1.
An organization that shares devices, saves _____.
a) money
b) space
c) time
d)
Both A and C are correct answers.
2.
The computer on which you are actually working on is
referred to as the _____.
a) standalone computer
b)
local computer
c) remote computer
d) peer-to-peer computer
3. The computer that you are controlling or working on
via the network is referred to as the _____.
a) standalone computer
b) local computer
c)
remote computer
d) peer-to-peer computer
4. _____ networks are simple to configure, but are not
very flexible or secure.
a) standalone
b) remote
c)
peer-to-peer
d) local
5. A standalone computer is a Personal Computer that
_____.
a) is situated as the only computer in the room
b) is one of a kind in an organization
c)
only uses programs and data from its local disks
d) does not need to be placed on a desk
6. Networks enable multiple users to share devices and
data that, collectively, are referred to as the networks’ _____.
a) devices
b)
resources
c) data files
d) peripherals
7. The peer-to-peer network is an example of a _____.
a) metropolis area network
b) wide area network
c)
local area network
d) tiny area network
8. LAN’s involving many
_____ are usually server-based.
a) computers
b) printers
c) systems
d) applications
9) On a server-based
network, special computers, known as _____, process data for and facilitate
communications between the other computers on the network.
a) computers
b) printers
c) file servers
d) applications
10) A network that connects
two or more geographically distinct LAN’s is called a _____.
a) wide area network
b) peer-to-peer network
c) remote network
d) sneakernet
11) Most organizations use
a _____ to connect separate offices, whether the offices are across town or
across the world from each other.
a) wide area network
b) peer-to-peer network
c) local area network
d) remote network
12) The _____ is an example
of a very intricate and extensive WAN that spans the globe.
a) Network Operating System
b) Client/Server
c) file server
d) Internet
13) A computer on the
network that manages shared resources or services from another computer on a
network is called a _____.
a) workstation
b) server
c) client
d) LAN
14) A computer on the
network that requests resources or services from another computer on a network
is called _____.
a) NOS
b) server
c) client
d) LAN
15) The device that enables
a workstation to connect to the network is called a _____.
a) client
b) server
c) workstation
d) network interface card
16) A desktop computer,
which may or may not be connected to a network, is called a _____.
a) client
b) server
c) workstation
d) user
17) The software that runs
on a file server and enables the server to manage data, users, groups,
security, applications, and other networking functions is called the _____.
a) client
b) server
c) network operating system
d) network interface card
18) _____ refer to the
capability of a file server to share data files, applications and disk storage
space.
a) File services
b) Transmission media
c) Topology
d) Protocol
19) A person working on a
computer on a different geographical location from the LAN’s server is referred
to as a _____.
a) file server
b) remote user
c) peer-to-peer
d) gateway
20) A server that allows
users to dial-in services is called a _____.
a) file server
b) gateway server
c) print server
d) communications server
21) Communications servers
are also referred to as _____.
a) file servers
b) access servers
c) print servers
d) gateway servers
22) Mail services require a
significant commitment of technical support and administration resources due to
their _____.
a) instability
b) routing capabilities
c) heavy use
d) access ability
23) Distributing processing
activity evenly across a network so that no single device becomes overwhelmed,
is handled by the _____ service of the network management services.
a) traffic monitoring
b) load balancing
c) hardware diagnosis
d) asset management
24) The _____ service
determines when a network component fails.
a) traffic monitoring
b) load balancing
c) hardware diagnosis
d) asset management
25) The _____ service
collects and stores data on the number and types of software and hardware
assets in an organization’s network.
a) traffic monitoring
b) load balancing
c) hardware diagnosis
d) asset management
26) The Computing
Technology Industry Association developed and administers the _____
certification program.
a) Cisco Certified Network
Associate
b) Microsoft Certified System
Engineer
c) Certified NetWare Engineer
d) Net+
27) Networks may consist of two computers connected by a cable in a home office or several thousand computers connected across the world via a combination of cable, phone lines, and satellite links.
a) True
b) False
28) Networks do not link mainframes computers, modems, CD-ROMs, printers, plotters, fax machines, and phone systems.
a) True
b) False
29) In a peer-to-peer network, there is always one computer that has more authority on the network than other computers.
a) True
b) False
30) Networks allow you to manage, or administer, hardware and software on multiple computers from one central location.
a) True
b) False
31) Peer-to-peer networks require a special network operating system.
a) True
b) False
32) A file server’s main job is to allow clients to share resources.
a) True
b) False
33) Network operating systems can not provide the ability to manage network security, network users and groups, protocols, and network applications.
a) True
b) False
34) Usually, file servers are more powerful computers than those found on a user’s desktop.
a) True
b) False
35) Servers usually have more processing power, memory, and hard disk space than Clients have.
a) True
b) False
36) A host is a server that manages shared resources.
a) True
b) False
37) A node is a client, server, or other device on a network that is identified by a unique network address.
a) True
b) False
38) Data packets are distinct units of data that are transmitted from one network to another.
a) True
b) False
39) Addressing is the table for assigning a unique number to every workstation and device on the network.
a) True
b) False
40) Data stored at a central location is more secure
because, as a network administrator, you can take charge of backing up this
data, rather than relying on individual users to make their own copies.
a) True
b) False
41) Using a file server to run applications for multiple users requires that fewer copies of the application be purchased.
a) True
b) False
42) Mail services can only run on one kind of system at a time.
a) True
b) False
43) Businesses and other organizations use communications services to allow staff from other organizations to help diagnose a network problem.
a) True
b) False
44) Mail services coordinate the storage and transfer of e-mail between users on a network.
a) True
b) False
45) A segment is part of a LAN, which is logically
separated from other parts of the LAN and shares a fixed amount of traffic
capacity.
a) True
b) False
46) Software distributing automatically transfers a data file or a program from the server to a client on the network.
a) True
b) False
47) The address management services manage an infinite number of network addresses for an entire LAN.
a) True
b) False
48) Backup and data restoration services provide centralized management of data backup on multiple servers and on-demand restoration of files and directories.
a) True
b) False
49) One should specialize in only one area to obtain a
better job in networking.
a) True
b) False
50) Evaluating what security measures are currently in force and notifying the network administrator if a security breach occurs is performed by the security auditing services.
a) True
b) False
51) The understanding of transmission media, network design, and network protocol are skills that are helpful for a person looking for employment in Networks.
a) True
b) False
52) Certification is a popular career development tool for job seekers and a measure of an employee’s qualifications for employers.
a) True
b) False
53) Many manufacturers reward certified professionals with less expensive, more detailed, and more direct access to their technical support.
a) True
b) False
54) It is not necessary for a job seeker to meet all the requirements in an employer’s ad.
a) True
b) False
55) Joining an organization can connect you with people who have similar interests, provide new opportunities for learning, and allow you to access specialize information.
a) True
b) False
56) Certification may
qualify you for additional degrees or more advanced technical positions.
57) A network is a group of computers and other devices (such as
printers) that are connected by some type of transmission media.
58) A network may communicate through copper wires, fiber-optic
cable, radio waves, infrared, or satellite links.
59) Professionals with
certification can usually ask for higher salaries than those who are not certified.
60) A sneakernet is an outdated network system that required
employees to carry disks from computer to computer in order to share data.
61) The simplest form of
a network connects a handful of computers through one cable and uses peer-to-peer communications.
62) A local
area network is a network of computers and
other devices that is confined to a relatively small space, such as one
building.
63) To function as a
file server, a computer must be running a network operating system –
NOS.
64) Client/server architecture is the used for the networking model in which
clients use a central file server to share applications and data.
65) Protocol(s)
ensure that data are transferred whole, in sequence, and without error from one
node on the network to another.
66) The physical layout
of a computer network is called topology.
67) The means through
which data are transmitted and received is called transmission media.
68) Communication services allow remote users to connect to the network.
69) Using print
services to share printers across a
network saves time and money.
70) In Windows NT, the
communications software is known as Remote Access Server (RAS).
71) In NetWare, the
communications software is known as Network Access Server (NAS).
72) Mail services can
include intelligent routing (intelligent e-mail routing) capabilities.
73) Internet services include World Wide Web servers and browsers, file transfer
capabilities, Internet addressing schemes, and security filters.
74) A combination of
software and hardware that enables two different kinds of networks to exchange
data is called a gateway.
75) Once you establish a
connection, your workstation and its accompanying servers must run standard protocol(s) to use the Internet’s features.
76) Network management
services centrally administer and simplify
complicated management tasks on the network.
77) One of the services that falls under network management, and monitors traffic on the network or a network segment is called traffic monitoring and control-traffic monitoring and control services.
78) The tracking of how
many copies of a single application is being used on a network, is done by the license
tracking service.
79) Installing,
configuring, and troubleshooting network client hardware and software are skills that someone
seeking a job in networking.
80) One of the important
soft skills, that involve the ability to listen to customers, is called customer
relations.
81) If you cannot customer
relations to colleagues and clients, the
significance of your knowledge is diminished.
82) The term soft
skills refers to those skills that are not
easily measurable.
83) Figure 1-5 shows an
example of a simple WAN-WAN.
84) Figure 1-2 shows an
example of a peer-to-peer
network.
85) A manufacturer or a
professional organization usually develops and administers certification programs.
86) If you want to prove
a mastery of many aspects of networking, you should choose to become Net+ certified.
87) To become a PC
technician, one should pursue the A+ certification.
88) A person wanting to
specialize in Novell networking products, should pursue a Certified
NetWare Engineer (CNE) certification.
89) What are the 3 steps
for installing a NIC? Select a slot on the computer’s system board
where you will insert the NIC. Make sure that the slot matches the type of NIC,
and if the PC contains more than one type of slot, use the most modern type.
Remove the metal slot cover for that slot from the back of the PC. Insert the
NIC by lining up its slot connector with the slot, rocking it into place, and
pressing firmly into the slot. If you have correctly inserted the NIC, you
should not be able to wiggle it from side to side. If you can wiggle it, press
it in further. A loose NIC will cause connectivity problems. The metal bracket
at the end of the NIC should now be positioned where the metal slot cover was
located before you removed the slot cover. Attach the bracket with a
Phillips-head screw into the back of the computer cover to secure the NIC in
place.
90) What is the simplest
form of network and how does it communicate?
The simplest form of a network connects a handful of
computers through one cable and uses peer-to-peer communications.
91) What is a
fileserver’s main job?
A fileserver’s main job is to allow clients to share
resources.
92) What are the four
advantages of server-based networks relative to peer-to-peer networks?
Four advantages of server-based networks are:
1) All login accounts and passwords for anyone on the
network can be assigned from one place. 2) Access to multiple shared resources
can be centrally granted, by a single user or by groups of others. 3) Servers
are optimized to handle heavy processing loads and dedicated to handling
requests from clients. 4) Because of their efficient processing and larger disk
storage, servers can connect more than a handful of computers on a network.
93) What are four
reasons that file services are the foundation of networking today?
Four reasons why file services are the foundation of networking today are: 1) It’s easier to store shared data at a central location than to copy files to a disk and then pass the disks around. 2) Data stored at a central location are also more secure, because a network administrator can back up the data rather than rely on each user to back up his own data. 3) Using a file server to run applications for multiple users requires that fewer copies of the application be purchased. 4) Having fewer copies of applications means less maintenance for the network administrator.
94) What are five soft
skills that are important in a team environment?
Five soft skills that are important in a team
environment are: customer relations, oral and written communication,
dependability, teamwork, and leadership abilities.
************************************************
95) The IEEE is an international society composed of _____ professionals.
a) engineering
b) networking
c) computer hardware
d) programming
96) In Figure 2-7, which layer of the OSI Model is represented by the letter F?
a) Application
b) Network
c) Presentation
d) Data Link
97) In Figure 2-7, which layer of the OSI Model is represented by the letter C?
a) Physical
b) Session
c) Presentation
d) Transport
98) About _____ of ISO’s nearly 12,000 standards apply to computer related products.
a) 1000
b) 500
c) 10,000
d) 250
99) The ITU is a specialized _____ agency that regulates international telecommunications.
a) NATO
b) Commonwealth
c) United Nations
d) United States
100) The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model divides networking architecture into _____ layers.
a) six
b) eight
c) five
d) seven
101) The OSI model is a theoretical representation of what happens between _____ nodes on a network.
a) two
b) three
c) five
d) all the
102) Choose the correct listing of OSI Model layers from one to seven.
a) Physical, Data Link,
Network, Transport, Presentation, Session and Application
b) Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application
c) Physical, Network,
Data Link, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application
d) Physical, Data Link,
Network, Transport, Session, Application and Presentation
103) The network uses the _____ to deliver a frame.
a) token
b) protocol
c) checksum
d) address
104) The IEEE standard 802, specifies how data is handled by Ethernet and Token Ring networks on the _____.
a) Data Link
b) Transport
c) Physical
d) Network
105) Error checking and control information ensure that a _____ arrives without any problems.
a) token
b) protocol
c) checksum
d) frame
106) A structured package for moving data that includes not only raw data, but also the sender’s and receiver’s network addresses, and error checking and control information is called a _____.
a) token
b) protocol
c) frame
d) connector
107) If you insert a Network Interface Card but fail to seat it deeply enough in the computer’s circuit board, your computer will experience network problems at the _____ Layer.
a) Data Link
b) Physical
c) Transport)
d) Network
108) The Data Link Layer accomplishes the job of finding out if information has been dropped and of asking for a retransmission, by the _____ process.
a) token ring
b) protocol
c) error checking
d) frame
109) Transport layer services break arbitrarily long packets into _____.
a) the maximum size that the type network in use can handle
b) the minimum size that
the type network in use can handle
c) a standard size that
is used by all protocols
d) a size smaller than
standard size so it may fit all frames
110) _____ is the process by which the Transport layer service of the sending node divides the sending node’s data, and assigns a sequence number to each piece so that the data can be reassembled in the correct order by the receiving node’s Transport layer service.
a) Routering
b) Sequencing
c) Segmentation
d) Framing
111) The Session layer is sometimes called the “_____” of network communications.
a) coach
b) leader
c) workhorse
d) traffic cop
112) The _____ layer serves as a translator between the application and the network.
a) Presentation
b) Session
c) Application
d) Network
113) One of the services provided by the Application
layer is _____.
a) file transfer
b) decoding
c) segmentation
d) sequencing
114) The Transport layer passes the data blocks, one at a
time, to the _____ layer.
a) Session
b) Network
c) Data Link
d) Presentation
115) The Network layer passes the data blocks, with their
addressing identifications, to the _____ layer.
a) Session
b) Transport
c) Data Link
d) Presentation
116) The Network layer adds addressing information to the
data it receives from the _____ layer.
a) Session
b) Transport
c) Data Link
d) Presentation
117) The Application layer transfers data requests to a remote node on the _____ layer.
a) Session
b) Presentation
c) Network
d) Transport
118) The Presentation layer adds any translation or code required to implement the formatting and passes the request on to the _____ layer.
a) Session
b) Network
c) Application
d) Transport
119) The Presentation layer determines how to format or encrypt the data request received from the _____ layer.
a) Session
b) Network
c) Application
d) Transport
120) Using frames reduces the possibility of lost data or errors on the network, because each frame has _____.
a) its own built-in
address
b) its own built-in
sequence
c) its own built-in error check
d) its own built-in
token
121) An error checking algorithm, also known as the
_____, is inserted at the end of the frame by the Data Link layer.
a) Network Frame Check
b) Data Link Check
c) Routing Check
Sequence
d) Frame Check Sequence
122) At the _____ layer, the data blocks are packaged into
individual frames.
a) Session
b) Transport
c) Data Link
d) Presentation
123) The Data Link layer passes the frames to the _____
layer.
a)
Session
b)
Transport
c) Physical
d)
Presentation
124) There are _____ major categories of frame types.
a)
six
b)
four
c) two
d)
five
125) Today, _____ types of Ethernet technology are used on LAN’s, with each type being governed by a set of IEEE standards,
a)
three
b)
two
c) four
d)
five
126) The physical address if the destination node is appended to the data frame in the _____ layer.
a)
Transport
b) Data Link
c)
Physical
d)
Network
127) The IEEE expanded the OSI Model by separating the _____ layer into two sublayers, the Logical Link Control and the Media Access Control.
a) Data Link
b)
Physical
c)
Network
d)
Transport
128) The ANSI (American National Standards Institution)
is an organization composed of the ten largest computer companies who,
together, determine standards for the electronics industry.
a)
True
b) False
129) The EIA is a trade organization composed of representatives from electronics manufacturing firms across the United States.
a) True
b)
False
130) The ANSI does not dictate that manufacturers comply
with standards, but requests them to comply voluntary.
a) True
b)
False
131) The ISO is a collection of computer users
representing 130 countries.
a)
True
b) False
132) The ITU’s documents pertain more to global
telecommunications than to industry technical specifications.
a) True
b)
False
133) The OSI Model prescribes the type of hardware or
software that should support each layer.
a)
True
b) False
134) The terms “layer 1 protocols” and “Physical layer
protocols” refer to the standards that dictate how the electrical signals are
amplified and transmitted over the wire.
a) True
b)
False
135) The primary function of the Data Link layer is to
divide data it receives from the Network layer into distinct frames that can be
transmitted by the Physical layer.
a) True
b)
False
136) If the sender of a frame does not get acknowledgement from the receiver of the frame that it received the data, its Data Link layer gives instructions to retransmit the information.
a) True
b)
False
137) The Network layer determines the best path from point A on one network to point B on another network by factoring in delivery priorities, network congestion, quality of service, and cost of alternative routes.
a) True
b)
False
138) In networking, the term “to route” means to intelligently direct data based on addressing, patterns of usage, and availability.
a) True
b)
False
139) Segmentation refers to the process of increasing the
size of the data units when moving data from a network segment than can handle
larger data units, to a network segment that can handle only smaller data
units.
a)
True
b) False
140) Reassembly is the process of reconstructing the segmented data units.
a) True
b)
False
141) If your phone is accidentally pulled out of the wall jack, the Session layer on your end will detect the loss of a connection and end the session.
a)
True
b) False
142) One of the Session layer’s functions is to
synchronize the dialog between the two nodes.
a) True
b)
False
143) If the sending node’s Transport layer does not
receive an acknowledgement within a given time period, it considers the data
lost and would retransmit them.
a) True
b)
False
144) The Transport layer may be considered the most
important layer in the OSI Model because without it, data could not be verified
or interpreted by their recipients.
a) True
b)
False
145) One of the Session layer’s function is to establish
and keep alive the communications link for the duration of the session.
a) True
b)
False
146) The Presentation layer manages data encryption and decryption, such as scrambling of system passwords.
a) True
b)
False
147) The Application layer provides interfaces to the
software that enable programs to use network services.
a) True
b)
False
148) The Physical layer adds another header to the frame before it delivers the data to the cabling and across the network.
a)
True
b) False
149) The characteristics of the frame components depend
on the type of network on which the frames run and on the standards that they
must follow.
a) True
b)
False
150) The blocks of data grow larger as they accumulate
more handling information.
a) True
b)
False
151) Frames are composed of several smaller components, or fields.
a) True
b)
False
152) The Preamble, a component of the Ethernet 802.3 frame, is the first field used when calculating the size of the frame.
a) True
b)
False
153) The most commonly used algorithm in the Frame Check Sequence is called Cyclic Redundancy Check.
a) True
b)
False
154) The network addresses are hierarchical because they
contain subsets of data that incrementally narrow down the location of a node.
a) True
b)
False
155) The Media Access Control Sublayer lies within the
Data Link layer.
a) True
b)
False
156) The part of the MAC address that is unique to a
particular vendor is called the Block ID.
a) True
b)
False
157) The Block ID along with the vendor street address,
form the Device ID.
a)
True
b) False
158) IEEE Networking specifications apply to
connectivity, network media, error checking algorithms, encryption, and
emerging technologies.
a) True
b)
False
159) Without standards, you could not design a network because one piece
of hardware might not work properly with another.
