? My wife was quite keen to get some glasses both for fashion reasons and to make her vision as sharp as possible. Is there any answers she should have given to the optician in order to tip the balance in favour of providing glasses.

I was surprised as I thought the chain would be keen to sell as many frames as possible, and therefore as her vision was correctable I presumed glasses would be prescribed. - Smudgeur

Cara

Glasseslover

From a sheer technical point of view, a doctor could prescribe glasses as low as 1/8 of a diopter, either plus, minus, or cylinder, which would be written .125 diopter. Or, I have filled prescriptions for doctors at plano (no prescription at all) with anti-reflective lenses or tinted lenses for computers and/or flourescent lights.

Many times, I've filled scrips for only a quarter diopter correction, usually for myopia, written as -.25. A good friend of mine insists on that correction in clear glasses for driving at night and prescription sunglasses for driving during the day time. When the doctor asks "which is better, one or two" and it's so close that the patient can't tell the difference the doctor will usually prescribe the weaker of the two.

Frankly, it baffles me that nothing was prescribed if they wrote an Rx in the records; in the U.S., by federal law, your Rx belongs to you and the doctor must give it to you, that is, if there is indeed a prescription. And usually they will prescribe what the patient wants even if it is only for aesthetic purposes.