MH-CET 2000

1. Tributaries of cavernous sinus are all except
a. superior opth vein
b. inferior opth vein
c. great cerebral vein
d. middle cerebral vein

2. Structures passing through sciatic foramena are a/e
a. pudendal nn
b. obturator internus
c. internal pudendal vessels
d. inf gluteal

3. Root of mesentry crosses
a. III part of duodenum
b. left ureter
c. left gonadal aa
d. 

4. IInd arch muscle is
a. Geniohyoid
b. Myelohyoid
c. Buccinator
d. Masseter

5. The taste sensation from circumvallate papilla is carried by
a. Chorda tympani
b. Glossopharyngeal
c. Lingual
d. Hypoglossal

6. Urachus is remnant of 
a. proximal allantois
b. distal allantois
c.
d.

7. Pterygopalatine ganglion supplies
a. lacrymal gland
b. sublingual
c. submandibular
d. parotid

8. Killans dehiscence is a defect in
a. cricothyroid
b. oropharynx
c. 
d.

PHYSIO

9. Resting memr potential is due to
a. Na-K pump
b. bilipid memr
c. ionic permeablity
d.

10. Normal memr potential is
a. depolarized
b. repolarized
c. polarized
d, hyperpolarized

11. 'Phantom limb' is due to
a. law of projection
b. psychodynamic reasons
c. 
d.

12. Ideal substance for the measurement of GFR should have all the following cha. except
a. it should be easily secreted
b. is should be fully filtred
c. it should not be reabsorbed
d. it should not be stored in kidney

13. Somatostatin inhibits all except
a. growth hormone
b. corticotropin
c. prolactin
d.


BIOCHEM
14. hemolysis caused by drugs in G6PD is because they are
a. oxidants
b. 
c.
d.

15. Vitamin D is synthesised from skin from
a. 7 dehydrocholesterol
b. ergosterol
c.
d.


PHARMAC

16. High first pass metabolism is seen in
a. propanolol
b.
c.
d.

17. Treatment of constipation associated with irritable bowel syndrome is 
a. Dietary fibres
b. Liquid paraffin
c. Bisacodyl
d. Senna

18. Carbidopa is given along with levodopa to
a. reduce the dose of l dopa
b. for the conversion of l dopa into active product
c.
d.

19. Example of phase I reaction
a. Glucoronidation
b. Sulfation
c. Demethylation
d. Acetylation

20. Atracurium is metabolized by
a. Hoffmans elimination
b.
c.
d.

21. Antianxiety drug which is antidepressant is
a. alprazolam
b. midazolam
c. triazolam
d. diazepam

22. Pilocarpine causes all except
a. miosis
b. cycloplegia
c. salivation
d. lacrimation

23. directly acting cough expectorant
a. bromhexine
b. acetyl cysteine
c. carbeta pentane
d. gauicicol

24. responsible for NIDDM is
a. antibody against insulin
b. defect in insulin structure
c. target organ
d. none 

25. Mechanism of action of Lovastatin is
a. inhibition of HMG CoA
b.
c.
d.

26. NSAID not causing peptic ulcer
a. paracetamol
b. asprin
c. diclofenac
d. ibuprofen

27. Allopurinol inhibits
a. xanthine oxidase
b.
c.
d.

28. Coronary Steal syndrome is seen with
a. Dipyridamole
b.
c.
d.

29. In cyanide poisoning amyl nitrate is given by
a. inhalation
b. subcutaneously
c. intravenously
d. orally

30. Ototoxicity is caused by
a. ethcrynic acid
b. 
c.
d.

31. drug not used in esophageal varices
a. octreotide
b. somatostatin
c. desmopressin
d. telripressin

32. Pseudotumor cerebri is called by a/e
a. tetracycline
b. quinolone
c. Vitamin A
d. Cephalexin

33. Antiboitic effective against Pseudomonas is
a. Gentamicin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyline
d. Sulfa