160) In Figure 2-2, the
X represents the source address
of the simplified data frame.
161) The Data Link layer
is the second layer of the OSI
model.
162) The Physical layer
is the first or lowest layer of
the OSI model.
163) The Data
Link layer controls the flow of multiple
frame requests and allows the NICE to process data without error.
164) In the Network
layer, the router is the device
that connects network segments and intelligently directs data to its
destination.
165) The Data Link layer
functions independent(ly) of the
type of Physical layer used by the network and its nodes.
166) Connectivity
devices, such as bridges and switches, work in the Data Link layer.
167) The third layer of
the OSI model is the Network
layer.
168) The primary
function of the Network layer is
to translate network addresses into their physical counterparts and decide how
to route data from the sender to the receiver.
169) The term session refers to a connection for data exchange between
two parties.
170) The Session
layer is responsible for establishing and
maintaining communication between two nodes on the network.
171) The Transport
protocol method of gauging the appropriate rate of transmission based on how
fast the recipient can accept data, is called flow control.
172) The Transport layer is primarily responsible for ensuring that
data are transferred from point A to point B (which may be another network
segment) reliably, in the correct sequence, and with out errors.
173) The Presentation layer protocols code and decodes graphics and file
format information.
174) The seventh layer
of the OSI model is the Application
layer.
175) The Session layer sets the terms of communication by deciding
which node will communicate first and how long a node can communicate.
176) Services for
message handling for electronic mail are found in the Application layer.
177) The Application layer recognizes your choice in the software, and
formulates a request for data from a remote node.
178) The Session layer
receives a formatted request from the Presentation layer and assigns a data token to it.
179) A token is a
special control frame that
indicates to the rest of the network that you have the right to transmit data.
180) The Session layer
passes data requests at the Transport layer.
181) At the Transport layer, data and the control information it has
accumulated thus far, are broken down into manageable chunks of data.
182) If the data is to
large to fit in one frame, the Transport layer subdivides the data into several
smaller blocks and assigns sequence
identifiers to each block.
183) The Data Link layer
adds a header to the frame that incorporates destination and source address
assigned by the Network layer.
184) In the 1980’s, IBM
developed a networking technology called Token Ring.
185) Ethernet is
a networking technology originally developed at Xerox in 1970.
186) The Ethernet frame
is specified by the IEEE 802.3
standard.
187) The IEEE 802.5 standard
specifies the Token Ring frame.
188) The Pad, a
component of the Ethernet 802.3 frame, is used to increase the size of the
frame to its minimum size requirement of 46 bytes.
189) The first component
of the Token Ring frame is the Start Delimiter (SD), which signifies the beginning of the packet.
190) Data Link layer
addresses are fixed numbers assigned by the factory and are also called Media
Access Control (MAC) addresses.
191) A hierarchical
address scheme that can be assigned through operating system software, and
resides in the Network layer is called network address.
192) What is the third
layer in the OSI Model and what does it do?
The third layer in the OSI Model is the network layer.
This layer manages addressing and routing data based on addressing, patterns of
usage, and availability. This layer is also responsible for segmentation and
reassembly of packets.
193) What is sequencing
and in which OSI layer does it occur?
Sequencing is performed in the Transport layer.
Sequencing is the process of assigning a placeholder to each piece of a data
block to allow the receiving node’s Transport layer to reassemble the data in
the correct order.
194) What is an API, and
in which OSI layer does it belong?
An API is an application program interface, which is a
routine set of instructions that allows a program to interact with the
operating system. API’s are found in the Application layer of the OSI Model.
195) What kind of
addressing scheme do Network layer addresses follow and how are the addresses
assigned?
Network layer addresses follow a hierarchical
addressing scheme and can be assigned through the operating system software.
196) Why did the IEEE
expand the OSI Model by separating the Data Link layer? What are the sublayers?
The IEEE separated the Data Link layer into the
Logical Link Control (LLC) and the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayers to
accommodate shared access for multiple network nodes (as opposed to simple
point-to-point communications).
************************************************
197) In Figure 3-7, the letter A represents the _____
component of the IPX datagram.
a)
destination socket
b) transport control
c)
source network
d)
packet type
198) A network that uses more than one protocol is called
a _____ network.
a) multiprotocol
b)
routable
c)
segmented
d)
integrated
199) In Figure 3-7, the letter E represents the _____
component of the IPX datagram.
a)
packet length
b)
destination network
c) source network
d)
packet type
200) Of the major protocols, _____ is by far the most
commonly used.
a)
IPX/SPX
b) TCP/IP
c)
NetBIOS
d)
AppleTalk
201) The TCP/IP Application is roughly equivalent to the _____ and _____ layers of the OSI Model.
a) Application and Presentation
b)
Session and Transport
c)
Network and Data Link
d)
Data Link and Physical
202) The TCP/IP Transport layer is roughly equivalent to the _____ and _____ layers of the OSI Model.
a)
Application and
Presentation
b) Session and Transport
c)
Network and Data Link
d)
Data Link and Physical
203) The TCP/IP Network Interface layer is roughly equivalent to the _____ and _____ layers of the OSI Model.
a)
Application and
Presentation
b)
Session and Transport
c)
Network and Data Link
d) Data Link and Physical
204) In an internetwork, the individual networks that are
joined together are called _____.
a)
segments
b)
loopbacks
c) subnets
d)
firewalls
205) The TCP/IP Internet layer is roughly equivalent to the _____ layer of the OSI Model.
a)
Application
b)
Session
c) Network
d)
Data Link
206) IP is the subprotocol that enables TCP/IP to _____.
a)
segment
b)
loopback
c) internetwork
d)
firewall
207) The component of an IP datagram header that indicates the maximum time in seconds, that a datagram can remain on the network before it is discarded is called _____.
a)
time to destination
b)
time to be on line
c)
time to be active
d) time to live
208) The IP component of the TCP/IP is an unreliable, connectionless protocol which means that _____.
a)
it does not need a
connection to perform its function
b)
it does not have a way
to connect and must rely on an other components
c) it does not guarantee delivery of data
d)
it does not function
on any of the network layers
209) The IP datagram contains a checksum component that
verifies the _____.
a) integrity of the routing information on the IP header
b)
integrity of the Data
in the datagram
c)
integrity of the Time
to Live information
d)
integrity of the
protocol
210) TCP is a connection-oriented subprotocol, which
means _____.
a)
that it establishes
initialize all connections
b) that a connection must be established before transmitting data
c)
that it has to be
installed on the destination node
d)
that a connection is
not necessary for transmission
211) ICMP sits between IP and TCP in the _____ layer of the TCP/IP model.
a)
Application
b)
Transport
c) Internet
d)
Network Interface
212) ICMP uses the _____ component of a packet datagram to report which networks are not reachable.
a)
internet header length
b)
type of service
c)
source address
d) time to live
213) In addition to core Transport and Internet layer
protocols, TCP/IP encompasses several _____ layer protocols.
a) Network
b) Application
c) Internet
d) Network Interface
214) ARP is an Internet layer _____ that obtains the MAC
address of a host and then maps the address to the host’s IP address.
a) protocol
b) component
c) control
d) monitor
215) ICMP notifies the _____ when something goes wrong in
the transmission process.
a) hub
b) sender
c) receiver
d) router
216) Each IP address is a unique _____ -bit number.
a) 32
b) 16
c) 8
d) 24
217) An IP address has _____ types of information.
a) three
b) two
c) four
d) eight
218) Networks recognize _____ kinds of addresses.
a) five
b) one
c) three
d) two
219) The number 127 through 191 in the first octets of the an IP address, indicate that the address is a _____.
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
220) A secondary number, known as a subnet _____, is also
assigned as part of the TCP/IP configuration process.
a) segment
b) LAN
c) mask
d) WAN
221) Like TCP/IP, IPX/SPX is a routable protocol because
it carries network _____ information.
a) platform
b) addressing
c) protocol
d) layer
222) The core protocols of IPX/SPX provide services at
the _____ and _____ layers of the OSI Model.
a) Transport, Network
b) Data Link and
Physical
c) Data Link and Network
d) Transport and Data
Link
223) SPX, like TCP in the TCP/IP suite, is a _____
protocol.
a) connectionless
b) dynamic
c) connection-oriented
d) static
224) The SPX packet, like the TCP segment, contains _____ fields to ensure reliability.
a) six
b) seven
c) eight
d) two
225) IPX addresses contain two parts: the _____ address
and the _____ address.
a) network, node
b) protocol, platform
c) DOS, network
d) platform, node
226) Socket addresses are appended to _____ address.
a) TCP
b) IPX
c) IP
d) NCP
227) To view your Windows 95 workstation IPX address, type _____ at the DOS prompt on the mapped network drive.
a) logon ID nlist /a
b) nlist user logon ID /a
c) nlist logon ID /a
d) nlist logon ID IPX /a
228) To view your Windows 95 workstation IPX address
while connected to a NetWare server running a version lower than 4.0, type
_____ at the DOS prompt on the mapped network drive.
a) logon ID userlist /a
b) userlist user=logon ID /a
c) userlist logon ID /a
d) userlist logon ID IPX
/a
229) In order to transmit data between network nodes
while using NetBIOS, a network Administrator must assign a _____ to each
station.
a) logical address
b) MAC
c) IP address
d) NetBIOS name
230) Apple has began supporting the _____ protocol to
integrate Macintosh with other networks.
a) TCP/IP
b) IPX/SPX
c) NetBIOS
d) NetBEUI
231) The four major protocol suites are TCP/IP, IPX/SPX,
NetBIOS, and AppleTalk.
a) True
b) False
232) Protocols vary according to their speed,
transmission efficiency, utilization of resources, ease of setup, and ability
to travel between one LAN segment and another.
a) True
b) False
233) TCP/IP is not simply one protocol, but rather a suite of small, specialized protocols.
a) True
b) False
234) TCP/IP roots lie with the U.S. Department of Defense, which developed the precursor to TCP/IP for its Advanced Research Projects Agency network (ARPAnet) in the late 1960s.
a) True
b) False
235) TCP/IP is also a flexible protocol, running on any combination of network operating systems or network media.
a) True
b) False
236) The TCP/IP core protocols are designed to operate in the Transport or Application layers of the OSI Model.
a) True
b) False
237) The IP Datagram acts as an envelope for data and contains information necessary for bridges to transfer data between subnets.
a) True
b) False
238) The length of the IP Datagram including its header and data cannot exceed 65,535 bytes.
a) True
b) False
239) The Protocol component of an IP Datagram header identifies the full IP address of the destination node.
a) True
b) False
240) The Identification component of the IP Datagram header identifies the message to which a Datagram belongs and enables the receiving node to reassemble fragmented, or segmented, messages.
a) True
b) False
241) The IP component of the TCP/IP suite is an unreliable, connectionless protocol.
a) True
b) False
242) The source port indicates the port number at the source node.
a) True
b) False
243) The fields of the TCP segment are encapsulated by the IP datagram.
a) True
b) False
244) TCP sits on top of the IP subprotocol and compensates for IP reliability deficiencies by providing checksum, flow control, and sequencing information.
a) True
b) False
245) UDP provides error checking, but not sequence numbering.
a) True
b) False
246) UDP is a connectionless transport service.
a) True
b) False
247) IP addresses are burned into a device’s network interface card and are therefore, unchangeable.
a) True
b) False
248) In the TCP/IP protocol suite, IP is the core protocol responsible for logical addressing.
a) True
b) False
249) The number 200 in the first octet of an IP address indicates a class C address.
a) True
b) False
250) A firewall isolates subnets from each other in a network.
a) True
b) False
251) The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, an Application layer protocol in the TCP/IP suite, can automatically assign IP addresses.
a) True
b) False
252) Internetwork Packet Exchange/Sequence Packet Exchange is a protocol required to ensure the interoperability of LAN’s running NetWare operating system.
a) True
b) False
253) IPX operates at the Transport layer of the OSI Model and provides routing and internetwork services.
a) True
b) False
254) SPX belongs to the Transport layer of the OSI Model.
a) True
b) False
255) An SPX packet consists of a 32-byte header followed by 0 to 534 bytes of data.
a) True
b) False
256) Addresses on an IPX/SPX network are called IPX addresses because IPX is the component of the protocol that handles addressing.
a) True
b) False
257) In addition to network and node addresses, processes running on NCP-enabled workstations are identified by socket addresses.
a) True
b) False
258) Network Basic Input Output System is a protocol originally designed by IBM to provide Transport and Session Layer services for application running small networks.
a) True
b) False
259) NetBEUI provides excellent error correction, which makes it a routable protocol.
a) True
b) False
260) NetBIOS does not contain a Network layer and therefore, is not routable.
a) True
b) False
261) Zone names are subject to the same strict naming convention that TCP/IP and IPX/SPX networks must follow.
a) True
b) False
262) A protocol is a rule that governs how networks communicate.
263) Protocols define
the standards for communication between network devices.
264) In Figure 3-6,
which IPX/SPX protocol resides at the Session layer of the OSI Model? NetBIOS
265) Protocols that can
span more than one LAN segment are routable.
266) Protocols are
routable because they carry Network layer addressing information that can be interpreted by a router.
267) Thanks to its low
cost and ability to communicate between a multitude of dissimilar platforms, TCP/IP has become extremely popular.
268) TCP, IP, and UDP,
are called subprotocols in the
TCP/IP suite.
269) One of the greatest
advantages to using TCP/IP relates to its status as a routable protocol.
270) The TCP/IP suite
features routing protocols that
assist routers in efficiently managing information flow.
271) The Internet
Protocol (IP) belongs to the Internet
layer of the TCP/IP Model.
272) The IP portion of a
data frame is called an IP (Internet Protocol) datagram.
273) In the IP Datagram,
the component that tells IP how to process the incoming Datagram by indicating
speed, priority, or reliability is the Type of Service (ToS).
274) The component of an
IP datagram header that identifies the type of transport layer protocol that
will receive the Datagram is called Protocol.
275) The Transport control protocol belongs to the Transport layer of
the TCP/IP suite and provides reliable data delivery services.
276) TCP is a connection-oriented subprotocol.
277) A port is the address on a host where an application makes
itself available in incoming data.
278) The User Datagram
Protocol sits in the Transport
layer, between the Internet layer and the Application layer of the TCP/IP
model.
280) To make ARP more
efficient, computers save recognized IP-to-MAC address mappings in a cache.
281) An IP address
contains the network address and the host address.
282) The numbers 1
through 126 in the first octets of the an IP address, indicate that the address
is a Class A address.
283) A company can request
a class of network address from InterNIC-Network Solutions, the current Internet naming authority.
284) A firewall is a special kind of router that secures a network
from outside penetration via the Internet.
285) Although 8 bits
have 256 combinations, the numbers 0 and 255 are reserved for broadcasts
– transmissions.
286) IP address data are
sent across the network to binary
form.
287) An IP address that
is manually assigned is called a static address.
288) Each network must
have a network name, also know as a domain name,
289) IPX is a connectionless service because it does not require a session to be
established before it transmits.
290) A socket is a logical address assigned to a specific process
running on a computer.
291) Figure 3-4 is an example
of an IP configuration window.
292) The Service
Advertising Protocol (SAP) works in the
Application, Presentation, and Session layers of the OSI Model and runs
directly over IPX.
293) The NetWare
Core Protocol (NCP) handles requests for
services such as printing and file access, between clients and servers.
294) The second part of
an IPX address, the node address, is equal to the network device’s MAC
(Media Access Control) address.
295) NetBEUI (Network Basic Input Output System) is a fast and efficient protocol that consumes few
network resources.
296) Once a NetBIOS has
found a workstation’s NetBIOS name, it will discover the workstation’s MAC
(Media Access Control) address and then
use this address in further communications with the workstation.
297) To interconnect
Macintosh computers, you need to use the AppleTalk protocol suite.
298) An AppleTalk
network is separated into logical groups of computers called AppleTalk
Zones.
299) What can a routable protocol do? A routable protocol can span more than one LAN segment.
300) What is an IP
datagram and what does it do? An IP datagram is the IP portion of a
data frame. It acts as an envelope for the data and contains information
necessary for routers to transfer data between subnets.
301) What is ICMP and when would it be useful? ICMP is Internet Control Message Protocol and is found in the TCP/IP suite. It notifies the sender when something goes wrong in the transmission process and the packets are not delivered.
302) When does a static IP address change? A static IP address changes when a client’s TCP/IP properties are reconfigured.
303) What is SAP and which devices use it? SAP stands for Service Advertising Protocol and is used by NetWare servers and routers to advertise to the entire network which services they can provide.