PATHO

34. Carcinoid syndrome produces
a. 5-OH tryptamine
b. Histamine
c.
d.

35. MC necrosis
a. coagulative
b. liquefactive
c. caseous
d. hemorrhagic

36. liquefactive necrosis is seen in
a. brain
b. liver
c. lung
d. kidney

37. 'Bierbeck' granules are seen in
a. macrophage
b. langerhans cell
c. eosinophil
d. plasma cell

38. Cell characteristic of granuloma
a. epitheloid cell
b. plama cell
c. lymphocyte
d. giant cell


MICRO

39. 'Obligate aerobe' is
a. pseudomonas
b. staph
c. strep. viridians
d. e coli

40. disinfection means-
a. killing of spores + bacteria
b. kiiling of bacteria only, no spores
c.
d.

41. concept of physical sterilization was given by
a. Pasteur
b. Lister
c.
d.

42. Phase contrast microscope is used for the diagnosis of
a. treponema
b.
c.
d.

43. 'Accole' is seen in 
a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. ovale
d. P. malariae

44. Nephropathy is seen in
a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. ovale
d. P. malariae

45. Transfer of a portion of a DNA from one bacterium to another is known as
a. conjugation
b. transduction
c. lysogenic conversion
d. transference

46. Passive immunity is conferred by
a. live vaccine
b. killed vaccine
c. immunoglobulin transfer
d. none

47. Type IV hypersensitivity doesn't include
a. tumor immunity
b. contact dermatitis
c. granuloma formation
d. Arthus reaction

48. Thymic hypoplasia is seen in
a. De george syndrome
b. Severe Combined immunodeficiency
c. Hypoparathyroidism
d.

49. Cough Plate method is used in 
a. myco. tuberculosis
b. bordetella pertussis
c. mycoplasma
d.

50. Weil Felix test is not useful for
a. epidemic typus
b. spotted fever
c. scrub typhus
d. trench fever

51. Lepromin test is +ve on 
a. 3rd day 
b. 7th day
c. 10th day
d. 4 weeks

52. Blood culture is done in
a. Salmonella 
b. brucella
c. Leptospira
d. all

MYCOLOGY

53. opportunistic fungal infection 
a. aspergillus
b. Penicillium
c. mucor mycosis
d. all
 
54. Cultivation of virus is done in
a. Tissue culture
b. Protein rich culture
c. Animal inoculation
d.


55. Influenza panendemics are caused
a. antigenic shift
b. antigenic drift

56. malaria is transmitted by 
a. female anopheles 
b. male anopheles
c.
d.

57. Flask shaped ulcer is seen in
a. amoebiasis
b. 
c.
d.

58. All are transmitted by faeco oral route except
a. strongyloidosis
b. amoebiasis
c. enterobius 
d.


ENT

1.length of external auditory canal in mm is
a. 16
b. 18
c. 24
d. 35

60. hyper acusis is due to paralysis of 
a. stapedius
b. tensor tempani
c. 

61. coclear  function is tested by all except 
a. caloric test
b. weber test
c. reinne test
d.

62. Dangerous perforation is seen in
a. attic
b. central
c. subcentral (?)
d.

63. Nerve injured in mastoidectomy is
a. facial
b. cochlear
c. vestibular
d.

64. Maxillary sinus opens into 
a. superior meatus
b. middle meatus
c. inferior meatus
d. nasopharynx

65. abcess between tonsillar capsule and superior constrictor of pharynx is known as
a. quincy
b. parapharyngeal abcess
c. retropharyngeal
d.