************************************************
304) Analog signals are variable voltage to create continuous waves, resulting in an _____ transmission.
a) exact
b) inexact
c) routable
d) sharp
305) Digital signals are composed of precise voltages that create _____ with values of either 1 or 0.
a) cycles
b) noise
c) pulses
d) waves
306) Information can be transmitted via one of _____ methods.
a) two
b) three
c) five
d) seven
307) Frequency is the number of times that a signal’s _____ changes over a fixed period of time.
a) cycles
b) distance
c) binary
d) amplifies
308) A drawback to analog transmission is that it _____ as it travels farther away from its source.
a) attenuates
b) regenerates
c) repeats
d) amplifies
309) A device that regenerates a digital signal is called a _____.
a) hub
b) repeater
c) router
d) switch
310) The pattern of 1s and 0s, which represent a precise pulse, makes digital transmission _____ analog transmission.
a) noisier than
b) more reliable than
c) less reliable than
d) as reliable as
311) Throughput is the amount of _____ that a medium can transmit during a given period of time.
a) signals
b) cycles
c) data
d) noise
312) If you try to push more data through a copper wire than it can handle, the result be _____.
a) slower transmissions
b) faster transmissions
c) lost data
d) increased throughput
313) The length of a network segment is limited by _____.
a) cost
b) nodes
c) frequency
d) attenuation
314) There are two types of _____ that can affect data transmission: EMI and RFI.
a) connectors
b) modems
c) noise
d) bytes
315) Cabling may attain noise immunity through shielding, anti-noise algorithms, and _____.
a) connectors
b) distance
c) thickness
d) hubs
316) Which of the following best describes Baseband transmission?
a) supports
bi-directional signal flow
b) is susceptible to
attenuation
c) is inexpensive and
simple to install
d) all of the above are correct
317) Figure 4-6 shows an image of a Coaxial Cable. Which letter identifies the Sheath?
a) X
b) M
c) P
d) R
318) Figure 4-6 shows an image of a Coaxial Cable. Which letter identifies the Conducting Core?
a) X
b) M
c) P
d) R
319) Thicknet requires a combination of a drop cable and a _____ tap.
a) BNC
b) RJ-45
c) RJ-11
d) vampire
320) Which form of UTP is most popular for new network installations and upgrades to Fast Ethernet?
a) CAT-4 Category 4
b) CAT-6 Category 6
c) CAT-5 Category 5
d) CAT-3 Category
321) The maximum segment length for both STP and UTP is _____ meters.
a) 95
b) 85
c) 90
d) 100
322) Fiber optic cables fall into _____ categories.
a) five
b) six
c) two
d) four
323) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Fiber optic?
a) Fiber is the least expensive type of cable
b) Fiber cable may use
any of several different types of connectors
c) Fiber is immune to
both EMI and RFI
d) Network segments made
from fiber can span 100 meters
324) In Figure 4-18, the letter A identifies the _____.
a) Backbone wiring
b) Horizontal wiring
c) Entrance facilities
d) Equipment room
325) In Figure4-18, the letter F identifies the _____.
a) Backbone wiring
b) Equipment room
c) Work area
d) Entrance facilities
326) In Figure 4-18, the letter E identifies the _____.
a) Backbone wiring
b) Equipment room
c) Work area
d) Entrance facilities
327) In Figure 4-18, the letter D identifies the _____.
a) Backbone wiring
b) Equipment room
c) Work area
d) Entrance facilities
328) In Figure 4-18, the letter B identifies the _____.
a) Backbone wiring
b) Equipment room
c) Work area
d) Entrance facilities
329) In Figure 4-18, the letter C identifies the _____.
a) Backbone wiring
b) Horizontal wiring
c) Work area
d) Telecommunications closet
330) Figure 4-20 is an image of a Telecommunication
closet. The maximum distance from the closet to the Data Jack is _____.
a) 70m
b) 95m
c) 100m
d) 90m
331) Figure 4-20 is an image of a Telecommunication closet, the maximum allowable distance from the Data Jack to the workstation is _____.
a) 10m
b) 25m
c) 100
d) 50m
332) Figure 4-20 is an image of a Telecommunication closet, the maximum allowable distance from the Telecommunication closet to the workstation is _____.
a) 10m
b) 90m
c) 100m
d) 95m
333) Which of the following is not a good cable installation tip?
a) Do not untwist
twisted-pair cables more than one-half inch before inserting into a punch-down
block.
b) Always leave slack in
cable runs
c) Secure groups of cables with wire in so that the cable
does not shift.
d) Test each segment of
cabling as you install it with a cable tester.
334) In any binary system, the 1s and 0s combine to encode information.
a) True
b) False
335) The first networks transmitted data over thick,
heavy coaxial cables.
a) True
b) False
336) Sound waves experience distortion while they
traverse the wire.
a) True
b) False
337) Frequency is usually expressed in cycles per second, or Hertz (Hz).
a) True
b) False
338) A problem with analog signals is that when they are repeated, they become amplified, but the noise does not.
a) True
b) False
339) A situation in which you are likely to employ digital signals to transmit data is when you use a modem to connect two systems.
a) True
b) False
340) Digital transmissions requires many pulses to transmit the same amount of information that an analog signal can transmit in one wave.
a) True
b) False
341) Throughput is usually measured in megabits per second.
a) True
b) False
342) The IEEE limits how fast electricity can travel over copper wire.
a) True
b) False
343) The maximum number of nodes per segment depends on bandwidth.
a) True
b) False
344) When you connect multiple network segments, you increase the latency in the network.
a) True
b) False
345) Baseband is a transmission form in which digital signals are sent through direct current pulses applied to the wire.
a) True
b) False
346) Coaxial cable standards require that only one end of its segment be terminated.
a) True
b) False
347) Crosstalk occurs when signals traveling on nearby wire pairs infringe on another pair’s signal.
a) True
b) False
348) Twist ratio in UTP refers to the number of twist per meter in the cable.
a) True
b) False
349) The more twists per inch in a pair of wires, the less resistant the pair will be to all forms of noise.
a) True
b) False
350) Fiber optic cable contains one or more glass fibers, that transmit data via pulsing light sent from a light-emitting diode.
a) True
b) False
351) Figure 4-18 shows the IEEE structured cabling subsystem.
a) True
b) False
352) The TIA/EIA
standard dictates that a single hierarchy contain no more than two levels of
Cross-connection wiring.
a) True
b) False
353) Many network problems can be traced to poor hardware equipment.
a) True
b) False
354) A plenum-rated cable is less fire-resistant than other cables.
a) True
b) False
355) Networks that transmit signal through the atmosphere are known as wireless networks.
a) True
b) False
356) Direct infrared transmission depends on the transmitter and receiver remaining within the line of sight of each other.
a) True
b) False
357) Indirect infrared transmission depends on channeling the signal through a transmitter.
a) True
b) False
358) Radio frequency transmission relies on signals broadcast over specific frequencies.
a) True
b) False
359) Radio frequency in not susceptible to interference and therefore would be a good medium for secure transmission.
a) True
b) False
360) Narrowband and spread spectrum are not suited for sensitive data transfer.
a) True
b) False
361) When security is an issue, Fiber-optic and direct infrared media are both a good choice for transmission media.
a) True
b) False
362) The analog and
digital methods of transmitting information use voltage to generate their signals.
363) In binary numbers,
eight bits together, form a byte.
364) To determine the
frequency of a signal, count how many times the amplitude cycles between its peak lowest values over time.
365) The unwanted interference form other sources that affects analog signals profoundly is called noise.
366) The regeneration process is when digital signals are retransmitted
in their original form without any noise.
367) A device that modulates a signal at transmission and then demodulates the signal at the receiving end, is called a modem.
368) The five characteristics of throughput and bandwidth, cost, size and scalability, connectors, and noise immunity must be considered when choosing a data transfer media.
369) Strictly speaking, bandwidth is a measure of the difference between the highest
and lowest frequencies that a media can transmit.
370) The brief delay that
takes place between the moment you press the key and the moment the server
accepts the data is called latency.
371) The pieces of
hardware that connect the wire to network devices are called connectors.
372) A form of transmission in which signals are modulated as radio frequency analog pulses is called broadband.
373) According to the
IEEE 802.3 standard, Thicknet transmits data at a maximum rate of 10 Mbps.
374) Thicknet has a
maximum segment length of 500 meters and can accommodate a maximum of 100 nodes per segment.
375) The maximum segment
length of Thinnet or 10Base2 Ethernet is 200 meters.
376) Both Thicknet and
Thinnet coaxial cable rely on the bus topology, require 50-ohm resistors for
termination, and must be grounded
at one end.
377) When signals from
adjacent cables interfere with another cable’s transmission, another form of
crosstalk called alien crosstalk
occurs.
378) In twisted
pair-cable, one wire in a pair carries signal information and the second wire
in the pair is grounded and absorbs
interference.
379) Specifications for
twisted pair wiring is found in a standard called TIA/EIA 568.
380) Twisted pair cable is the most common form of cabling found on LAN’s today due to its being inexpensive, easy to install and flexible.
381) The shielding in
shielded twisted-pair acts as an antenna, converting the noise into current.
382) The current
generated by the shielding in a shielded twisted-pair cable, mirrors the noise
on the cable and cancels the
noise.
383) IEEE has designated
UTP cabling as 10BaseT, with its minimum transmission rate of 10 Mbps.
384) Around the core of a Fiber optic cable is layer of glass called cladding.
385) One of Fiber
optic’s drawbacks is its high cost and its one (single) direction transmission.
386) Two types of infrared transmission that networks use are direct and indirect.
387) Fiber optic cable provides the benefits of nearly unlimited throughput, very high resistance to noise, and excellent security.
388) A single-mode fiber
transmits on a single light frequency, while a multimode fiber transmits several frequencies over a single
or multiple fibers.
389) The TIA/EIA 568 Commercial Building Wiring Standard for uniform, enterprise-wide, multivendor cabling systems is also known as structured cabling.
390) A patch
panel is a wall-mounted panel of data
receptors into which cross-connects patch cables from the punch-down block are
inserted.
391) A panel of data receptors into which horizontal cabling from workstations is inserted is called a punch-down block.
392) Telecommunications closets typically house hubs or switches, punch-down blocks, and patch panels.
393) A short
twisted-pair cable with connectors at both ends used to connect network devices
to data outlets, is called a patch
cable.
394) In addition to
infrared and RF transmission, microwave and satellite links can be used to transport data through the
atmosphere.
395) Spread spectrum and
narrowband are the two most
common RF technologies in use today.
396) Thick Ethernet and fiber-optic cable are the most noise-resistant media currently
available.
397) When the
environment requires that the cable bend around tight corners or through small
spaces, one should use a flexible cable such as twisted-pair cable.
398) What is latency and which networks are susceptible to it? Latency is a delay between the transmission of a signal and its receipt. Every network is susceptible to latency.
399) What two types of noise can affect a medium’s data transmission? The two types of noise that can affect data transmission are electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI).
400) What is cladding used for and what type of cable has it? Cladding is the glass shield around the fiber core of a fiber-optic cable. Cladding acts as mirror, reflecting light back to the core and allows fiber to bend around corners without losing the integrity of the light-based signal.
401) What is bend radius? Bend radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop a cable before you will impair data transmission.
402) What are three ways of transporting data through the atmosphere? Data can be transported through the atmosphere via: infrared transmission, radio frequency transmission and microwave and satellite links.
************************************************
403) Physical topologies are classified as being one of three fundamental geometric shapes: bus, ring and _____.
a)
daisy chain
b) star
c)
repeater
d)
hybrid
404) As you add more nodes, the network’s performance _____.
a)
speeds up
b)
slows down
c) degrades
d)
improves
405) Figure 5-3 shows an example of a _____ network.
a)
daisy-chain topology
b)
star-wired ring
c)
Star topology
d) ring topology
406) Which of the following does not describe token passing?
a)
It is a 3-byte token
b)
It is from one node to
another around the ring
c)
The token packet is
transformed to a data frame
d)
Because of the transmission control, an acknowledgement
is not needed
407) Which of the following does not describe a star topology?
a)
Every node on the
network is connected through a central device
b)
A single physical wire
on a star network connects only two devices
c) A hub failure cannot disable a LAN segment
d)
A single malfunction
cable cannot disable the network
408) A topology that uses the physical layout of a star in conjunction with the token-passing data transmission method is called a _____.
a)
daisy-chained bus
b) star-wired ring
c)
star-wired bus
d)
daisy-chained ring
409) Figure 5-5 shows an image of a _____ topology.
a) star-wired ring
b)
star
c)
token ring
d)
daisy-chained
410) Figure 5-7 shows an image of
a _____ topology.
a)
star-wired bus
b)
star-wired ring
c)
daisy-chained bus
d) daisy-chained star-wired bus
411) There are many reasons for separating devices in a hierarchy. Which of the following is not one?
a)
to separate hubs,
switches, and routers for security reasons
b) to insure that all nodes have the same priorities
c)
cost and scalability
d)
network addressing and
bandwidth
412) Which of the following is not an advantage gained from arranging topologies in a hierarchy?
a)
the ability to
segregate bandwidth among different groups
b)
ease of aiding or
isolating different network groups
c)
the flexibility to
interconnect different network types
d) the use of a single protocol
413) Figure 5-9 shows an image of a _____ backbone network.
a) distributed
b)
serial
c)
collapsed
d)
parallel
414) Figure 5-11 shows an image of a _____ backbone.
a)
serial
b) collapsed
c)
parallel
d)
distributed
415) A _____ backbone is the most robust enterprise-wide topology.
a)
collapsed
b)
serial
c)
distributed
d) parallel
416) Figure 5-13 shows an example of a _____ network.
a) mesh
b)
wide area
c)
peer-to-peer
d)
ring
417) Figure 5-14 shows an example of a _____ topology.
a)
star
b)
mesh
c) peer-to-peer
d)
ring
418) Figure 5-15 shows an example of a _____ topology.
a)
star
b)
mesh
c)
peer-to-peer
d) ring
419) Which of the following is not true of a star WAN topology?
a)
Reliability increases
with the number of potential routes data can follow
b)
When all of its
dedicated circuits are functioning, there are shorter data paths between any
two sites
c)
Extending a star is
easy and costs less than extending a peer-to-peer or ring WAN
d) Unlike a LAN, a WAN does not go down if the central connection point has a failure
420) In Figure 5-17, network A is
a _____ WAN.
a) full mesh
b)
star
c)
partial mesh
d)
ring
421) In Figure 5-17, network B is
a _____ WAN.
a)
full mesh
b)
star
c) partial mesh
d)
ring
422) Figure 5-17 shows images of _____ WANs.
a) mesh
b)
star
c)
peer-to-peer
d)
ring
423) Which of the following is not a method of switching?
a) datagram switching
b)
circuit switching
c)
message switching
d)
packet switching
424) Which of the following in not an example of a packet-switched network?
a)
Ethernet
b)
FDDI
c)
Frame Relay
d) ATM
425) Message switching requires that each device in a data’s path has sufficient _____ and processing power.
a)
packets
b)
messages
c) memory
d)
hard drives
426) Circuit switching is used by the following network technologies, except for _____.
a)
Asynchronous Transfer Mode – ATM
b)
Dial-up
c)
ISDN
d) Frame Relay
427) Figure 5-19 shows the _____ process.
a) CSMA/CD
b)
packet switching
c)
circuit switching
d)
message switching
428) Which of the following
statements foes not pertain to a 10Base2 network?
a)
the network is terminated with a 50-ohm resistor
b)
the maximum length of a segment is 185 meters
c)
the network uses BNC connectors
d) the network has the highest installation cost
429) Figure 5-21 shows an image of
a _____ Ethernet network.
a)
10Base2
b) 10BaseT
c)
10Base5
d)
10Base4
430) In Figure 5-21, the maximum
length of A is _____ meters.
a)
90
b)
85
c) 100
d)
10
431) In the Figure 5-21, the maximum length of B is _____ meters.
a)
90
b)
85
c) 100
d)
10
432) 100BaseTX sends the signal 10
times faster, condensing that time between digital pulses, and requires _____
twisted-pair.
a)
Cat 4 – Category 4
b)
Cat 3 – Category 3
c)
Cat 6 – Category 6
d) Cat 5 – Category 5
433) 100BaseT4 uses _____ as an access method.
a)
CSMA/CD
b) demand priority
c)
CSMA/CA
d)
tokens
434) Which of the following statements does not describe the functions of the active monitor?
a)
maintains the timing for ring passing
b)
monitors token and frame transmissions
c)
detects lost tokens
d) logs errors that occur
435) The more nodes on a bus network, the slower the network will transmit and deliver data.
a) True
b)
False
436) A disadvantage to bus networks is that they are not fault-tolerant because a break in the bus can effect the whole network.
a) True
b)
False
437) The drawback of a simple ring topology is that a single malfunctioning workstation can disable the network.
a) True
b) False
438) An advantage of token ring is that the number of nodes does not effect the response time of the network.
a) True
b) False
439) In a stat-wired bus topology, groups of workstations are star-connected to hubs and then networked via a repeater.
a)
True
b) False
440) Because the star-wired hybrids provide for modular additions, daisy chaining is a logical solution for growth.
a) True
b) False
441) Backbone are usually capable of the same throughput as the cabling that connects workstations to hubs.
a)
True
b) False
442) A collapsed backbone topology offers substantial advantages such as allowing you to interconnect different types of subnetworks, and manage maintenance and troubleshooting chores.
a) True
b) False
443) A distributive backbone also provides network administrators with the ability to segregate workgroups and therefore, manage them more easily.
a) True
b)
False
444) The most significant advantage of using a parallel backbone is that its redundant links assure network connectivity to any area of the enterprise.
a) True
b)
False
445) A peer-to-peer topology is suitable for all WAN network implementations.
a)
True
b) False
446) In a star WAN topology, a single site acts as the central connection point for several other points.
a) True
b)
False
447) One drawback to a mesh WAN is the cost of leasing dedicated circuits.
a) True
b) False
448) In circuit switching, a connection is established between two network nodes before they begin transmitting data.
a) True
b)
False
449) The destination node on a packet switched network reassembles the packets based on their arrival sequence.
a)
True
b) False
450) Live audio and video transmissions are not suited to packet switching due to the delay in the reassemble of the packets into messages.
a) True
b)
False
451) Shared Ethernet is a flexible technology that can run on a variety of network media.
a) True
b)
False
452) Jamming CSMA/CD is the process of broadcasting to the network nodes that a collision has occurred.
a) True
b)
False
453) When an Ethernet network grows to include a particularly large number of nodes, the performance will increase due to better organization.
a)
True
b) False
454) 10Base5 is rarely used today because of its thick, inflexible cable and short segment limits.
a)
True
b) False
455) In demand priority, each device on a star or hierarchical network sends a request to the central router.
a)
True
b) False
456) 100BaseT4 achieves its speed by breaking the 100 Mbps data stream into three streams of 33 Mbps and then sending the streams over three pairs of twisted-pair.
a) True
b)
False
457) A switch is a device than can separate a network segment into smaller segments.
a) True
b) False
458) The default frame type for versions 4.x and higher of the Novell Netware network is Ethernet 802.3
a)
True
b) False
459) The Ethernet II frame is similar to the Ethernet 802.3 frame, in that it has the LLC information.
a)
True
b) False
460) The frame check sequence field ensures that the data are received just as they were sent.
a) True
b)
False
461) The Ethernet 802.3 frame type is the original NetWare frams and the default for Netware versions 3.12 and lower.
a) True
b)
False
462) The Ethernet SNAP frame contains the Organization ID, a method of identifying the type of network on which the frame is running.
a) True
b)
False
463) Ethernet networks can support a maximum of only 2024 addressable nodes on a logical network.
a)
True
b) False
464) Token Ring networks use one of two frames: the IEEE 802.5 or the IBM Token Ring frame.
a) True
b)
False
465) A bus topology consists
of a single cable connecting all nodes on a network without interventing connectivity
devices.
466) At the ends of each bus network are 50-ohm resistors known as terminators.
467) A phenomenon known as signal bounce occurs when signals on a bus network travel endlessly between
the two ends of the network.
468)
Since each workstation participates in sending the token around the ring, this
architecture is known as an active
topology.
469) The star-wired bus topology commonly forms the basis for Fast Ethernet
and Ethernet networks.
470) Hubs that service star-wired bus or ring topologies can be daisy-chained to form a more complex hybrid topology.
471) A hierarchical hybrid topology uses layers to separate devices based on their priority or
function.
472) In networking, the term enterprise refers to an organization, including its local and remote offices, a
mixture of computer systems, and a number of departments.
473) The backbone is the most significant building block of an enterprise.
474) A serial backbone is the
simplest kind of backbone, which consists of two or more hubs connected by a
single cable.
475) A distributed backbone
consists of a number of hubs connected to a series of central hubs or routers
in hierarchy.
476) The collapsed backbone
topology uses a router or switch as the single central connection point for
multiple subnetworks.
477) The router or switch that makes up the collapsed backbone must contain multiprocessors to handle the heavy traffic going through it.
478) In a mesh network,
routers are interconnected with other routers with at least two pathways
connecting each router.
479) The WAN topology you choose will depend on the number of sites you must connect, the distance between the sites, and any existing infrastructure.
480) A wide area network
connecting geographically distinct locations.
481) In a ring WAN topology,
each site is connected to two other sites.
482) A WAN with a single interconnection points for each location is
arranged in a peer-to-peer
topology.
483) A continuous physical or logical connection between two access points
that are leased from a communication provider, is called a dedicated circuit.
484)
The most fault-tolerant WAN configuration that provides multiple routes for
data to follow between any two points is the mesh – mesh WAN topology.
485) In a tiered WAN topology,
sites connected in star or ring formation are interconnected at different
levels, with the interconnection points being organized into layers.
486) Because of the enormous flexibility of tiered WANs, their creation
requires careful consideration of geography, usage patterns, and growth potential.
487) The two most popular network transport systems are Token Ring and Ethernet.
488)
The component of a network’s logical topology that determines how connections
are created between nodes is called the switching component.
489)
A network transport system describes the network’s logical interconnection between nodes.
490) In circuit switching, bandwidth is dedicated to a connection and remains available until the users
terminate communication.
491) In message switching,
after a connection is established between two nodes and data is transferred,
the connection is terminated.
492)
In packet switching, the data is
broken down into packets before they are transported.
493) The greatest advantage to packet switching lies in the fact that it does not waste bandwidth by holding
a connection open.
494) The Internet is an example of a packet-switched WAN.
495) The VG in 100BaseVG stands for voice grade.
496) 100BaseT4 cannot support full duplexing because it uses the fourth wire
pair in the cable for collision detection.
497) A newer Ethernet model that enables multiple nodes to simultaneously
transmit and receive data is switched Ethernet.
498) A feature called autosense
allows NIC, through device drivers, to automatically sense what type of frames
are running on a network.
499) All Token Ring connections rely on an NIC that taps into the network through a Multistation Access Unit (MAU).
500) What are the drawbacks to simple or pure ring topologies? Simple or pure ring topologies are not very flexible or scalable. A single malfunctioning workstation can disable the network, and the more workstations that must participate in token passing, the slower the response time.
501) What is the most popular fundamental architecture used in contemporary LANs and why? The most popular architecture used in LANs today is the star topology. Because of their centralized connection point, star topologies can be easily moved, isolated, or interconnected with other networks.
502) What kind of backbone is the most robust enterprise technology and why? A parallel backbone is the most robust enterprise technology because its redundant links assure network connectivity to any area of the enterprise.
503) What are the advantages of switches on an Ethernet network? The use of a switched Ethernet increases the effective bandwidth of a network segment because fewer workstations vie for the same time in the wire. They can increase the effective data transmission rate, balance traffic loads and reduce congestion.
504) What is the purpose of an active monitor on a Token Ring network? The Active Monitor acts as the controller for token passing. It maintains the timing for ring passing, monitors token and frame transmission, detects lost tokens, and corrects errors when a timing error or other disruption occurs.
************************************************
505) The network adapters belong to the _____ layer of the OSI Model because they transmit data signals but do not analyze the data from higher layers.
a) Physical
b)
Network
c)
Data Link
d)
Sessions
506) Network cards come with different types of connectors, such as RJ-45 and _____.
a)
RJ-11
b) BNC
c)
BCN
d)
Vampire Tap
507) Which of the following in not a PC bus type?
a)
Industry Standard Architecture (ISA)
b)
Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI)
c)
Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA)
d) MicroChannel Industry Standard (MCS)
508) In Figure 6-1, the letter “A”
identifies which type of PC bus type adapter card?
a) Industry Standard Architecture (ISA)
b)
Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI)
c)
Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA)
d)
MicroChannel Industry Architecture (MCA)
509) In Figure 6-1, letter “D” identifies which type of PC bus type adapter card?
a)
Industry Standard Architecture (ISA)
b) Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI)
c)
Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA)
d)
MicroChannel Industry Architecture (MCA)
510) In Figure 6-1, letter “B” identifies which type of PC bus type adapter card?
a)
Industry Standard Architecture (ISA)
b)
Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI)
c) Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA)
d)
MicroChannel Industry Architecture (MCA)
511) In Figure 6-1, letter “C” identifies which type of PC bus type adapter card?
a)
Industry Standard Architecture (ISA)
b)
Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI)
c)
Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA)
d) MicroChannel Industry Architecture (MCA)
512) Which of the following is not
information found on a NIC’s firmware?
a)
transmission speed capabilities
b)
preferred Interrupt Request Line
c)
input/output port address
d) preferred protocol
513) Which of the following in not a step used to view the interrupt setting of a computer running Windows 95?
a)
Right-click the My Computer icon
b)
Click Properties
c) Select IRQ’s
d)
click the Device Manager tab
514) Which of the following should not be a consideration for selecting a NIC?
a)
the type of bus your system requires
b)
NIC matches the Network media
c)
NIC matches the media connectors
d) distance from wall jack
515) Figure 6-14 shows the image of a _____.
a) repeater
b)
router
c)
switch
d)
hub
516) In addition to connecting
Macintosh and PC workstations, hubs can connect _____.
a)
print servers
b)
switches
c)
file servers
d) all of the above are correct
517) Figure 6-15 is an image of a _____.
a) hub
b)
switch
c)
repeater
d)
router
518) A hub that repeats signals in
known as a _____ hub.
a)
standalone
b)
intelligent
c) passive
d)
stackable
519) A hub that serves a workgroup of computers that are isolated from the rest of the network, is called a _____ hub.
a)
Passive
b)
intelligent
c) standalone
d)
stackable
520) Hubs that are physically designed to be linked with other hubs in a single telecommunication closet are called _____ hubs.
a)
passive
b)
intelligent
c)
standalone
d) stackable
521) A _____ hub contains a system
board and slots into which you can insert different adapters.
a)
passive
b)
intelligent
c)
stackable
d) modular
522) When choosing a hub, performance, cost, size and growth need to be considered as well as _____.
a)
security
b)
management benefits
c)
reliability
d) all of the above answers are correct
523) A bridge that connects a Token Ring network and a Ethernet network is called _____ bridging.
a)
source route
b) translational
c)
destination
d)
transparent
524) A bridge on a Ethernet
network will use the _____ method to forward or filter packets.
a)
source route
b)
translational
c)
destination
d) transparent
525) A bridge on a Token Ring network will use the _____ method to forward or filter packets.
a) source route
b)
translational
c)
destination
d) transparent
526) _____ are packet fragments found on the network.
a)
frames
b)
datagrams
c) runts
d)
switches
527) The most significant advantage of the cut-through mode is its _____.
a)
size
b)
packet handling
c)
collision detection
d) speed
528) Store and forward switches can also transfer data between segments running different _____.
a)
protocols
b) speeds
c)
layers
d)
channels
529) To create a VLAN, you must configure the switch properly by _____.
a)
identifying all the ports
b)
specifying security parameters
c) filtering instructions
d)
all of the above answers are correct
530) Which of the following is not a typical router feature?
a)
has an internal processor
b)
has its own memory
c)
has input and output jacks
d) has its own hard drive
531) A router is a very flexible device and can _____.
a)
connect dissimilar networks
b)
interpret layer 3 information
c)
determine the best path for data to follow from point A to point B
d) All of the above answers are correct
532) The best path will depend on the number of hops between nodes, the current network activity, the available links, the network transmission speed, and the _____.
a)
protocol
b) topology
c)
packet sizes
d)
frame size
533) Gateway communicate with an application, establish and manage sessions, translate encoded data, and interpret _____ data.
a) addressing
b)
protocol
c)
topology
d)
routing
534) A data path on a bus equals the number of data bits that can transmit in parallel at any given time.
a) True
b)
False
535) Figure 6-3 is an example of a typical PCMCIA NIC.
a) True
b)
False
536) Firmware is a combination of software and hardware with the hardware being the ROM chip.
a) True
b)
False
537) A properly installed NIC should have some side to side movement.
a)
True
b) False
538) The trick to using multiple NICs on servers lies in correctly configuring the firmware on the server.
a)
True
b) False
539) During the installation of the NIC Drivers, to ensure that you install the correct drivers, it’s best to choose Have Disk and insert the disk that came with the NIC into the floppy drive.
a) True
b)
False
540) If IRQ conflicts occur, you must manually set a device’s IRQ rather than accepting the default suggested by the manual.
a)
True
b) False
541) A loopback plug is a connector that plugs into a port, such as a serial or parallel port, and crosses over the transmit line to the receive line.
a) True
b)
False
542) A repeater is a multiport network device that contains one port that connects to a network’s backbone.
a)
True
b) False
543) A hub is a multiport repeater that contains one port that connects to a network’s backbone.
a) True
b)
False
544) In Figure 6-15, the uplink port connects one hub to another hub in a daisy-chain or hierarchical fashion.
a) True
b)
False
545) After a hub finishes conducting a self-test, a green steady light appears. The next step is to connect patch cables from the patch panel.
a)
True
b) False
546) A bridge establishes a filtering database of known IP addresses and their locations on the network.
a)
True
b) False
547) After a hub is installed, the bridge will poll the network to discover where the destination address for each hub on the network is.
a)
hub
b) False
548) To determine the best path, routers communicate with each other through routing topologies.
a)
True
b) False
549) OSPF uses a more complex algorithm for determining best paths, than does RIP.
a) True
b)
False
550) RIP is the oldest routing protocol which only considers the hops between routers when determining the path from one point to another.
a) True
b)
False
551) Bandwidth overhead is the number of transmissions a router can handle.
a)
True
b) False
552) A routing protocol can be characterized according to its convergence time.
a) True
b)
False
553) The time that it takes a router to recognize the best path in the event of a change or outage, is called convergence time.
a) True
b)
False
554) The networking industry has adopted the term “bridge router” to describe a router that takes on some of the characteristics of bridges, such as forwarding nonroutable protocols.
a) True
b)
False
555) Gateways may connect two systems that use different formatting, communications protocols, or architecture.
a) True
b)
False
556) The capacity of a bus is defined principally by the width of its data path and its speed.
557) In Figure 6-2, an 8-bit ISA bus is labeled with the letter Q.
558) The PCMCIA slot, which
may be used to connect NICs, is available for laptops.
559) In Figure 6-2, a 16-bit ISA bus is labeled with the letter S.
560) Printer NICs often provide processing and support for seven OSI Model layers.
561) Installing a NIC requires three steps: installing the hardware, configuring the software, and configuring the firmware.
562) The ROM in firmware that can be changed is called erasable programmable read-only memory (EPROM).
563) When the plug and play technology detects the NIC, it will prompt you to choose the appropriate drivers.
564) An IRQ is the means by
which a device can request attention from the CPU.
565) Performance problems result when two devices choose the same IRQ.
566) The failure of the computer to connect to the network may indicate an interrupt conflict.
567) Depending on the system boards manufacturer, you may need to press Del,
shift+F1, F10, or Ctrl+shift+enter to invoke the CMOS setup program.
568)
The memory range indicates the
area the NIC and CPU will use for exchanging or buffering data.
569)
The base I/O port setting
specifies, in hexadecimal notation, which area of memory will act as a channel
for moving data between the NIC and the CPU.
570)
A repeater in the connectivity
device that performs the regeneration and amplification of analog and digital
signals.
571) Repeaters belong in the Physical layer of the OSI Model and therefore, have no means to interpret the
data they retransmit.
572) Hubs typically support a star or hybrid topology on an Ethernet network.
573)
Intelligent hubs can be managed from anywhere on the network and are also
referred to as managed hubs.
574) After connecting the hub, the firmware needs to be configured and in
the case of an intelligent hub, the software needs to be configured as well.
575) A device that looks like a repeater in that it has a single input port and a single output port is called a bridge.
576) A bridge operates at the data link layer of the OSI Model.
577) Because bridges cannot distinguish between protocols, bridges can move data more rapidly than traditional routers.
578)
Switches operate on the Data Link Layer of the OSI Model and can interpret MAC address information.
579)
Switches can make better use of limited bandwidth and prove more cost-efficient
than bridges because they have multiple ports.
580) Switches have historically been used to replace hubs and ease traffic congestion in LAN workgroups.
581) A switch running in cut-through mode will read a frame’s header and decide where to forward the data
before it receives the entire packet.
582) Cut-through switches cannot detect corrupt packets, however they can detect runts (packet fragments).
583) A broadcast domain is a combination of ports that make up a layer 2 segment and must be connected by a layer 3 device.
584)
In store and forward mode, a
switch reads the entire data frame into its memory and checks for accuracy
before transmitting the information.
585)
Switches can create virtual
local area networks by logically grouping a number of ports into a broadcast
domain.
586) A multiple device that can connect dissimilar LANs and WANs running at different transmission speeds and using a variety of protocols is called a router.
587) A switch capable of interpreting layer 3 data is called a layer
3 switch.
588)
Traditional standalone LAN routers are slowly being replaced by layer
3 switches.
589)
A router with multiple slots than can hold different interface cards or other
devices is called a modular
router.
590)
What are the 3 steps for installing a NIC?
The 3 steps for installing a NIC are installing the hardware, configuring the software, and configuring the firmware.
591) List at least four indications that two devices are using the same IRQ.
The indications that two devices are using the same IRQ are:
1-The computer may lock up upon
starting or when the operating system is loading.
2-The computer may run more
slowly than usual.
3- Devices, such as serial or
parallel ports, may stop working.
4- Video or sound card problems
may occur.
5- The computer may fail to
connect to the server.
6- The computer may experience
intermittent data errors during transmission.
7- In Windows NT, a blue screen full of error messages may appear and prevent the operating system from loading.
592) What are the disadvantages of a repeater? The disadvantages of a repeater are that they are limited in function and in scope. They have no means to interpret the data they retransmit and therefore cannot improve or correct a bad or erroneous signal – they only repeat it. They repeat noise along with the signal. Repeaters only have one input and output port, so they are capable of receiving and repeating only the data stream. Lastly, repeaters are only suited to bus topology.
593) Why are intelligent hubs also called managed hubs?
They are called managed hubs
because they can be managed from anywhere on the network.
594) What is one reason that routers are powerful, indispensable devices on large LANs and WANs? A router’s strength lies in its intelligence. Routers not only keep track of the locations of certain nodes on the network, but also determine the shortest and fastest path between two nodes. Also, routers can connect dissimilar network types.
************************************************
595) A WAN link is typically described as:
a)
hub-to-hub
b)
switch-to-switch
c) point-to-point
d)
site-to-site
596) Which is a way that LANs and
WANs are similar?
a)
They use the same transmission systems.
b) They primarily carry digital data
c)
They typically use coaxial or twisted-pair cabling
d) They usually have the same topologies.
597) Which WAN transmission method refers to the network of typical telephone lines that service most homes and currently uses digital transmissions over fiber-optic and copper twisted-pair cable, microwave, and satellite connections?
a)
ISDN
b) PSTN
c)
BRI
d)
DSL
598) Which WAN transmission method is an international standard established for transmitting data over digital lines and uses the telephone carrier’s lines and dial-up connections.
a) ISDN
b)
PSTN
c)
BRI
d)
DSL
599) In an ISDN connection, the “B” channel refers to:
a) bearer channel
b)
basic channel
c)
bonding channel
d)
broadband channel
600) Which WAN transmission method
is depicted in the figure?
a)
ISDN
b)
PSTN
c) BRI
d)
DSL
601) The figure below represents
differences in:
a) phase
b)
frequency
c)
amplitude
d)
all of the above
602) A relatively new transmission
technology that competes directly with ISDN and creates a dedicated circuit by
using modems at each end of the connection is called:
a)
CSU
b) DSL
c)
Cable
d)
Leased lines
603) There are currently how many
varieties of DSL?
a)
3
b)
5
c) 7
d)
10
604) The most popular form of DSL
is:
a) ADSL
b)
HDSL
c)
SDSL
d)
VDSL
605) Which is not true about cable?
a)
It provides a dedicated, or continuous, connection that does not require
dialing up a service provider.
b)
Each customer has his own line to the cable company head-end; access does not
have to be shared.
c)
The throughput of a cable line is fixed.
d)
Customers must purchase a special cable modem to transmit and receive signals
over cable wiring.
606) A T1 circuit can give a maximum data throughput of:
a)
.064 Mbps
b) 1.544 Mbps
c)
3.152 Mbps
d)
6.312 Mbps
607) Only the most data-intensive businesses, such as a computer consulting firm that provides online data backups and warehousing to a number of businesses or long-distance carriers, should use:
a)
T1s
b)
T1Cs
c)
T2s
d) T3s
608) If a T3 is installed, which must be used?
a) microwave or fiber-optic cabling
b)
shielded twisted-pair copper wiring
c)
unshielded twisted-pair copper wiring
d)
coaxial cabling
609) On a typical T1-connected data network what would be used to integrate the incoming T1 (Internet) to an Ethernet or Token Ring LAN at the customer’s site?
a)
Multiplexer
b) Router
c)
X.25
d)
SONET
610) Which is not true about FDDI?
a)
It is a networking standard originally specified by ANSI in the mid-1980s
b)
It transmits data at speeds of 100 Mbps
c)
WANs typically use this technology
d) It uses shielded twisted-pair copper wire
611) The best choice for linking WANs between North America, Europe, and Asia is:
a)
ATM
b) SONET
c)
X.25
d)
Frame Relay
612) Which is true about SONET technology?
a)
SONET provides data transfer at the same rates as X.25
b)
SONET depends on microwave transmission media
c)
SONET technology is typically used by small or medium-sized businesses
d) SONET is very reliable because of its self-healing characteristic
613) When implementing a new WAN installation or upgrade, you should consider which of the following?
a)
The kind of transmission speed required by your users and applications
b)
The kind of security needed
c)
The distance the WAN must span
d) All of the above
614) Which type of WAN technology has the fastest transmission speed?
a) SONET
b)
BRI
c)
Dial-up over PSTN
d)
T3
615) LANs and WANs are basically the same, except a WAN is bigger.
a)
True
b) False
616) ISDN is distinguished from PSTN because it relies exclusively on digital connections and can carry data and voice simultaneously.
a) True
b)
False
617) The ISDN terminal equipment is used to convert digital signals into analog signals for use with ISDN phones and other analog devices.
a)
True
b) False
618) Each ISDN connection uses only one B channel.
a)
True
b) False
619) The primary users of PRI are individual subscribers.
a)
True
b) False
620) Unlike ISDN, DSL uses a dedicated service, which means that the user does not have to dial up an ISP; the connection is always available.
a) True
b)
False
621) T1 technology typically provides faster throughput than xDSL technology.
a)
True
b) False
622) Cable is considered a symmetrical technology.
a)
True
b) False
623) Leased lines are permanent dedicated connections established through a public telecommunications carrier and billed to customers on a monthly basis.
a) True
b)
False
624) The signal level of a T-carrier refers to its Physical layer electrical signaling characteristics, as defined by ANSI standards in the early 1980s.
a) True
b)
False
625) An advantage of a fractional T1 lease is that organizations may use only some of the channels on a T1 line and be charged according to the number of channels they use.
a) True
b)
False
626) A DSU provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
a)
True
b) False
627) Every T-carrier line requires connectivity hardware at both the customer site and the local carrier’s POP.
a) True
b)
False
628) A router provides the means of combining multiple voice and/or data channels on one line.
a)
True
b) False
629) Because FDDI is relatively inexpensive, it is generally preferred over Fast Ethernet.
a)
True
b) False
630) Both X.25 and frame relay are configured as SVCs.
a)
True
b) False
631) ATM uses either PVCs or SVCs.
a) True
b)
False
632) A typical SONET network takes the form of a ring topology, similar to FDDI. One ring acts as the primary route for data and other acts as a backup.
a) True
b)
False
633) A WAN’s reliability depends partly on the transmission medium it uses.
a) True
b)
False
634) Because it is easier to configure and supports more than one type of Network Layer protocol, SLIP is preferred over PPP.
a)
True
b) False
635) A network that connects two or more geographically distinct LANs is a WAN.