66. distance from lower incisor to cardio oesophageal junction in cm is
a. 40
b. 15
c. 25
d. 27



OPTHALMOLOGY

67. Skew deviation is seen in lesions of
a. cerebellum
b. 7th nerve
c. 6th nerve nucleus
d. 3rd nerve

68. In Maddox road test the distance is
a. 6 meters
b. 1/2
c. 4
d. 2

69. Primary deviation is equal to secondary deviation in
a. concommitant squint
b. latent squint
c. none
d. paralytic squint

70. all are abductors except
a. Superior oblique
b. Inferior oblique
c. lateral rectus
d. superior rectus

71. MC ca. of lid
a. squamous
b. basal
c. adeno
d. melanoma

72. Contraindication of DCR are all except
a. tumor of lacrimal sac
b. chronic dacryocystitis
c. atrophic rhinitis
d. Deviated N S

73. rosette cataract is seen in
a. concussion injury
b. complicated cataract
c. steroid induced
d. congenital cataract

74. Pinkish color of optic disc is seen in
a. papilloedema
b. pseudopapilloedema
c. papillitis
d. polycythemia

75. treatment of choice for buphthalmos is
a. goniotomy
b. trableculectomy
c. shie surgery
d. poid??       

76. corneal endothelium can be visualised by
a. slit lamp
b. operating microscope
c.
d.


PSM
77. Birth rate and death rate should be registered between
a. 14 days and 7 days respectively
b. 7 days and 14 days respectively
c.
d.

78. true positivity is indicated by
a. sensitivity
b. specificity
c. predictive value
d. validity

79. Glucose quantity in ORS in gm. is
a. 20
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80

80. The cycle in which both multiplication and development occurs is
a. cyclopropogative
b. cyclodevelopmental
c. propogative
d. abortive

81. MC cancer in Indian male is
a. oral
b. brochogenic
c. prostate
d. colorectal

82. age pyramid of indian population is
a. broad base, tapering top
b. narrow base, broad top
c. buldge in the centre and tapering ends
d. haphazard

83. most commonly used method for sampling in MCH is
a. simple
b. stratified
c. systematic
d. 30 clusters

84. Indian growth chart contain following no. of curves
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

85. IQ=62 can be classified as
a. mild MR
b. mod MR
c. sev MR
d. profound MR

86. Cereals are deficient in 
a. lysine 
b. methionine
c. tryptophan
d. serine

87. pulses are deficient in
a. lysine 
b. methionine
c. tryptophan
d. methionine

88. The factory act prohibits employment below the age of (in years)
a. 14
b. 16
c. 18
d. 20

89. workers of dye industry are predisposed to the development of which cancer
a. bladder
b. skin
c. lung
d. pancreas

90. relative humidity is measured by
a. psychrometer
b. kata thermometer
c. dry thermometer
d. wet thermometer

91. pralidoxime is used in
a. dichlorvos
b. ddt
c. paraquet
d. propoxur

92. Headquarters of UNICEF is located in
a. New york
b. New Delhi
c. Geneva
d. Rome

93. The disease for which immunization is done yearly
a. Polio
b.
c.
d.

94. Kuppuswami scale includes all except
a.income
b.residential locality
c.occupation
d.education

95. following substance reduces affinity of Hb for Oxygen
a.2,3, DPG
b.hyperthermia
c.alkalosis
d.

96. femoral artery starts at
a.mid inguinal point
b.mid point of inguinal ligament
c.1/2 inch above mid inguinal point
d.3 cm lateral to pubic tubercle

97. most imp buffer is
a.bicarbonate
b.Hb
c.phosphate
d.

98.affinity of Hb is max for
a.carbondioxide
b.carbon monoxide
c.oxygen
d.nitrogen

99.precursor of serotonin
a.tryptophan
b.phenyl alanine
c.tyrosine
d.serine

100. reticulocytes are affected by
a. p. vivax
b. p. ovale
c. p. malariae
d. p. falciparum

101. characteristic cell of granuloma is
a. ephitheloid cells
b. plama cell
c. macrophage
d. lymphocyte

102. protein passes through cell memr by which mechanism
a. pinocytosis
b. active trasport
c. passive transport
d. diffusion

103. steroid hormones are synthesised by all except
a.testes
b.ovary
c.adrenal medulla
d.placenta

104. the frequency of involvement of cardiac valves in RHD is indicated by
a. no. of cusp involved
b. pressure changes
c. type of valve involved
d.