636)
To achieve better throughput with a WAN, an organization might lease a
continuously available link through another carrier. This kind of connection is
a dedicated line.
637)
All ISDN connections are based on two types of channels: B channels and D
(data) channels.
638) The process which combines two 64 Kbps B channels to achieve an effective throughput of 128 Kbps is called bonding.
639)
PRI differs from BRI in that it requires the services of an extra network
termination device to handle the multiple
ISDN lines.
640)
In data modulation, one signal
alters the frequency, phase or amplitude of another signal.
641) The term downstream
refers to data traveling from the carrier’s POP to the customer.
642) Symmetrical technology provides equal capacity for data traveling
from a customer to a carrier’s POP and for data traveling from a carrier’s POP
to a customer.
643) According to the figure, which two xDSL types are asymmetrical? ADSL – VDSL
644) Fiber-optic or coaxial cable that connects a neighborhood cable node to a customer’s house is called a cable drop.
645) T-carrier transmission uses a technology called multiplexing to divide a single channel into many channels for
carrying voice, data, video, or other signals.
646) An updated, digital version of X.25, that also relies on packet switching but supports higher bandwidth is frame relay.
647) When leasing PVCs, the service provider guarantees a minimum amount of bandwidth. This is called the committed information rate (CIR).
648) The fixed packet in ATM, that consists of 48 bytes of data plus a 5-byte header is a cell.
649) The “S” in SLIP refers to serial.
650) What is ATM and what applications benefit from ATM technology? ATM, Asynchronous Transfer Mode, is a WAN transmission method that relies on a fixed packet size to achieve data transfer rates from 25 to 622 Mbps. Applications that benefits from ATM technology include those involving time-sensitive data, such as video, audio, imaging, and other extremely large file transfers.
651) What are VPNs and why are they used? VPNs, virtual private networks, are long distance networks logically defined over public transmission systems that serve all of an organization’s users, but isolate that organization’s traffic form other users of the same public lines. They provide a way of constructing a WAN from existing public transmission systems.
652) Who typically uses PSTN, and what are its disadvantages? PSTN, Public Switched Telephone Network, is typically adequate for at-home LAN or Internet users. The disadvantages of PSTN are its inability to ensure the quality or throughput (capacity) required by many WAN applications.
653) What are the three ways to connect as a remote user to a LAN? The three ways to remotely connect to a LAN are: dial directly to the LAN, dial directly to a workstation, or use an Internet connection with a Web interface.
654) What is the difference between asynchronous transmission methods? Asynchronous refers to a communication method in which data being transmitted and received by nodes do not have to conform to any timing scheme. A node can transmit at any time and the destination node must accept the transmission as it comes. Synchronous is a communication method in which data being transmitted and received by nodes must conform to a timing scheme.
************************************************
655) Which is not one of the three
most common network operating systems used today?
a) Banyan VINES
b)
Windows NT server
c)
NetWare
d)
UNIX
656) Which is not a disadvantage
of Windows NT server?
a)
The administrator must be physically present at the server console to manage
most of its functions.
b)
Any change to the system’s configuration requires restarting the server.
c)
The installation process requires the administrator to know a great deal about
the network before copying files.
d) It doesn’t support 32-bit programs.
657) Which is not true about Windows NT server?
a)
Technical support is readily available
b) It is fully scalable
c)
Its graphical interface makes it a simple operating system to administer.
d)
It provides excellent security.
658) What list does Microsoft
produce to assist customers in determining what kind of Windows NT hardware to
purchase?
a)
Product List
b) Hardware Compatibility List
c)
Resource List
d)
Requirement List
659) Which type of file system is read-only and used to access resources on a CD-ROM disk?
a)
HPFS
b) CDFS
c)
HPRS
d) CDRS
660) Which file systems do you need to be least concerned with when installing a Windows NT server?
a) HPFS
b)
FAT
c)
NTFS
d)
CDFS
661) Which file system organizes
data in contiguous blocks, allows data to wait in memory if the processor is
too busy to accept it, and assign information about other data on the disk to
each block of data.
a)
HPSS
b) HPFS
c)
NTFS
d)
NTS
662) Which file system was developed expressly for Windows NT Workstation and Windows NT Server and integrates reliability, compression, the ability to handle massive files, and fast access?
a)
MSFS
b)
FAT
c)
HPFS
d) NTFS
663) The figure illustrates what kind of relationship?
a) One-way domain
b)
Single-point domain
c)
PDC/BDC domain
d)
all of the above
664) The figure illustrates what kind of domain model?
a)
Slave domain model
b) Master domain model
c)
Master-resource model
d)
Full domain model
665) The figure illustrates what kind of domain model?
a)
No master domain model
b)
Master domain model
c)
Multiple domain model
d)
Complete trust domain model
666) Which browser keeps the browse list?
a)
Backup browser
b)
Domain master browser
c) Master browser
d)
Both B and C
667) By default, the PDC is also
which browser for its domain?
a)
Backup browser
b)
Domain master browser
c) Master browser
d)
Both B and C
668) Which is true about a server’s domain name?
a) The name should describe the logical group of servers and the users they support
b)
The maximum number of alphanumeric characters that can be used is 16
c)
Chicago:Dallas is an acceptable name
d)
All of the above
669) When installing a new server to exclusively serve processing-intensive applications to users, it should be installed as a:
a) Member server
b)
PDC
c)
BDC
d)
Domain controller
670) If your Windows NT server must communicate with a NetWare server, you should also install:
a)
NetBEUI
b)
NWLink IPX/SPX Compatible Protocol
c)
Gateway Services for NetWare
d) Both B and C
671) Which is not an option used in controlling the management of a user’s password?
a) User Decides When Password Changes
b)
User Must Change Password at Next Logon
c)
User Cannot Change Password
d)
Account Disabled
672) Which type of group can contain users and resources from multiple domains?
a)
Local group
b)
Everyone group
c)
Administrator group
d) Global group
673) To allow a Windows NT server to access files and other shared resources on any NetWare server on the network, install:
a)
NWConv
b) GSNW
c)
NetWare Share
d)
NWLink
674) Which migration utility allows the conversion of existing NetWare servers to Windows NT servers?
a)
GSNW
b)
NWLink
c) NWConv
d)
NTNW
675) The OSI Model usefully describes all aspects of network operating systems.
a)
True
b) False
676) One of the most important questions to ask when purchasing a network operating system is what kinds of applications will run on the server.
a) True
b)
False
677) In general, symmetric processing completes operations more quickly because the processing load is more evenly distributed.
a) True
b)
False
678) To run a Windows NT 4.0 server, the hard drive should be supported by Windows NT and have a minimum of 110 MB free.
a) True
b)
False
679) Windows NT Server 4.0 supports 64-bit addressing.
a)
True
b) False
680) Physical memory requires no user or administrator intervention and is accessed without the client’s knowledge.
a)
True
b) False
681) FAT32 improves upon the original file system and is optimal for Windows NT servers.
a)
True
b) False
682) HPFS is required for Macintosh connectivity.
a)
True
b) False
683) A slave server is a server that takes no responsibility for managing accounts or security.
a)
True
b) False
684) Each domain can only have one PDC.
a) True
b)
False
685) Before trust relationships are removed, the administrator should make sure that no users depend on those relationships.
a) True
b) False
686) As long as trust relationships exist between domains, the administrator does not need to worry about assigning permissions on trusted servers.
a)
True
b) False
687) Full synchronization means that all modifications to user account information are transmitted to the other domain controllers in a domain.
a)
True
b) False
688) When determining what kind of disk controllers a server has, you may either let Windows NT autodetect your hardware or you may make specific choices from a list of hardware to identify your controllers.
a) True
b)
False
689) When installing Windows NT Server use the express setup option if you want to quickly select which services and programs are installed to meet your specific requirements.
a)
True
b) False
690) The per client licensing mode requires a license for every client capable of connecting to the Windows NT server.
a)
True
b) False
691) Even when installing Windows NT from a CD-ROM drive, you will still need the 3 setup floppy disks.
a) True
b)
False
692) To enhance security, the administrator should create a new user ID with administrative privileges to perform network administration and disable the Administrator user ID.
a) True
b)
False
693) Groups form the basis for resource and account management for every type of network operating systems, not just Windows NT server.
a) True
b)
False
694) Windows NT Server can communicate with almost any kind of client and any kind of network operating system.
a)
True
b) False
695) Multiprocessing is a technique which splits tasks among more than
one processor to expedite the completion of any single instruction.
696) A pictorial representation of computer functions that, in the case of network operating systems, enables administrators to more easily manage files, users, groups, and so on is called a GUI –graphical user interface.
697) The minimum amount of memory required for a Windows NT 4.0 server is 16 MB RAM.
698) Memory that is logically carved out of space on the hard disk is called
virtual memory.
699) The hidden file positioned at the beginning of a partition that keeps track of used and unused allocation units on that partition is called a fat allocation table (FAT).
700)
NTFS stores file size information in 64-bit fields.
701) A group of users, servers, and other resources that share account and security information is called a domain.
702) The “B” in BDC stands for backup.
703) The Microsoft term that means to grant a higher authority to a server is promote.
704) The relationship between domains that makes it possible for users in
one domain to access resources in another domain is a trust relationship.
705) A network computer that tracks the location, availability, and identity of shared devices is a browser.
706) A vote between computers to determine which one will take responsibility for maintaining the master browse list is a browser election.
707) An emergency repair disk
is used to restore a Windows NT server to its previous, working hardware
configuration if its configuration becomes irreparably botched.
708)
In Microsoft terminology, a wizard
is a simple graphical program that assists you in performing complex tasks.
709)
To be fully compatible, operating systems must also run compatible client
redirectors, which are the services
required for a client to access a server over a network.
710)
What are 4 questions that should be asked when deciding to invest in a network
operating system?
Questions that should be asked
are: Is it compatible with my existing infrastructure? Will it provide the
security required by my resources? Can my technical staff manage it
effectively? Will my applications run smoothly on it? Will it accommodate
future growth? Does it support the additional services my users require? How
much does it cost? What kind of
support does the vendor offer?
711)
What are the differences between Windows NT Server and Windows NT Workstation? Windows
NT Workstation can act as a central repository for shared resources, but it is
not designed to act as a network operating system. Windows NT Workstation can
accept only 10 simultaneous connections and support only two processors; it
does not support redundant hard disks. Its print sharing, Web services, and
remote access capabilities are less sophisticated than those of Windows NT
Server. In addition, the workstation product doesn’t provide interfaces for
other operating platforms such as Netware.
712) When would a two-way domain trust relationship be used? A two-way domain trust relationship is used in WAN situations when two or more locations manage their own domains but need to share information.
713) What is a multiple master domain model and when would it be used? A
multiple master domain model uses two or more master domains that are joined in
two-way trusts to manage many resource domains. Users can log on to a single
master domain and use resources from several resource domains. This model
provides the option of centrally managing all user IDs, groups and account
information but also decentralized administration. In addition, this model
allows users to log in from anywhere on the network, whether on the LAN or on a
WAN mode.
714) What is synchronization? Synchronization is the process undertaken by a PDC and its BDCs to keep identical user account information in both of their user databases.
************************************************
715) The NetWare operating system is developed by:
a)
Microsoft
b)
NetWare
c)
SUN
d) Novell
716) The first version of NetWare
to support intranet services such as Web server software, IP address
management, and FTP hosting is:
a)
NetWare 3.1
b)
NetWare 3.2
c)
NetWare 4.0
d) NetWare 4.11
717) Which was the first version
of NetWare to provide a network operating system wholly based on the IP
protocol, which is the de facto protocol of the Internet.
a)
NetWare 3.2
b)
NetWare 4.11
c) NetWare 5.0
d)
NetWare 6.0
718) Which versions of NetWare replaced the DOS commands with a graphical user interface in an attempt to make the software more user-friendly?
a)
NetWare 2.x
b)
NetWare 3.x
c) NetWare 4.x
d)
NetWare 5.x
719) Which versions of NetWare can
handle Ethernet or Token Ring networks?
a) NetWare 4.x and NetWare 5.0
b)
All versions
c)
NetWare 4.1 and NetWare 4.11
d)
NetWare 4.2 and NetWare 4.11
720) Which is not true?
a)
NetWare does not require you to restart the server whenever you change its
configuration.
b)
All versions of NetWare can run multiple services simultaneously and allow the
network administrator to isolate some processes from others or change the
priority of critical applications.
c)
NetWare provides encryption and applications-level security measures to prevent
intruders from hacking into the server or its resources.
d) All versions of NetWare support virtual memory.
721) What amount of memory is recommended for better performance in a NetWare 5.0 server?
a)
20 MB
b)
64 MB
c) 100 MB
d)
128 MB
722) The “L” in NLM refers to:
a) Loadable
b)
Linear
c)
Logical
d)
List
723) Which is true?
a)
NetWare 4.x uses only text-based server menus at the console.
b)
The network administrator’s primary interface to a NetWare server is the server
console.
c)
NetWare 5.0 uses text-based and graphical menus at the console.
d) All of the above
724) Where would this figure be displayed?
a)
Administrator terminal screen
b)
Workstation screen
c) Server console screen
d)
All of the above
725) Which volume is automatically created during the installation of NetWare?
a)
DATA
b)
APPS
c)
SYS1
d) SYS
726) Which versions of NetWare support file compression?
a)
All versions
b) NetWare 4.x and NetWare 5.0
c)
NetWare 5.0 only
d)
No versions
727) In the NDS logical representation, which objects act as the branches and hold the other objects that belong together?
a)
Branch objects
b) Container objects
c)
Leaf objects
d)
Logical objects
728) In the NDS logical representation, which object does not contain other objects?
a)
End object
b)
Container object
c) Leaf object
d)
Organizational unit
729) A print queue is an example of what kind of NDS object?
a)
Tree object
b)
Organizational unit object
c) Leaf object
d)
Branch object
730) Which is true about installing NetWare?
a) Installation is possible from a CD, floppy disks, or another server on the network
b)
The NetWare 4.x and 5.0 installations are identical.
c)
The server should have DOS version 6.x or higher
d)
None of the above
731) How many NetWare partitions are allowed per physical disk?
a) One
b)
Two
c)
Five
d)
Unlimited
732) When installing NetWare 4.x or 5.0, the default administrator user ID is:
a)
SUPERUSER
b) ADMIN
c)
SUPERVISOR
d)
ADMINISTRATOR
733) During a NetWare installation, which default group is created?
a) Public
b)
Everyone
c)
User
d)
Group
734) Which function must be performed from the server console?
a)
Managing Windows NT resources
b)
Moving objects from one container to another
c)
Assigning file system rights to objects in a tree
d) Changing partitions
735) As a testament to the high reliability of the earlier versions of NetWare, many have not been replaced with later, more enhanced versions.
a) True
b)
False
736) NetWare can use many as 32 internal processors.
a) True
b)
False
737) Each installed NLM consumes the same amount of resources.
a)
True
b) False
738) Since good-quality memory chips have become very inexpensive, do not force a server to rely on the slower virtual memory to handle its typical processing loads.
a) True
b)
False
739) An NLM is never considered part of the kernel.
a)
True
b) False
740) The NetWare server console prompt looks identical to a DOS prompt.
a)
True
b) False
741) Since only a limited number of NLMs are available, most developers write their own to handle special needs.
a)
True
b) False
742) NetWare supports DOS, Macintosh, UNIX, OS/2 and Windows’ long file names.
a) True
b)
False
743) Plan carefully before establishing a server’s volume and directory structure, because once they are established, they are very difficult to change.
a) True
b)
False
744) Because NetWare uses file systems rather than modules to support access by other operating systems, file/directory size limitations and performances do not vary between NetWare volumes or servers.
a)
True
b) False
745) Even though the NetWare operating system can determine which of its own files can be compressed safely, you should verify that the other systems files and applications (i.e., older DOS-based databases) will work when compressed.
a) True
b)
False
746) NDS treats every networked resource as a separate object with distinct properties. Each object can then be centrally managed from a single interface.
a) True
b)
False
747) For each organization, there is one correct way to arrange an NDS tree.
a)
True
b) False
748) NW Admin allows administrators to manage objects in an NDS tree.
a) True
b)
False
749) NDS and the NetWare file system are identical terms.
a)
True
b) False
750) Both NetWare 4.x and NetWare 5.0 run TCP/IP natively.
a)
True
b) False
751) Once you have completed the NetWare installation, the decisions you made about items such as server name, what kinds of network adapter cards, protocols, and services the server will use can be found by typing “help config” at the console prompt.
a)
True
b) False
752) If you forget the administrator password you choose during the installation process, you must reinstall the NetWare operating system.
a) True
b)
False
753) The NDS for NT tool enables Windows NT domains to appear as objects in NWAdmin.
a) True
b)
False
754) Certain file system operations, such as creating files and directories can only be accomplished from NWAdmin.
a)
True
b) False
755) NetWare 5.0 is different from its previous versions in that many of its
interfaces and services rely on the Java programming language.
756) To run services in a separate memory area from the operating system,
you must run the service in protected mode.
757) At the heart of NetWare lies the kernel or the core of the operating system.
758) The process of saving frequently used data to an area of the physical memory where it will be readily available for future requests is caching.
759)
To find out which NLMs are currently running on your NetWare server, type modules at the prompt.
760) To better understand the NLM Monitor command, type help
monitor at the prompt.
761) The figure illustrates space being used more efficiently by employing which technique? block suballocation
762) A unit of disk space and the smallest unit of disk space that can be controlled by the NetWare systems is called a block.
763) NDS stands for NetWare Directory Services.
764) The logical representation of resources in a NetWare enterprise is called the NDS tree.
765) OU=Receivables.OU=Acctg.O=Sutkin is an example of typeful notation.
766)
Receivables.Acctg.Sutkin is an example of typeless
notation.
767) The term that indicates where a particular object belongs in the NDS representation is context.
768) A reference for the logical design of a network which guides the creating, use, and design of objects, hierarchy rules, and policies in an NDS representation is called a schema.
769) To speed up the installation of NetWare, use the simple installation rather than the custom installation.
770)
What are the 5 questions that need to be answered when choosing a network
operating system? The questions that should be asked are: Can it be
integrated with my existing infrastructure? Will it provide the security
required by my resources? Is my technical staff capable of managing it? Will my
application run smoothly on it? Will it accommodate future growth? Does it
support the additional services required by my users? How much does it cost?
What kind of support is offered by the vendor?
771) What are 4 questions that should be considered when determining the
optimal hardware for a server? The questions that should be
considered are: How many clients will connect to the server? What kinds of
applications will run on the server? How much storage space will each user
need? How much down time is acceptable? What can your organization afford?
772) What is caching and why is it used? Caching is the process of saving frequently used data to an area of the physical memory where it will be readily available for future requests. It accelerates the process of accessing the server because the operating system does not have to search for the requested data on the disk.
773) What does the NLM Monitor do? The Monitor NLM provides a series of menus that allow the configuration of NICs, protocols, bindings, security, connections, and many more server parameters.
774) When installing NetWare, what should one do to enhance the security of the system files? After installing Netware, create an additional volume for the data files. Thus the system files will be on a separate volume than the data files and can be protected from accidental deletion.
************************************************
775) Which is the oldest operating system?
a)
Windows NT
b)
NetWare
c) UNIX
d)
TCP/IP
776) Today, computers running UNIX account for more than what percent of Internet servers?
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
50%
d) 80%
777) Which is not a freely distributed UNIX-like implementation?
a)
Linux
b)
GNU
c)
FreeBSD
d) AIX
778)
Today, ownership of the UNIX system is shared by:
a)
AT&T and UCB
b) The Santa Cruz Operation and The Open Group
c)
Sun Microsystems and IBM
d)
HP and Microsoft
779) Which is not true about all UNIX versions?
a)
They are true multiuser systems.
b)
They have consistent interface for file, device and interprocess input/output.
c)
They have the ability to start processes in the background.
d) They may be used as network operating systems.
780) Which is an advantage of
choosing a version of UNIX such as GNU, FreeBSD or Linux?
a)
Support for these types of systems is readily available and topnotch.
b)
Workstation vendors who ship these versions of UNIX invest a great deal of time
in ensuring that their software runs as well as fast as possible on their
hardware.
c) Customers can add functionality to the software.
d)
All of the above.
781) Linux was developed in the:
a)
1960s
b)
1970s
c)
1980s
d) 1990s
782) An open source software package that is a complete Windows NT-style file and printer sharing facility is:
a)
FreeShare
b)
NFS
c) Samba
d)
NT-source
783) UNIX systems offer which
option as part of the basic operating system?
a)
TCP/IP protocol suites
b)
Firewalling and routing programs
c)
Domain name service and automatic IP address assignment
d) all of the above
784) Which is not mandatory in a UNIX server’s base unit?
a)
Floppy disk drive
b) Video card
c)
CD-ROM drive
d)
NIC
785) The leading Internet Web server is an open source software application called:
a)
Webserv
b)
Interweb
c) Apache
d)
Comanche
786) The online documentation for all Linux commands is called:
a)
command list
b) manual pages
c)
help
d)
command interpreter
787) What character is used to separate directory names in Linux?
a)
|
b)
;
c)
\
d) /
788) What character is used to connect two commands in Linux?
a) |
b)
;
c)
\
d)
/
789) Which Linux command allows a change in the access rights of a file?
a) chmod
b)
changright
c)
mv
d)
grep
790) Which Linux command would you use to start a virtual terminal connection to an IP address or a host name?
a)
ftp
b) telnet
c)
start
d)
virtual
791) Which Linux command displays a list of users currently logged in?
a)
userlist
b) who
c)
ps
d)
log
792) “-rwxr-xr-x” means that who has all rights to this file?
a)
the group
b) the owner
c)
everyone else
d)
the group and the owner
793) Which is not used to designate a valid file type in Linux?
a)
r
b)
b
c)
c
d) l
794) The command “useradd –g programs –G management joyce” specifies the initial group as:
a) programs
b)
management
c)
management joyce
d)
useradd
795) UNIX is controlled and distributed by Sun Microsystems.
a)
True
b) False
796) Linux grew out of an independent effort to create an operating system that behaves like the trademarked UNIX operating system.
a) True
b)
False
797) UNIX is typically used for real-time applications, where the operating system must respond to input immediately.
a)
True
b) False
798) One of the advantages of purchasing a UNIX system such as Solaris, is that the vendor typically strives to maintain backward compatibility with new releases and schedules the new releases at regular intervals.
a) True
b)
False
799) Like NetWare, UNIX allows you to change the server’s configuration without restarting the server.
a) True
b)
False
800) In UNIX, the use of a graphical user interface remains optimal.
a) True
b)
False
801) Like Windows NT and NetWare, UNIX servers and workstations vary considerably.
a)
True
b) False
802) The Linux kernel and other system initialization files are contained in the /bin directory.
a)
True
b) False
803) When a new Linux user, Bob, is created, the login directory would be /login/bob.
a)
True
b) False
804) Linux allows you to access partitions formatted with the DOS FAT file system, the Windows NT NTFS file system (in read only mode), and the OS/2 HPFS file system.
a)True
b)
False
805) Two or more commands connected by the “|” symbol are called a pipeline.
a) True
b)
False
806) To display the last 10 lines of a file the “tail” command is used.
a) True
b)
False
807) The command names in the Linux system reflect the culture of communication with large corporations. Many commands are abbreviations or acronyms.
a) True
b)
False
808) GREP stands for General Regulation Expression Protocol.
a)
True
b) False
809) same as 808
810) To display the contents of the file, use the “disp” command.
a)
True
b) False
811) The fastest way to install Linux is over a network using FTP.
a)
True
b) False
812) A series of brief, highly focused documents giving Linux system details are called HOWTO.
a) True
b)
False
813)
a)
True
b) False
814) The “useradd” command adds a new user to the system and creates a default password.
a)
True
b) False
815) Linux differs from other operating systems during the password enter process. When you create a password for the first time, you can see the character appear on the screen as you type them. When you change the password, you will not see the characters appear as you type.
a)
True
b) False
816) Linux passwords are not case-sensitive.
a)
True
b) False
817) Versions of UNIX that come from the Bell Labs are known as System V.
818) The “B” in BSD stands for Berkeley.
819) An implementation of UNIX for which the source code is either
unavailable or available only by purchasing a licensed copy is known as proprietary UNIX.
820) RedHat, Caldera, and Slackware are often referred to as the different flavors of Linux.
821) A system to which users must attach directly so as to use the shared
resources of the computer is called a time-sharing system.
822)
The security specification for computer operating systems published in 1985 by
the Department of Defense is called Orange Book certification.
823) The minimum RAM requirements for a Linux server is 64 MB RAM.
824) To add or remove functionally from the kernel, you must load or unload kernel modules.
825) The program that accepts your typing and runs the commands for you is called a command interpreter.
826) To access Linux’s online documentation to find out more about the sort
command, type man sort in a
Linux command window.
827) Globbing is a form of file substitution, similar to the use
of wildcards Windows and DOS.
828) The administrative user in a Linux installation is root.
829)
To add a new group to the system, use the groupadd command.
830) Use the passwd command
to change another user’s password while logged into the system as the
administrative user.
831) To create a new directory, use the mkdir command.
832)
What is a major drawback of choosing a UNIX system such as HP-UX, Solaris, or
AIX? The major drawback of choosing a proprietary system is that the
customer has no access to the system’s source code and thus cannot create a
custom solution.
833) same as 770
834) How do UNIX systems handle resource sharing differently than other
operating system? Other operating systems can’t share all resources
because users don’t attach directly to the system; instead, they simply use its
resources over the LAN. UNIX operating systems use a time-sharing system, in
which a user can attach directly to and use all resources of another system.
835) How does UNIX handle the numbering of processes and is it beneficial? Each process represents an instance or a running program in memory, and the UNIX kernel allocates separate resources to each process as it is created. It also manages all programs’ access to these resources. This approach enables partitioning of processes in memory, thereby preventing one program from disrupting the operation of the entire system. So, if one program ends unexpectedly, it doesn’t cause the whole computer to crash.
836) When should you use the “apropos” command and what does it do? Use the “apropos” command followed by a keyword (for example, apropos list) when you don’t know the command you want to use. The “apropos” command displays all commands and programming functions that include the keyword typed in their manual page entries.
************************************************
837) How big is an IP address?
a) 8 bits
b)
16 bits
c)
32 bits
d) 64 bits
838) Which network class does this figure represent?
a)
Class A
b) Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
839) An IP address whose first octet is in the range of 128-191 belongs to which network class?
a)
Class A
b) Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
840) Which network class could have a total of more than 16 million possible addresses per network?
a) Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
841) Which is not true?
a)
With subnetting, a network manager can use one class of addresses for several
network segments.
b)
A subnetted address includes network, subnet, and host information
c)
Subnetting was implemented throughout the Internet on the mid-1980s
d) Subnetting adds a 4th type of octet to the standard IP address
842) What is the default submask for a Class B network?
a)
255.255.0.0
b)
255.0.0.0
c)
0.255.0.0
d)
0.0.255.255
843) You might not want to use subnetting if:
a)
You have a very small network
b)
If you never want to connect to the Internet and therefore do not have to
follow IP addressing standards.
c)
If your organization has more IP addresses than it can ever conceivably use
d) all of the above
844) Default gateways:
a)
May only connect multiple internal networks
b) Must maintain routing tables
c)
Must be present on all networks
d)
Must be assigned manually
845) Which port number is associated with FTP?
a) 21
b)
25
c)
23
d)
49
846) Port 80 is associated with which services?
a)
SMTP
b)
TFTP
c) HTTP
d)
SNMP
847) The figure at the right illustrates which service?
a)
FTP
b)
BGP
c) Telnet
d)
FTP-DATA
848) Which type of organization would use the ORG top-level domain suffix?
a) Noncommercial groups
b)
Government
c)
Commercial groups
d)
US military organization
849) When configuring DNS, which piece of information needs to be entered?
a) Name server IP address
b)
Name server name
c)
Network name
d)
Gateway name
850) Which service was developed in the mid-1980s to facilitate IP address management, and uses a central list of IP addresses and their associated devices’ MAC addresses to dynamically assign IP addresses to clients.
a)
BSP protocol
b) BOOTP
c)
DHCP
d)
ARP
851) The term used when a DHCP generated IP address is no longer needed is:
a) Release
b)
Terminate
c)
Erase
d)
Remove
852) Which does not rely on SMTP?
a)
POP2
b) HTTP
c)
IMAP
d)
POP3
853) Which command would you use to display TCP/IP statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connection?
a)
nbstat
b) netstat
c)
nslookup
d)
traceroute
854) Which command would you use to determine if router of subnet connectivity problems exist?
a)
nbstat
b)
netstat
c)
nslookup
d) traceroute
855) The text-based utility that allows one to navigate through a series of menus to find and read specific files is called:
a)
FTP
b)
URL
c) Gopher
d)
Navigator
856) The first industries to take advantage of
e-commerce were:
a)
Military and government
b)
Stock trading and medical
c)
Training and consulting
d) Retail and finance
857) Every IP address is grouped into three 8-bit octets.
a)
True
b) False
858) An IP address that is configured manually is called a static address.
a) True
b)
False
859) 144:92.43.178 is a valid IP address.
a)
True
b) False
860) Due to the increasing demand for Internet addresses, a new addressing scheme, IP version 6, is being developed and will be able to supply the world with enough addresses to last well into the 21st century.
a) True
b)
False
861) A machine with the IP address of 166.144.40.12 is on the same subnet as a machine with the IP address of 166.144.60.12
a)
True
b) False
862) Since there is no listing of port numbers and associated services online, you should keep a hard copy of this data next to the server.
a)
True
b) False
863) SNMP is associated with port 179 and uses UDP protocol.
a)
True
b) False
864) Every host is a member of a domain
a) True
b)
False
865) A host name may contain any alphanumeric combination with a maximum of 63 characters and may contain hyphens, underscores, or periods.
a) True
b)
False
866) The Name area consists of the actual database of Internet IP addresses and their associated names.
a)
True
b) False
867) A root server is a name server.
a) True
b)
False
868) With DHCP a device is assigned an IP address the first time it attaches to the network. It will use that IP address for all future logins to that network.
a)
True
b) False
869) One of the benefits of using WINS is that it guarantees that every device on the network has a unique NetBIOS name.
a) True
b)
False
870) To find a device’s own IP address, ARP can be used.
a)
True
b) False
871) In addition to transporting mail, SMTP performs many other functions such as storing messages.
a)
True
b) False
872) IMAP is the language that Web clients and servers use to communicate.
a)
True
b) False
873) HTTP is often used to troubleshoot TCP/IP problems.
a)
True
b) False
874) Since e-mail is the most frequently used and therefore the most relied-upon Internet service needing to be managed, it is critical to know how to support and troubleshoot an organization’s e-mail package.
a) True
b)
False
875) FFT manages file transfers between TCP/IP hosts.
a)
True
b) False
876) External routers (such as those on the Internet) to not recognize subnets on specific LANs.
a) True
b)
False
877) The most common way of expressing IP addresses is the dotted
decimal notation, which is the “shorthand”
convention used to represent IP addresses and make them more easily readable by
people.
878) Multicasting allows one device to send data to a specific group
of devices (not the whole network) in a point-to-point fashion. Class D
addresses are reserved for this type of transmission.
879) The combination of an address’s network and subnet information is its extended network prefix.
880) A subnet mask is a
special 32-bit number that, when combined with a device’s IP address, informs
the rest of the network about the network class to which the device is
attached.
881) In Figure 11-6, the “?” symbols refer to what? routers
882) A logical address assigned to a specific process running on a host computer is a socket.
883) What would be the resulting socket address of a service with an IP address of 10.43.3.87 and an associated port number of 23? 10.43.3.87.23
884) Gateways that make up the Internet backbone are called core gateways and are managed by the Internet Network
Operations Center.
885) What does the third column in the figure contain? aliases
886) The hierarchical way of tracking domain names and their addresses,
which was developed in the mid-1980s is called the Domain Name System.
887) Any hosts on the Internet that need to look up domain name information are called resolvers.
888) When a device uses an IP address while it is attached to a network, it
is said to lease that address.
889) The “H” in HTTP stands for hypertext.
890) To access the Web, the client requires TCP/IP protocol, a unique IP address, a connection to the Internet, and a browser.
891) Newsgroups are an Internet service similar to e-mail that provide
a means of conveying messages, but in which information is distributed to a
wide group of users at once rather than from one user to another.
892) Another growing Web-based service is Internet telephony, the provision of telephone service over the internet.
893) Should each device on a TCP/IP-based network have unique IP address?
Why or why not? Yes, each device should have a unique IP address to
ensure accurate delivery of data. Without unique IP addresses, data could not
be routed between networks and devices.
894) Why are gateways important in the context of IP addressing? In IP addressing a gateway facilitates communication between different subnets. Because one device on the network cannot send data directly to a device on another subnet, a gateway must intercede and hand off the information.
895) Why is the DNS database so stable?
The DNS database does not rely on one file or even one server, but rather is distributed over several key computers across the Internet to prevent catastrophic failure if one or a few computers go down.
896) What are 3 reasons that DHCP is the preferred way to assign IP addresses? DHCP is used because it: 1. Reduces the time and planning spent on IP address management because it is handled in an automated fashion. 2. Reduces the possibility for errors because no typing of addresses is needed. 3. Users can move their workstations and printers without having to change their TCP/IP configuration as long as the device is configured to obtain its IP address from a central server. 4. IP addressing is transparent for mobile users. 5. The network administrator does not have to maintain a table of IP and MAC addresses on the server.
897) What is pinging and when would it be used? Pinging is the process of sending an echo request signal from one node on a TCP/IP network to another. It verifies whether the node in question has its TCP/IP services running and might be used to see if a network connection is working.
************************************************
898) Which is typically the first step performed when troubleshooting a network problem?
a)
Consider recent changes on the network
b)
Ensure that the problem can be recreated accurately
c) Identify the specific symptoms of the problem
d)
Verify the logical integrity of the network connection
899) Asking questions such as “How many users or network segments are affected?” or “When did the problem begin?” will help:
a)
Identify the symptoms
b) Determine the scope of the problem
c)
Verify user competency
d)
Recreate the problem
900) If the problem affects an entire department or floor of the organization, the troubleshooter should investigate:
a)
The WAN link
b)
The cabling between the backbone and the switch
c)
An individual workstation’s NIC and cabling
d) The network segment’s router interface
901) Which question would be asked
to identify the chronological scope of the problem?
a) Did the symptoms appear in the last hour of the day?
b)
Is the problem universal?
c)
Were the workstations configured similarly, at the same time, or by the same
person?
d)
Do the workstations use the same type of hardware?
902) If a single user cannot log in to the network, and is typing his password correctly, the troubleshooter should:
a)
Verify the router is properly connected to the backbone.
b)
Replace the workstation
c) Verify that the workstation’s network cable is properly connected to its NIC and the wall jack.
d)
Reboot the network.
903) Which is true about testing the solution to a problem?
a)
Having the user test the solution gives an objective assessment of the results.
b)
It ensures that the device is left in a state that is familiar to the user.
c)
It ensures that original problem has been solved.
d) All of the above.
904) Someone who has specialized knowledge in one or more aspects of a network and typically does not take initial problem calls is called a:
a)
Guru
b) Second-level support analyst
c)
First-level support analyst
d)
Operations manager
905) A person who handles items such as budget, tool purchases, and infrastructure decisions is called an:
a)
Help desk coordinator
b)
Second-level manager
c)
Budget manager
d) Operations manager
906) Systems such as Expert Advisor, Remedy, and Vantive are examples of:
a)
Change management systems
b)
Inventory systems
c) Call tracking systems
d)
Problem documentation systems
907) A document containing information about all the services and software packages supported within an organization and the various support levels is a:
a) Supported services list
b)
Product list
c)
Resources list
d)
Online help list
908) By some estimates, more than
what percentage of all network problems derive from defective or improper
wiring?
a)
10%
b)
25%
c) 50%
d)
75%
909) A good cable checker will:
a)
Measure the distance to a cable fault
b)
Ensure that the cable is not too long
c) Verify that the wires are paired correctly
d)
All of the above
910) A basic cable checker costs:
a)
Less than $100
b) Between $100 and $300
c)
Between $300 and $1000
d)
Over $1000
911) To measure near-end crosstalk between wires, which is used?
a) Cable tester
b)
Cable checker
c)
Either a cable tester or a cable checker
d)
Neither a cable tester nor a cable checker
912) To verify that wires are not shorted, exposed, or crossed, which is used?
a)
Cable tester
b)
Cable checker
c) Either a cable tester or a cable checker
d)
Neither a cable tester nor a cable checker
913) What is the result of crosstalk?
a) Interference
b)
Inability to access information
c)
Loss of a data link
d)
Network crash
914) To determine if two or more stations are transmitting simultaneously, which is used?
a)
Cable tester
b)
Cable checker
c)
Both a cable tester or a cable checker
d) Neither a cable tester nor a cable checker
915) Which is true?
a)
Network monitors are more expensive than network analyzers
b) Network monitoring tools are often included in the network operating system software
c)
Network monitors can capture passwords going over the network, if their
transmission is not encrypted
d)
NetXray is a network monitor
916) Which is not true?
a) A jabber usually results from a line without enough throughput.
b)
A jabber effectively brings the network to a halt.
c)
A jabber is a device that handles electrical signals improperly.
d)
A network analyzer will detect a jabber as a device that is always
retransmitting.