105. urinary cytology is useful in the diagnosis of
a.urethral cancer
b.renal cell ca.
c.prostatic cancer
d.polycystic kidney

106.cystosarcoma phylloides is seen in
a.stomach
b.breast
c.uterus
d.prostate

107.intestinal obstruction caused by carcinoma of colon is most likely to involve
a.caecum
b.ascending colon
c.transeverse colon
d.sigmoid colon

108. Theirch skin graft is
a.full thickness graft
b.partial thickness graft
c.pinch graft
d.pedicle graft

109. bennet's fracture involves which metacarpal
a.first
b.second
c.third
d.fourth

110. best bone graft is
a.allograft
b.autograft
c.deproteinised
d.demineralised

111. onion peel appearance is seen in
a.osteosarcoma
b.ewing sarcoma
c.chondroblastma
d.osteoclastoma

112.sprained ankle is due to injury to which ligament
a.talofibular
b.spring
c.deltoid
d.calceneo cuboid

113.blood supply to long bones is by
a.nutrient a.
b.periosteal vessels
c.epipyseal vessels
d.all

114. drawers test is done for
a.cruciate ligament
b.
c.
d.

115. MC abnormality in rickets is
a.genu valgum
b.genu varus
c.rachitic rosary
d.harrisons sulcus

116.trendelenburg test is done for
a.congenital dislocation of hip
b.
c.
d.

117. wandering acetabulum is seen in
a.T.B. hip
b.rheumatoid arthritis
c.dislocation
d.

118. most prominent spine 
a.C1
b.C7
c.T1
d.L1

119.Bamboo spine is seen in
a.Rheumatoid arthritis
b.Ankylosing spondylitis
c.Osteoarthristis
d.Gouty arthritis

120. Palkan spur is seen in 
a.rickets
b.scurvy
c.osteoporosis
d.osteomyelitis

121. enzyme raised in pagets disease is
a.alkaline phosphatase
b.
c.
d.

122. illiac index < 60 is seen in
a.down's
b.marfan's
c.klinefeilters
d.homocystinuria


PAEDS
123. average birth weight is
a. 2.9
b. 2.8
c. 3.3
d. 2.5

124. MC cause of acidosis in indian children is
a.starvation
b.diarrhoel diseases
c.
d.

125. Child draws straight line at what year
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 3

126. wormian bones are seen in all except
a.downs
b.turners
c.osteogenesis imperfecta
d.

127. a child with increased phosphate and normal serum phosporus is suffering from
a. Vitamin D resistant rickets
b. Vitamin D sensitive rickets
c. renal osteodystrophy
d. 

128. Average birth height of indian child is
a.25 cm
b.50 cm
c.45 cm
d.55 cm

129. Bilateral enlarged kidney is seen in
a.retroperitoneal fibrosis
b.papillary necrosis
c.acute cortical necrosis
d.

130. difference between core temperature of mother and fetus is
a.0.5
b.1
c.1.5
d.2

131. Iron requirement of fetus is
a.
b.
c.
d.

132. Retinoblastoma is associated with which childhood cancer
a.osteosarcoma
b.neuroblastoma
c.nephroblastoma
d.all of the above

133. which is not a tumor marker
a.alkaline phosphatase
b.acid phosphatase
c.alfa 1 antitrypsin
d.CEA

134. max. dose of lignocaine with adrenaline is (mg/kg)
a.5
b.6
c.7
d.9

135. spinal anaesthesia is injected in which space
a.epidural
b.subdural
c.subarachnoid
d.in the ventricle

136. radio iodine is used for metastasis of which cancer thyroid
a.follicular carcinoma
b.papillary
c.anaplastic
d.medullary

137.dose of ketamine I.M.
a.2 mg
b.6 mg
c.8 mg
d.10mg

138. forstberg's sign or inverted 3 sign is seen in 
a. carcinoma of head of pancreas
b. periampullary carcinoma
c. chronic pancreatitis
d.