917) The minimum Ethernet packet size is:
a)
8 bytes
b)
16 bytes
c)
32 bytes
d) 64 bytes
918) When diagnosing network problems, if the questions seems too simple to bother asking, you probably don’t need to ask it.
a)
True
b) False
919) If a user cannot access email, and the troubleshooter, when logged in as the user, cannot access email but can access email as an administrator (or equivalent), the problem probably lies in the user’s access rights to email.
a) True
b)
False
920) Asking a question such as “Do error messages reference damaged or missing files to device drivers?” helps to verify logical connectivity.
a) True
b)
False
921) Physical connectivity problems often prove more difficult to isolate and resolve than logical connectivity problems, because they can be more complex.
a)
True
b) False
922) Changes to network elements often cause both physical and logical connectivity problems.
a) True
b)
False
923) As long as you have thoroughly tested any network changes before you actually make them, it is not necessary to have a backup plan to use if the actual implementation fails.
a)
True
b) False
924) One of the steps involved in implementing a solution to a problem may be to revisit the solution a day or two later to verify that the problem has, indeed been solved.
a) True
b)
False
925) If you swap a component that does not have the same specifications as the original part, you risk introducing another variable into the equation.
a) True
b)
False
926) Since systems such as Vantive, Expert Advisor, and Remedy are not customizable, organizations often have to change the way they operate to fully utilize any of these packages.
a)
True
b) False
927) One of the reasons for the initial contact to accurately keep track of problem data is that often problems are passed to other groups who need to know the history of the problem and any resolution attempts.
a) True
b)
False
928) It is necessary to record even minor modifications, such as resetting a user’s password or creating a new group for users.
a)
True
b) False
929) To use a tool to test the continuity of a cable, disconnect the cable from the network first.
a) True
b)
False
930) Cable checkers can test the continuity of fiber-optic cabling.
a)
True
b) False
931) Cable testers are generally less sophisticated and cheaper than cable checkers.
a)
True
b) False
932) Excessively high collision rates within the network usually result from cable or routing problems.
a) True
b)
False
933) Network monitors can determine the protocols passed by each packet but can’t interpret the data inside the packet.
a) True
b)
False
934) The maximum packet size for an Ethernet packet is 1518 bytes.
a) True
b)
False
935) NetMon is the most comprehensive and expensive network monitoring tool.
a)
True
b) False
936) A high number of CRC’s usually result from excessive collisions or a station transmitting bad data.
a) True
b)
False
937) Sniffers are tailored to a particular type of network.
a) True
b)
False
938) A good rule of thumb when diagnosing network problems is to never ignore the obvious.
939) In many organizations, a help desk acts as the first, single point of contact for users to call in
regarding errors.
940) Before you call a vendor’s technical support number, make sure you have read the documentation and looked for information on the Web.
941) A change management
system is a process or program that provides support personnel with a
centralized means of documenting data such as upgrading a network, adding new
software on network servers, or physically moving network devices.
942) What tool determines whether your cabling can provide connectivity but
does not provide data such as a graphical output depicting a cable’s
attenuation? cable checker
943) A portable, hardware-based tool that a network manager connects to the network to determine the nature of network problems is a network analyzer.
944) Collisions that occur when two or more stations are transmitting simultaneously are called local.
945) Collisions that take place outside the window of time in which they
would normally be detected by the network and redressed are called late collisions.
946) The Network Monitor product, NetMon, is manufactured by Microsoft.
947) Packets that are smaller than the medium’s minimum packet size are called runts.
948) Packets that exceed the medium’s maximum packet size are called giants.
949) Frames that are not actually data frame, but aberrations caused by a repeater misinterpreting stray voltage on the wire are called ghosts.
950) The LANalyzer product is manufactured by Novell.
951) A single jump in a measure of network performance, such as utilization, is called a spike.
952)
List 6 of the steps to troubleshooting network problems. The steps
are: 1. Identify the symptoms 2. Verify user competency 3. Identify the scope
of the problem 4. Recreate the problem 5. Verify the physical integrity of the
network connection 6. Verify the logical integrity of the network connection 7.
Consider recent changes to the network and how those changes might have caused
a problem 8. Implement a solution 9. Test the solution
953) When would it not be a good idea to try to reproduce a problem? Do not reproduce a problem when it could wreak havoc on the network, its data, or its devices. One example is a power outage where the backup power source failed to supply power. Once the equipment is back online, one would not want to cut the power again to recreate the problem.
954) What is a better alternative to swapping parts on a network? A better alternative is to have redundancy built into the network.
955) What is promiscuous mode? Promiscuous mode means that a device driver directs the network adapter card to pick up all frames that pass over the network, not just those destined for the ode served by the card.
956) What is an advantage to using a network monitor or analyzer that is not part of the network operating system? One advantage to using a network monitor or analyzer that is not part of the network operating system, is that it is mobile.
************************************************
957) If a group of users complains about slow response time over the WAN, you should:
a)
Compare current network segment utilization rates to previous ones
b) Compare current WAN link statistics to previous ones
c)
Compare current network segment response time rates to previous ones
d)
All of the above
958) Baseline would not be used for what?
a)
Predicting the impact of a significant network change
b)
Knowing if a network change helped the level of service
c) Verifying how many NICs of a certain brand exist on the network
d)
Determining which groups generate the most network traffic
959) Which is not true about baselining tools?
a)
For baselining a small network, an inexpensive tool may suffice
b) All baselining tools measure the same statistics
c)
Select a tool that enables easy setting of measurement parameters
d)
Regularly repeat baseline measurements
960) Which is a baselining tool?
a)
NetMon
b) WG Wizard
c)
Baseline+
d)
Statcount
961)
Which is not a benefit realized from an asset management system?
a)
Notifications that an equipment lease will expire
b) Assessing whether an upgrade has increased network performance
c)
Determining how many routers are installed on a network
d)
Automatically discovering all devices on a network
962) An asset management database should be updated:
a)
Weekly
b)
Monthly
c)
Annually
d) Whenever changes are made to network hardware or software
963) Which is not a type of software change associated with network
maintenance?
a)
Patch
b)
Revision
c) Installation
d)
Upgrade
964) An upgrade is best described as:
a)
An improvement or enhancement to a particular piece of a software program
b) A major change to the existing code
c)
A general term for minor or major changes to the existing code
d)
A change to the environment
965) Service packs are used for which type of operating systems?
a) Windows NT Server
b)
UNIX
c)
Linux
d)
NetWare 5.0
966) An upgrade to the Z.E.N.
Works centralized desktop management program would be performed to which
environment?
a) Novell
b)
Windows NT
c)
UNIX
d)
Linux
967) Application upgrades:
a)
Always represent modifications to an entire program
b)
Can be performed while users are using the software
c) Will affect all users at once
d)
Do not require additional user training
968) Which is the most critical
type of software upgrade?
a)
An upgrade to Netware 5.0
b)
An upgrade to Wordperfect
c)
An upgrade to Windows 95 Dial-up Networking client
d)
An upgrade to Microsoft’s Systems Management Server software
969) Which should not happen during the evaluation phase of a network operating system upgrade?
a)
Any new features of the upgrade should be tested
b) The upgrade should be thoroughly tested on the production server
c)
During testing, notes should be kept on how the upgrade meets the requirements
specified in the proposal
d)
Response time of the upgrade should be tested
970) Which phase of a network operating system upgrade includes the review of the short- and long-term benefits of the upgrade?
a)
Research phase
b)
Implementation phase
c)
Testing phase
d) Proposal phase
971) In which phase of a network
operating system upgrade would a review of the support calls generated by the
upgrade be performed?
a) Research phase
b)
Implementation phase
c) Post-implementation phase
d)
Review phase
972) In which phase of a network operating system upgrade would networking staff remove any unnecessary applications or services they have installed on the server?
a) Pre-implementation phase
b)
Implementation phase
c)
Testing phase
d)
Post-implementation phase
973) Which type of upgrade does not typically cause network downtime?
a)
Server upgrade
b)
Hub upgrade
c) Network printer upgrade
d)
Switch upgrade
974) Which is the most complex addition or change to a network design?
a)
Networked printer
b) Switch or router
c)
Hub
d)
Server
975) Migrating from Token Ring to Ethernet is an example of a:
a)
Operating System upgrade
b)
Cable segment upgrade
c) Backbone upgrade
d)
Router upgrade
976) Which is the first step in a backbone upgrade?
a)
Create an RFP
b)
Determine which kind of backbone design to implement
c)
Develop a project plan
d) Justify it
977) Once a network is working smoothly, there is not usually a reason for a change.
a)
True
b) False
978) Always not the state of the network before and after any modification.
a) True
b)
False
979) The first step in properly maintaining your network is to identify its current state.
a) True
b)
False
980) Always measure the same data for each network.
a)
True
b) False
981) Network traffic patterns are difficult to forecast, because you cannot predict users’ habits, the effects of new technology, or changes in demand for resources over a given period of time.
a) True
b)
False
982) The first step in asset management is to take an inventory of each node on the network.
a) True
b)
False
983) Using network monitors or network analyzers to perform baselining is just as effective as using a baselining tool. As a result, monitors and analyzers are often used for baselining.
a)
True
b) False
984) Change management records can be created by a program that automatically discovers hardware and software on the network.
a)
True
b) False
985) An up-to-date asset management system allows you to avoid searching through old invoices and troubleshooting questions to determine information such as how many routers are installed, where they are installed, and whether any have already received the software upgrade.
a) True
b)
False
986) All software changes should be performed during off-hours.
a)
True
b) False
987) Since patch installations are quick and easy, and tested by the vendor prior to release, it is not necessary to perform a backup of the system before installation of the patch.
a)
True
b) False
988) A successful client upgrade should be transparent to all users.
a)
True
b) False
989) Application upgrades that enhance the program’s functionality are often a matter of convenience than necessity.
a) True
b)
False
990) If you decide to limit the functionality of a program, it is best not to tell the users up front or they will become unhappy with the program.
a)
True
b) False
991) The first step in testing an upgrade to a network operating system is to have all the users login and try to run applications.
a)
True
b) False
992) Hardware and physical plant changes may be required when a network component fails or malfunctions or to increase capacity, improve performance or add functionality to the network.
a) True
b)
False
993) It is usually easier to upgrade or add hardware on a network if one has previously used that hardware.
a) True
b)
False
994) Purchasing components to add or replace in your network devices does not affect service or warranty agreements with the manufacturer.
a)
True
b) False
995) Cabling is often upgraded in phases because of its magnitude and because it affects all users.
a) True
b) False
996) Lower cost is typically the driving factor in networking technology trends.
a)
True
b) False
997) The graph in Figure 13-1, provides a baseline for daily network traffic over a six-week period.
998) The term asset management
originally referred to an organization’s system for keeping tabs on every piece
of equipment it owned, and this function was usually handled through the
Accounting department.
999) Prior to completing any modifications to the system or software, make a
back-up of the current system of
software.
1000) Keep the upgrade instructions handy and follow them during the installation of the patch or
revision.
1001) An improvement or enhancement to a particular piece of a software program is called a patch.
1002) Software upgrades abbreviated as SP3 and SP4 are manufactured by Microsoft.
1003) A flaw in the hardware of hardware that causes it to malfunction is a bug.
1004) If a support analyst installs a new version of software in order to increase its functionality and to fix existing bugs, he has performed an upgrade.
1005) One of the methods of performing an upgrade of Windows 95 Dial-Up
Networking to all users is to use a software distribution program.
1006) An application upgrade
applies to software shared by clients on the network.
1007) Going back to a previous version of software after attempting an upgrade is known as backleveling.
1008) The most complex and comprehensive upgrade involving network hardware
is a backbone upgrade.
1009) One of the current networking trends, open standards, will raise
greater concerns for security,
as systems become more vulnerable to hackers.
1010) What is the difference between network monitoring and baselining? One significant difference is that a baselined characteristic can be used as a gauge for future reference, whereas network monitoring provides a continual check on problems on the network.
1011) How can a change management system help with the process of taking baseline and network performance measurements? It helps because one can correlate additions, removals, or changes in network components with differences in the networks performance.
1012) What will you need to do if you upgrade the server’s hardware after installing a service pack? You will have to implement the service pack a second time.
1013) How do patches differ from revisions and software upgrades? They differ because they change only part of the software program, leaving most of the code untouched.
1014) Which is the most complex type of addition or change to a network
design and why? The addition or change of a switch or router is the
most complex because it can be physically disruptive and affect many or all
users on the network. These kinds of upgrades can also have unintended effects
on segments of the network other than the one it services. Lastly, these
upgrades can be expensive and require a lot of planning.
************************************************
1015) The soundness of a network’s
programs, data, services, devices, and connections refer to its:
a)
Availability
b)
Health
c) Integrity
d)
Redundancy
1016) Which are the most common
types of viruses and are passed via floppy disks?
a)
Floppy viruses
b) Boot sector viruses
c)
Program viruses
d)
Network viruses
1017) Which is not a category of viruses defined in the book?
a) Program viruses
b)
Boot sector viruses
c)
Micro viruses
d)
Network viruses
1018) If a user is missing options from application menus, has damaged, changed, or missing data file, or sees strange pop-up messages when using Excel, he may have a:
a) Worm infection
b)
File-infected virus
c)
Macro virus
d)
Network virus
1019) Viruses that change their characteristics every time they are transferred to a new system and are hard to identify exhibit the characteristic of :
a)
Encryption
b)
Stealth
c) Polymorphism
d)
Change
1020) An antivirus program should compare current characteristics of files and disks against an archived version of the characteristics to discover any changes. This is called:
a) Integrity checking
b)
Heuristic checking
c)
Signature checking
d)
Hoaxing
1021) Which is not something that should be included in an antivirus policy?
a)
Each computer in an organization should be equipped with virus detection and
cleaning software that regularly scans for viruses.
b) Each user should install his own antivirus software and know how to use it.
c)
Organizations should impose penalties on users who do not follow the antivirus
policy.
d)
Each organization should have an antivirus team that focuses on maintaining the
antivirus measures in place.
1022) The capacity for a system to continue performing despite an unexpected hardware of software malfunction is known as:
a)
Redundancy
b)
Fail-over
c)
Duplicity
d) Fault tolerance
1023) Which type of power flaw is unavoidable and often associated with electromagnetic interference?
a)
Surge
b) Line noise
c)
Brownout
d)
Blackout
1024) Which power flaw may only last a few thousandths of a second and may be caused by a lighting strike?
a) Surge
b)
Line noise
c)
Brownout
d)
Blackout
1025) Which power flaw is also known as a sag?
a)
Surge
b)
Line noise
c) Brownout
d)
Blackout
1026) Electrical power is measured in:
a)
Amps
b) Volt-amps
c)
Volts
d)
All of the above
1027) Most UPSs are rated to support a device for:
a)
1-3 minutes
b)
5-10 minutes
c) 15-20 minutes
d)
25-30 minutes
1028) Which kind of topology provides the best fault tolerance?
a) Mesh
b)
Star
c)
Ring
d)
Hybrid
1029) The network in Figure 14-4 has how many redundant connections?
a)
None
b) One
c)
Two
d)
Three
1030) Disk stripping is also known as:
a) RAID Level 0
b)
RAID Level 1
c)
RAID Level 3
d)
RAID Level 4
1031) Which RAID Level has disk striping with parity ECC?
a)
RAID Level 2
b) RAID Level 3
c)
RAID Level 4
d)
RAID Level 5
1032) Figure 14-14 is an example of :
a)
RAID Level 1
b)
RAID Level 2
c)
RAID Level 4
d) RAID Level 5
1033) Which is not true about server mirroring?
a)
The servers involved must be identical machines using identical components
b) Mirroring software allows for an instantaneous switch of a working server for a failed server.
c)
Software must be running on both servers to allow them to synchronize their
actions continually.
d)
The mirrored servers do not have to be next to each other.
1034) The most popular method for backing up networked systems is:
a)
Internet backups
b)
Online backups
c)
Floppy disk backups
d) Tape backups
1035) Some viruses cause no harm and can remain unnoticed on a system forever.
a) True
b)
False
1036) Server viruses propagate themselves via network protocols, commands, messaging programs, and data links.
a)
True
b) False
1037) Stealth viruses disguise themselves as legitimate programs or replace part of a legitimate program’s code with their destructive code.
a) True
b)
False
1038) Antivirus software that use heuristic scanning is typically the most accurate and least likely to emit false alarms.
a)
True
b) False
1039) Some applications, such as Microsoft’s Word and Excel programs, actually help identify viruses.
a) True
b)
False
1040) Virus hoaxes should be taken just as seriously as viruses.
a)
True
b) False
1041) At the highest level of fault tolerance, users should only have to endure brief service outages.
a)
True
b) False
1042) A failure is the malfunction of one component of a system.
a)
True
b) False
1043) Fault tolerance also means protecting your network from excessive heat or moisture, break-ins, and natural disasters.
a) True
b)
False
1044) A blackout almost always causes significant damage to your network.
a)
True
b) False
1045) An online UPS is typically a lot cheaper than a standby UPS.
a)
True
b) False
1046) In addition to providing clean (free from noise) electricity, generators also provide surge protection.
a)
True
b) False
1047) A SONET ring can easily recover from a break in one of its links (for example, between points a and b), because data can circumvent the fault to move between the two points.
a) True
b)
False
1048) All types of RAID use shared, multiple physical or logical hard disks to ensure data integrity and availability.
a) True
b)
False
1049) A group of hard disks is called a disk mirror.
a)
True
b) False
1050) RAID Level 4 includes disk striping and parity.
a)
True
b) False
1051) Even if you have a truly fault-tolerant or redundant system, you should still make regular backups on separate media.
a) True
b)
False
1052) One disadvantage to clustering is that the clustered servers must be geographically close.
a) True
b)
False
1053) When evaluating an online backup provider, you should test its speed, accuracy, security, and the ease with which you can recover the backed up data.
a) True
b)
False
1054) One of the most popular standard backup rotation schemes is called grandfather-father-son.
a) True
b)
False
1055) A server that allows staff to log on and use its program and data 99.99% of the time is considered to be highly available.
1056) One of the way to prevent harming of a network is to prevent anyone
other than a network administrator
from opening or changing the system files.
1057) Having a second hard disk which mirrors a server’s primary disk or two T-1 lines running simultaneously are examples of redundancy.
1058) Monitoring the network for unauthorized access to devices such as routers or switches is called intrusion detection.
1059) Most virus-scanning software searches files for a recognizable string
of characters that identify the virus. If the virus is encrypted, it will thwart the antivirus program’s attempts to
detect it.
1060) One thing a virus-scanning software should do is detect viruses through
signature scanning comparison of
a file’s content with known virus signatures in a signature database.
1061) The process of one component immediately assuming the duties of an identical component is known as automatic failover.
1062) The “R” in RAID stands for redundant.
1063) The “U” in UPS stands for uninterruptible.
1064) The figure shows a system that allows for load balancing, because there is an automatic distribution of
traffic over both T1 links.
1065) Kidneys are hot swappable,
because if one fails, the other one will take over its functionality.
1066) The process of comparing the parity of data read from disk with the
type of parity used by the system is known as parity error checking.
1067) Another name for a tape storage library is a vault.
1068) An differential backup
backs up only data that has changes since the last backup and then marks that
information for subsequent backup, regardless of whether it has changed.
1069) The process of restoring the critical functionality and data after an enterprise-wide outage is known as disaster recovery.
1070) What are worms and what do they do? Worms are not technically viruses, but rather programs that run independently and travel between computers and across networks. They can transport (and hide) viruses.
1071) Should you scan shrink-wrapped software for viruses? Why or why not? Yes, you should scan it for viruses, because it occasionally ships with viruses on its disks.
1072) In terms if system performance, what is a failure, and what is a fault. How are they related? A failure occurs when something doesn’t work as promised or as planned. A fault is the malfunction of one component of a system. A fault can result in a failure.
1073) What are three things you should consider when buying a UPS for your network? You should consider the amount of power needed, period of time to keep a device running, line conditioning, and cost.
1074) What is server clustering, and why is it valuable? Server clustering is a fault-tolerance technique that links multiple servers together to act as a single server. The clustered servers share processing duties and appear as a single server to users. If one server in the cluster fails, the other servers in the cluster will automatically take over its data transaction and storage responsibilities.
1075) What is the name of the
administrator on UNIX-based network?
a)
Super.
b) Root.
c)
Admin.
d)
Supervisor.
1076) A security audit should be conducted at least:
a)
Monthly
b)
Every six months
c)
Annually
d)
Biannually
1077) Bu some estimates, human
errors, ignorance, or omission cause more than what percent of security
breaches sustained by networks?
a) 10%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
1078) Which is not a risk associated with people?
a)
An unused workstation being left logged into the network.
b)
Network administrators overlooking security flaws in the operating systems or
application configuration.
c) A network that uses leased lines.
d)
Discarded disks left in public waste containers.
1079) Risks associated with hardware and network design are inherent in (roughly) which OSI Layers?
a)
Physical and Application layers
b)
Transport and Data layers
c)
Presentation and Session layers
d)
Physical and Data layers
1080) Networks that use leased lines are vulnerable to:
a) Eavesdropping
b)
Hoaxing
c)
Interception
d)
Backdooring
1081) Which is the least risky when selecting your network hardware and design?
a)
Having unused server ports that are enabled
b)
Having remote users access dial-in access servers
c)
Routers not configured to mask internal subnets
d) Using switches
1082) Which presents the smallest risk associated with networking protocols and software?
a)
TCP/IP containing several security flaws
b) The network operating system not allowing server operators to exit to a DOS prompt
c)
A flaw in the trust between one server and another
d)
Not addressing “backdoors” to network operating systems
1083) A security policy should not:
a) Include content that does not pertain to computers or network
b)
Ensure that authorized users have appropriate access to the resources they need
c)
Prevent intentional damage to hardware or software
d)
Create an environment where the network and systems can withstand any type of threat
1084) Which is not true?
a)
Each member of the security response team should be assigned a role and
responsibilities related to the security policy
b)
The security response team should regularly rehearse their defense in a
security threat drill
c) A security response team should be composed of members of the network group with highly technical skills
d)
The leader of the security response team is often called a security coordinator
1085) Which is true about passwords?
a)
The shorter the better
b)
Use something that is easy to remember, such as your pet’s or child’s name
c)
Even if allowed, do not use special characters, such as exclamation marks,
because they are easy to mistype
d) Do not write it down, even if it is in a safe place
1086) It is recommended to change a password at least every:
a)
Day
b)
Week
c)
30 days
d) 90 days
1087) Which area(s) should be physically secured?
a)
Computer rooms
b)
Wiring closet with hubs or switches
c)
Telecommunications closet with leased line to the Internet
d) All of the above
1088) Using color patterns in an eye’s iris or whorls in a fingerprint are examples of:
a)
Scanning process
b)
Physical characteristic access
c)
Electronic access
d) Bio-recognition access
1089) A firewall:
a) May reside between two interconnected private networks
b)
Typically involves only hardware
c)
Uses only TCP protocol
d)
Usually as a server
1090) A router acting as a firewall operates at which layers of the OSI model?
a) Data Link and Transport layers
b)
Network and Transport layers
c)
Physical and Data Link layers
d)
Transport and Session layers
1091) Which is not important when considering a firewall?
a)
Does it support user authentication?
b) Does it prevent “punching a hole”?
c)
Does it allow you to manage it centrally and through a standard interface?
d)
Does it protect the identity of your internal LAN’s addresses from the outside
world?
1092) Which is an example of a remote control software program?
a) Remotely Possible
b)
Xanadu
c)
See All
d)
Attach and Look
1093) Which is a centralized authentication system?
a)
RAID
b) TACACS
c)
Proxy
d)
Remote Access
1094) RADIUS is:
a)
An early version of a centralized authentication system
b)
Not as secure as a remote access solution
c) Able to run on UNIX, Windows NT-, or Novell-based networks.
d)
Not highly scalable
1095) Which company developed the PPTP protocol?
a) Microsoft
b)
Cisco Systems
c)
Avalon Technologies
d)
Novell
1096) Verifying a user’s validity
and authority on a system usually occurs at the Application layer of the OSI
model.
a) True
b)
False
1097) One disadvantage of having an outside company perform a security audit for a network is that they are not familiar enough with the situation.
a)
True
b) False
1098) Fiber-based transmission can easily be intercepted.
a)
True
b) False
1099) It is usually very easy to distinguish between hardware and software risks.
a)
True
b) False
1100) Risks inherent to software and networking protocols typically occur in the Physical, Presentation, and Application layers of the OSI model.
a)
True
b) False
1101) Deluging a system with messages is an example of a flashing attack.
a)
True
b) False
1102) Most network security breaches occur from crackers outside the organization.
a)
True
b) False
1103) One way to make a security policy more accepted in an organization is to tie security measures to business needs.
a) True
b)
False
1104) A company’s security policy should specify which hardware, software, architecture, or protocols will be used to ensure security.
a)
True
b) False
1105) If users complain about password requirements, you may back down from them as long as the users understand the risks.
a)
True
b) False
1106) One of the drawbacks to a badge access system is that the users either have all or no access to buildings. There is no way to provide access to only a few rooms in a building.
a)
True
b) False
1107) Electronic locks, which require entrants to punch a numeric code to gain access, are typically the most expensive physical security solution.
a)
True
b) False
1108) The principle that the next best protection for a LAN is to restrict access at every point where the LAN connects to the rest of the world forms the basis of hardware- and design-based security.
a) True
b)
False
1109) The optimal, although not practical, way to prevent external security breaches from affecting your LAN is to not connect your LAN to the outside world at all.
a) True
b)
False
1110) When trying to ensure physical security, one question to ask is are authentication methods difficult to forge or circumvent?
a) True
b)
False
1111) Proxy servers manage security at the Application layer of the OSI model.
a) True
b)
False
1112) An important security feature in a remote control system is the ability to leave the host’s system blank while a remote user works on it.
a) True
b)
False
1113) It is not a good idea for remote control systems to allow the host systems to call the remote clients back.
a)
True
b) False
1114) Remote control differs from dial-up networking in that it effectively turns a remote workstation into a node on the network.
a)
True
b) False
1115) PPTP and L2F differ in the type of encryption supported by each.
a) True
b)
False
1116) LT2P requires costly hardware upgrades to implement.
a)
True
b) False
1117) The process of verifying a user’s validity and authority on a system is called authentication.
1118) If an intruder poses as a technical support analyst and obtains a password to the network, he is using a strategy called social engineering.
1119) A denial-of-service attack occurs before or after a cracker has gained access to your system through the Internet? After
1120) A security attack in which an Internet user sends commands to another Internet user’s machine that cause the screen to fill with garbage characters is called flashing.
1121) A security attack in which an outside obtains internal IP addresses and then uses those addresses to pretend that he has authority to access a private network from the Internet is called IP spoofing.
1122) The first step in securing your network is devising a security policy.
1123) To understand an organization’s specific risks, a security audit should be conducted to identify
vulnerabilities and the rate both the severity of each threat and its
likelihood of occurring.
1124) One method that many large organizations use to provide physical security is to require authorized employees to wear electronic access badges.
1125) The figure shows a firewall
protecting an internal LAN from Internet-based attacks.
1126) A screening (packet filtering) firewall examines the header of every packet of data that it receives
to determine whether that type of packet is authorized to continue to its
destination.
1127) To enhance the security of a firewall, combine it with a proxy
service, which acts as an intermediary
between the external the internal networks.
1128) A key-based encryption system for e-mail that uses a two-step process
verification process is called PGP (Pretty Good Privacy).
1129) A random string of characters that is woven into the original data’s
bits to generate a unique data block is called a
1130) A digital certificate
is a password-protected and encrypted file that holds an individual’s
identification information.
1131) If you trade stocks to purchase goods on the Web, you are most likely using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).
1132) What is the difference between a hacker and a cracker? A hacker is someone who masters the inner workings of operating systems and utilities in an effort to better understand them, while a cracker is someone who uses his or her knowledge of operating systems and utilities to intentionally damage or destroy data or systems.
1133) Why shouldn’t you accept the default security options when installing an operating system or application? The danger of accepting defaults is the defaults are well known to crackers and give them some or all of the information that they need to access a system.
1134) What is the danger of a user Telenetting or FTPing to a site over the Internet? The danger is that his userid and password will be transmitted in plain text (unencrypted). Therefore, anyone monitoring the network can pick it up and use it to gain access to the system.
1135) Should you choose a password that appears in a directory? Why or why
not? You should not use a password that appears in a dictionary.
Crackers can use programs that try a combination of your user ID and every word
in a dictionary to gain access to the network.
1136) What is tunneling? Tunneling is the process of encapsulating one protocol to make it appear as another type of protocol. Essentially, tunneling makes a protocol fit a type of network that it wouldn’t normally match.
************************************************
1137) Every project begins with identifying:
a)
A plan
b)
Participants
c) A need
d)
Funding options
1138) Which of the following is a software package the facilitates project planning?
a)
Carbon copy
b)
Remedy
c) Microsoft project
d)
Planner plus
1139) Dividing a project into specific tasks is called:
a) Task breakdown
b)
Task division
c)
Task distribution
d)
Task planning
1140) When planning a project with seemingly impossible deadlines, one technique to try is:
a)
Add more milestones
b)
Determine the order in
which tasks must be completed
c) Work backwards to create the timeline
d)
All of the above
1141) Project plans may also provide information on:
a)
Amount of flexibility
in the timeline
b)
Task priority
c)
Links to other project
plans
d) All of the above
1142) Which is true?
a)
Sponsors usually
participate in project tasks
b)
Sponsors usually
supervise the project manager
c) Sponsors may assist with negotiating vendor contracts
d)
All of the above
1143) Which is not true about stakeholders?
a)
Stakeholders may be
users who benefit from the project
b) Stakeholders are not members of the project team
c)
Stakeholders may be
executives who have responsibility for the budget
d)
All of the above
1144) Planning for and handling the steps needed to accomplish a goal in a systematic way is:
a)
Problem management
b)
Resource management
c)
Goal management
d) Process management
1145) Which process wouldn’t be followed during a project’s implementation?
a)
Change
b)
Network
c)
Problem resolution
d)
Training
1146) Which would be a part of the training process?
a) Identification of employees who can act as resources for a new employee in different subject areas.
b)
Notification of all
affected customers if a problem hasn’t been resolved within 30 minutes
c)
Maintenance of a list
of second-level support contacts
d)
Notification of
potentially affected users at least 5 business days before a modification takes
place
1147) What would be a good way to determine whether choosing switches over routers will improve your network’s performance?
a)
Use a pilot network
b)
Perform shadow testing
c)
How swap each
component
d)
Use proper contingency
planning
1148) The amount of preparation you perform for each contingency:
a)
Should be the same in
all cases
b)
Should vary by cost
c)
Should be commensurate
with the potential effects of the possibility
d)
Should ensure that
even the smallest problem won’t occur
1149) Once a project is deemed feasible, what should the project team do next?
a)
Develop the problem
resolution process
b)
Create a timeline for
each task
c)
Plan for unforeseen
circumstances
d) Define project goals
1150) When conducting user interviews to clarify user requirements, one should:
a)
Never restate a user’s
answer and run the risk of misrepresenting it
b)
Ask general questions
and let users give as much information as they want
c) Aim to guide users to a better articulation of their needs
d)
Be as subjective as
possible
1151) Which is true about performance requirements on a network?
a)
Performance needs are
easily quantifiable
b) Performance needs are often identified by technical staff before customers experience slowdowns
c)
Methods for enhancing
performance are easily agreed upon
d)
All of the above
1152) When determining availability requirements, which question would be most appropriate for management?
a) What part of the application is most important to keep available
b)
Where do current
availability flaws exist?
c)
What measures can
boost current availability to your recommended percentage?
d)
How will availability
improvements affect performance?
1153) When determining availability requirements, which question would be the most appropriate for technical staff?
a)
What is the cost of
one hour of down time during business hours?
b) Where are the network’s single points of failure?
c)
How much are you
willing to spend to ensure that the network remains available for your ideal
percentage of time?
D) What is your ideal availability percentage?
1154) When determining integration and scalability requirements, which question would be the most appropriate for management?
a)
How is the network’s
growth currently limited?
b)
What needs to change
to accommodate growth?
c) Do you expect the number of users on the network to grow over the next 5 years?
d)
Where is the network’s
growth currently limited?
1155) Which is not true about creating realistic and useful pilot networks?
a)
Do not connect the
pilot network to a live network
b)
Try to emulate the
number of segments, protocols, and addressing schemes that will be used in the
final network.
c) Test the pilot network for at least 2 days after it is configured
d)
Evaluate your testing
results against the predefined test criteria and note where your results show
success or failure
1156) The primary reason for network changes are:
a)
Integration or
scalability needs
b)
Lowering of costs
c)
Improving process
management
d) Customer, performance, or security needs
1157) Identifying a needs always
results in a project.
a)
True
b) False
1158) Web sites, such as http://www.pmi.org/, offer many valuable
resources for project managers.
a) True
b)
False
1159) No matter how large or small
the project, its project plan will contain some common elements.
a) True
b)
False
1160) The project plan does not need to have accurate start and end dates for each task; they should be adjusted as the project progresses.
a)
True
b) False
1161) When creating a timeline, allow extra time for any especially significant tasks.
a) True
b)
False
1162) Most project planning software is very customizable, and one may add additional columns and insert any information that is deemed appropriate.
a) True
b)
False
1163) The owner of a task performs the task and keeps others appraised of the task’s status.
a)
True
b) False
1164) The human resources involved in a project may include employees from another organization.
a) True
b)
False
1165) Once a project plan is in place it should not change throughout the life of the project.
a)
True
b) False
1166) A project manager typically supervises everyone in the project.
a)
True
b) False
1167) It is better to complete a project under budget than to continually appeal for more funding.
a) True
b)
False
1168) Unlimited funding will guarantee smooth progress of the project.
a)
True
b) False
1169) In a networking project, ordering more hardware components that you think you need in the beginning may help you handle any unforeseen problems during the implementation.
a) True
b)
False
1170) One technique for creating project goals is to start with small, easily attainable goals and create larger and larger goals unitl you reach the final goal.
a)
True
b) False
1171) In addition to being specific, project goals should be attainable.
a) True
b)
False
1172) After conducting user interviews, you should collate the data, incorporate that data into the project plan, and then continue with the project plan.
a)
True
b) False
1173) When determining availability requirements, one should interview technical staff to obtain the best insight about what types of availability are most important and why.
a)
True
b) False
1174) 100% availability is possible, but it is extremely expensive.
a)
True
b) False
1175) When evaluating security requirements, ask management staff how they would prioritize security improvements and how much they would be willing to pay to improve network and security systems.
a) True
b)
False
1176) Other than size, a small-scale network used to evaluate a systems implementation should be identical to the larger network that it is standing for.
a)
True
b) False
1177) The practice of managing resources, staff, budget, timelines, and other variables is called project management.
1178) In some project management software, the tasks that must be completed before other tasks can begin are called predecessors.
1179) Evaluating software, defining fields, and testing the software are subtasks for the larger tasks of obtaining a call tracking
system.
1180) A dependency means that
part of a project depends on another part.
1181) A popular method of depicting when projects begin and end along a horizontal timeline is a Gantt.
1182) Significant accomplishments in a project, that provide a quick indication of a project’s relative success or failure are called milestones.
1183) Managers or executives who believe in the concept of the project and agree to help obtain support and resources for it are sponsors.
1184) People affected by a proposed implementation, for better or worse are stakeholders.
1185) A project’s budget depends on its breadth and complexity.
1186) At the beginning of the project, the project manager should take responsibility for establishing the
methods of communication.
1187) The process of identifying steps that will minimize the risk of
unforeseen events that endanger the quality or timelines of the project’s goals
is contingency planning.
1188) Once a project milestone
has been reached, one should verify that he is on the right track by testing.
1189) A feasibility study should be performed before or after resources are
committed to a large-scale project? Before
1190) The goal in performing a needs assessment is to decide whether the change is worthwhile and necessary.
1191) A small-scale network that stands for a larger network is sometimes
called a pilot network.
1192) What comprise the resources in a project? Resources for a project are the staffing, materials, and the money needed to complete the project.
1193) List 4 benefits of communicating during a project? It is important to communicate to: 1. Ensure that a project’s goal are understood by all involved. 2. To keep a project’s timeline and budget on track. 3. To encourage teamwork among participants. 4. To allow you to learn from previous mistakes. 5. To prevent finger pointing. 6. To avoid duplication of efforts. 7, To prepare stakeholders for the effects of the change.
1194) Is creating a process sufficient to ensure success? Why or why not? In addition to creating a process, the process must be communicated to all participants, everyone must understand the process, and everyone must follow the process.
1195) Baselining is critical to network implementations for which two reasons? Baselining provides the basis for determining what types of changes might improve the network, and after the changes are made, how sucessful they were.
1196) What are 3 things one should explain to users related to a major
network change? One should tell the users: 1. The nature of the
change. 2. The timeline of the change. 3. How their access to the network will
be affected. 4. How their data will be protected during the change. 5. Whether
you will provide any means for users to access the network during the change.
6. Whether the change will require users to learn new skills.