139. infanticide is death of a child 
a. < 1 year
b. 2-3 years
c. <3
d. <5

140. alcohol intoxication occurs at blood level
a.50
b.100-150
c.>150
d.50-100

141. a person commiting a crime under intoxication of alcohol come under IPC
a.84
b.
c.
d.

142. MTP acts permits abortion upto 
a.12 weeks
b.16
c.20
d.24

143. prostatic cancer occurs in which zone of prostate
a.central
b.periurethral
c.peripheral
d.all

144. delusion is a disorder of
a.thought
b.perception
c.action
d.feeling

145.fear of situation is known as
a.agoraphobia
b.social phobia
c.claustrophobia
d.

146.features of catatonic schizophrenia are all except
a.mutism
b.posturing
c.echolalia
d.grandiosity

145. freud gave the theory of
a.psychoanalysis
b.
c.
d.

146. all are biological symptoms depression except
a.insomnia
b.weight loss
c.hopelessness
d.loss of sexual drive

147. defence mechanism used by drug addicts
a.denial
b.projection
c.sublimation
d.repression

148. if stimulation by one sensory modality produces hallucination in other modality, it is known as
a.reflex 
b.extracampine
c.
d.



MEDICINE

149. infectivity of HBV is indicated by
a.HBeAg
b.anti HBC
c.
d.

150. which is not a treatment of thallasemia
a.folate
b.iron
c.splenectomy
d.bone marrow transplantation

151.Intrapleural pressure more than atmospheric pressure is seen in which pneumothorax
a.valvular
b.open
c.spontaneous
d.

152. pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except
a. COPD
b. cor pulmonale
c. pericardial effusion
d. MR

153. gait in parkinsonism is
a.festinant
b.
c.
d.

154. which is not a exanthem
a. typhoid
b. malaria
c. measles
d. rubella

155. safest drug in malaria in pregnancy
a.mefloquine
b.progaunil
c.pyremethamine
d.primaquine

156. cha. finding of restrictive lung disease is
a.FEV1/FVC ratio normal
b.reduced FEV1
c.normal total lung capacity
d.

157. sensation not carried by spinothalamic tract is
a.touch
b.temperature
c.pain
d.vibration

158. ?? spirometer is used to measure
a.ERV
b.total lung capacity
c.residual volume
d.functional residual capacity

159. in myasthenia gravis- defect lies at
a.nerve ending
b.muscle end plate
c.
d.

160.normal serum calcium level in mg is
a.6-8
b.8-10
c.10-12
d.12-14



SURGERY

161. common carcinoma in elderly due to sun exposure is
a.basal cell
b.squamous
c.malignant melanoma
d.

162. pain and swelling in abdomen relelived by passage of large amount of urine is
a.dietel's crisis
b.
c.
d.

163. orchidopexy for undescended testes is done at what age
a.<1 year
b.intrauterine
c.1-2years
d.2-3years

164. splenic vein thrombosis is commonly seen in 
a.chronic pancreatitis
b.ca. pancreas
c.sickle cell anaemia
d.polycythemia



GYNAEC

165.Thermal mammography is used for the diagnosis of
a.small breast cancer
b.
c.
d.

166.blood supply of vulva is
a.internal pudendal
b.inferior epigastric
c.inferior vesicle
d.

167.hormone which helps in ejection of milk is
a.prolactin
b.oxytocin
c.esterogen 
d.progesterone

168. chr. no. of secondary oocyst is
a.23X
b.46X
c.23Y
d.46XX

169. the relation of long axis of uterus with maternal spine is known as
a.lie
b.attitude
c.
d.

170. large placenta is seen in
a. twins
b. IUGR
c. IUD
d. post maturity

171. post. frontanalle fuses at
a.
b.
c.
d.

172. engaging diameter in face presentation is
a.mentobregmatic
b.submentobregmatic
c.mentovertical
d.

173. tubal pregnacy tests are all except ( which should be 'tubal patency')
a.co2
b.laproscopy
c.fern
d.hysterosalpingography

174. endometrial hyperplasia is seen in which ovarian tumar
a.granulosa
b.endodermal sinus tumor
c.
d.

175.parentral iron is given when
a.oral iron is not tolerated
b.early response 
c.pregnancy at term with severve aneamia
d.
 
176. minimum no. of visits required for ANC are 
a.6
b.4
c.2
d.3

177. earliest diagnosis of chromosomal anamoly is done by
a.amniocentesis
b.chorionic villi biopsy
c.laproscopy
d.USG

178.Myelodysplasia is diagnosed by
a.alfa feto protein
b.lumbar puncture
c.x ray
d.biopsy

179. obstructed retracted ring is
a.bandl's
b.schroeder's
c.
d.

180. H.mole is best diagnosed by
a.HCG
b.clinical
c.USG
d.

181. PROM- means rapture of membrane
a.at term before labour
b.before term before labour
c.prematurity
d.

183. funnel shaped pelvis is
a.android
b.gynaecoid
c.platypelliod
d.anthrapoid

184. DTA is seen in
a.occipito anterior
b.occipito posterior
c.
d.

185. maximum dose of esterogen in low dose OCP in micrograms is
a.25
b.35
c.15
d.40

186. Carcinoma of cervix with involvement of upper 1/3 of vagina belongs to which stage
a.IIa
b.IIb
c.IIIa
d.IIIb

187.Major support of uterus
a.Mackenrodtt's ligament
b.
c.
d.

188.??? traction test is used in 
a.stress incontinence
b.incompitent os
c.enterocele
d.third degree perineal tear


SKIN
189. wavelength of UVB is
a.200-400
b.400-700
c.100-200
d.

190. condyloma acuminata is caused by
a.papilloma virus
b.pox virus
c.
d.

191. Podophylline is used in 
a. genital warts
b. plantar warts
c. 
d.

192. multiple symmetrical skin lesions are seen in 
a.lepramatous leprosy
b.lucio
c.borderline 
d.

193. not effective in tinea versicolor
a.clotrimazole
b.ketoconazole
c.griesiofulvin
d.fluconazole

194. most common mode of transmission in leprosy is     
a.droplet       
b.skin contact
c.
d.

195. erythrasma is caused by
a. corneybacterium
b.
c.
d.

196. retention cyst is
a. sebacious cyst
b. spermatocoele        
c. 
d.

197. most common organ affectecd in PAN
a. kidney
b. lung
c. liver
d. spleen

198. second class magistrate can sentence a person upto
a.1 years
b.2 years
c.7 years
d.5 years

199. lenses used in myopia
a.convex
b.concave
c.cylinder
d.prism

200. MC type of appendix
a.retrocaecal
b.retroileal
c.ileal
d.pelvic

201.'Hair on end appearance' is seen in
a.thallassemia
b.
c.
d.

202. all are seen in acute rheumatic fever except
a.pericardial rub
b.systolic murmur
c.loud S2
d.prolonged PR

203. metastatic calcification is seen in all except
a.addisons disease
b.hypoparathyroidism
c.hypervitaminosis D
d.sarcoidosis

204. ADH secretion is affected by all except
a.hypovolemia
b.dehydration
c.alcohol
d.nicotine

205. site where gastric ulcer is most likely to be malignant
a.lesser curvature
b.greater curvature
c.pylorus
d.antrum

206. True about Russel bodies
a. intracellular accumulation of proteins
b. seen in multiple myeloma
c. homogenous hyaline material
d. all of the above

207. Renold braude's phenomenon is seen in 
a. candida
b.
c.
d.

208. Mechanism of Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria :
a. increased sensitivity to compliment
b. autoimmune
c. congenital defect
d.

210. Deep inguinal ring is defect in 
a. fascia transeversalis
b. external oblique aponeurosis
c.
d.

211. Involved in Richer's hernia is
a. circumference of small intestine
b. meckel's diverticulum
c. 2 loops of small intestine
d.

212. Strangulated hernia is due to
a. extraluminal obstruction
b. intraluminal obstruction
c. vascular occlusion
d.

213. Kayser fleischer ring is due to
a. ceruloplasmin deficiency
b.
c.
d.

214. antibody present in saliva, tears
a. Ig A
b. Ig M
c. Ig G
d. Ig E

215. Asbestosis is associated with all except
a. pleural effusion
b. pleural calcification
c. small cell carcinoma of lung
d. nasophayngeal carcionoma

216. MC congenital anamoly seen in down's
a. A V cushion defect
b. VSD
c. ASD
d.

217. First antibody produced by fetus in response to infection is
a. Ig A
b. Ig M
c. Ig G
d. Ig E

218. Normal portal venous pressure is
a.<5 mm of hg
b.5-10 mm of hg
c.10-15 mm of hg
d.>15 mm of hg

219. Vitamin K is required for carboxylation of 
a. Glutamine
b. Glutamate
c.
d.

220. Angle of mandible is supplied by
a. great auricular nerve
b. lesser occipital nerve
c.
d.

221. Cobalt-60 decay produces
a. Cobalt-59
b. Nickel
c. Cobalt-61
d. Iron

222. Most harmful to skin is
. supervoltage X ray
b. orthovoltage X ray
c. Cobalt-60
d.

223. In USG crystals used is
a. Diamond
b. Quartz
c. Titanium?
d.

224. In thalassemia the minimum Hb level that should be maintained to ensure
     proper growth in children
a.8-10 gm%
b.10-12
c.6-8
d.12-14

225. Grasp and sucking reflex is seen in lesion of
a. Frontal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Temporal lobe
d. Occipital lobe

226. Troponin C binds to
a. Ca
b. Actin
c. Myosin
d.

227. Examination of hair helps in
a. Sex determination
b. Cause of injury
c. Blood group
d. All

230. Root value of Biceps
a. C5-C6
b. C7-C8
c. L2,3,4
d.

231. Inverse tendon reflex is funtion of
a. Muscle spindle
b. Golgi organ
c.
d.

232. One pint blood increases Hb by
a.1 gm%
b.
c.
d.

233. All anti T.B. drugs are hepatotoxic except
a. Ethambutol
b. Pyrazinamide
c. INH
d. Rifampicin

234. Colour vision is affected by
a. Ethambutol
b.
c.
d.

235. Definition of Menorrhagia is
a. Increase in duration of bleeding
b. Decrease in duration of bleeding
c. Decrese in cycle
d.

236. Reservior of Tetanus is
a. Man
b. Soil
c. Air
d.

237. Causes of loud first heart sound are all except
a. Thyrotoxicosis
b. MR
c. Fever
d. MS

238. Substrate for synthesis of fatty acid in cytoplasm is
a. acetyl CoA
b.
c.
d.

239. Reverse transport of Cholesterol to Liver is done by
a. HDL
b. LDL
c. VLDL
d. Chylomicron

240. Mallory Hyaline is seen in a/e
a. Hepatic Cirrhosis
b. Haemachromatosis
c. Wilsons disease
d. Primary biliary Cirrhosis

241. Sarcoidosis : True is a/e
a. Tuberculin test is strongly positive
b.
c.
d.

242. All are the branches of posterior cord of brachial plexus except
a. Suprascapular
b. Upper Subscapular
c. Thoracodorsal
d. Axillary

243. Mee's line is seen in which poisoning
a. Arsenic
b. Lead
c. Mercury
d. Copper

244. Treatment of Carbolic acid poisoning is
a. Warm water
b. Cold water
c. Glycerine in water
d. KMNO4

245. Gun shot showing tatoo, collar, with or without gas is from which range
a. Long distance
b. Intermediate 
c. Close
d. Actual contact

246. Maximum transmission of HIV from mother to fetus is during
a. Vaginal delivery
b. Caeserean
c. Antepartum
d.

247. Refrence protein is
a. Egg
b. Milk
c. Meat
d. Pulse

248. Osteomalacia with pregnancy : Treatment -
a. Ca
b. Ca with Vitamin D
c.
d.

249. Which field is preserved till late in Glaucoma
a. Nasal
b. Temporal
c. Superior
d. Inferior

250. Wire loop lesions are seen in 
a. SLE
b.
c.
d.

251. Enzyme increased in MI is
a. CPK MB
b. SGPT
c. alkaline phosphatase
d.

252. Kehr sign is seen in
a. Splenic rapture
b.
c.
d.

253. Brodie Trendlenberg test is done 
a. Saphenofemoral junction
b. CDH
c.
d.

254. Features of acute pericarditis are all except
a. Constrictive pericarditis
b. Pericardial rub
c. Pain
d.

255. Urinary Continence is mainly due to 
a. Lisso sphincter
b. Puborectalis
c. Circular sphincter of urethra
d.

256. All are causes of alkalosis except
a. Uretrosigmoidostomy
b. ingestion of alkali
c. G I obstruction
d.

257. ?? Injured in the surgery of Carotid body tumor
a. bifurcation of carotid artery
b.
c.
d.

258. Liver and Spleen retain their haemopoiteic activity till
a. Intrauterine life only
b. Life long
c. 3 years
d. 1 year

259. Most common cause of intestinal obstrucion in neonate is
a. Atresia and bands
b. Meconium illeus
c. Hirschprungs disease
d.

260. What are lepra cells
a. Histiocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Neutrophil
d. Plasma cell

261. Bagassosis is due to 
a. Cane sugar
b. Cotton
c. Silica
d. Farm grain

262. MC cause of adrenal hyperplasia is
a. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
b. 17 hydroxylase deficiency
c. 11 hydroxylase deficiency
d. 3 beta hydroxylase deficiency

263. Cause of dry gangrene is
a. Vascular occlusion
b.
c.
d.

264. Urine concentrating mechanism is lost due to damage to 
a. DCT and CT
b. PCT
c. Ascending loop of henle
d. Glomerular injury

265. Glucose and Na is reabsorbed in
a. DCT
b. PCT
c. Ascending loop
d. Descending loop

266. Method of pecussion was discovered by
a. Hippocrates
b. Auranbeurger
c.
d.

267. Antigen used in VDRL
a. Cardiolipin
b. Phospholipid
c. 
d.

268. Infective endocarditis is MC in
a. VSD
b. PDA
c. ASD
d. TOF

269. Chest circumference is measured at
a. Midway between ins and exp
b. end of ins
c. end of exp
d. anytime

270. Most useful inv in hypothyroidism is
a. TSH
b. T3 
c. T4
d. TRH

271. Management of physiological jaundice is
a. Phototherapy
b. Phenobarbitone
c. Blood transfusion
d. None

272.Charcot's triad is due to 
a. Acute Cholecystitis
b. Acute Cholangitis
c.
d.

273. Mc cause of cerebral edema is
a. Vasogenic
b. Cytotoxic
c.
d.

274. MC form of Tracheo esophageal fistula is
a. Upper end blind- Lower end communicating with Trachea
b. Lower end blind- Upper end communicating with Trachea
c. both ends blind
d. both ends communicating with trachea

275. Sullivan's index is
a. Life without disability
b.
c.
d.

276. Funnel shaped pelvis is
a. Gynaecoid
b. Anthropoid
c. Android
d. Platypelloid

277. Scalds are due to 
a. Moist heat
b. Dry heat
c.
d.
 
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