MAHE 2001

1. In Congenital club foot, the features are: 
a. Plantarflexion of foot, inversion at the subtalar joint, abduction of forefoot
b. Plantarflexion of foot, Inversion at the subtalar joint, adduction of forefoot
c. Dorsiflexion of foot, eversion at the subtalar joint, adduction of forefoot
d. Plantarflexion of foot, eversion at the subtalar joint, adduction of forefoot.

2. Cherry red spot in the retina is seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT: 
a) Wilson's disease 
b) Niemann -Pick disease 
c) Taysach's disease 
d) Mucoviscidosis

3. The characteristic finding in Retro bulbar neuritis is: 
a) Cotton wool patches 
b) Pupillary afferent defect 
c) Optic disc edema 
d) 

4. Broca's area is seen in: 
a) Superior frontal gyrus 
b) Inferior frontal gyrus 
c) Superior temporal gyrus 
d) 

5. 30-year-old female complained of diplopia. On examination, it was found that she couldn't move her right eye downward and laterally. The nerve affected is: 
a) Optic nerve 
b) Oculomotor nerve 
c) Trochlear nerve 
d) Abducent nerve

6. Lens protein glaucoma is caused by which of the following cataracts: 
a) Mature cataract 
b) Hyper mature cataract 
c) Intumescent cataract 
d) Immature cataract

Which of the following correctly depicts the cataract produced by trauma? 
a) Rosette cataract 
b) Sunflower cataract 
c) Snowflake cataract 
d)

All of the following drugs increase the plasma level of Theophyllin EXCEPT: 
a) Carbamazepine 
b) Cimetidine 
c) Propranolol 
d) Erythromycin

While examining a patient, both his ears were found to be Rinne's "Positive" and Weber's test was lateralised to left. The diagnosis is: 
a) Left sided conductive deafness 
b) Right sided conductive deafness 
c) Left sided nerve deafness 
d) Right sided nerve deafness

Chronic recurrent Retro pharyngeal abscess is caused by: 
a) TB retro pharyngeal lymphnode 
b) Malignancies affecting Retro pharyngeal LN 
c) Midline granulomas 
d)

Which of the following types of Malignant Melanoma is considered to be the MOST malignant? 
a) Nodular 
b) Superficial spreading 
c) Lentigo maligna 
d) Amelanotic

Acute Laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis is caused by which of the following bacteria? 
a) Hemolytic streptococci 
b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae 
c) Staphylococcus Aureus 
d)

Matching is done to minimize which of the following errors: 
a) Sampling bias 
b) Selection bias 
c) Confounding bias 
d) Interviewer bias

Bence-Jones proteins in urine is seen in which of the following condition: 
a) Multiple myeloma 
b) Malignant Melanoma 
c) 

Drug used in Limb perfusion for Malignant Melanoma is: 
a) Cytarabine 
b) Melphalan 
c) Methotrexate 
d) Cyclophosphamide

Chancroid is caused by: 
a) Treponema pallidum 
b) Hemophilus ducreyi 
c) 

Late feature of Glaucoma is: 
a) Bjerrum's arcuate 
b) Temporal visual island 
c) Biarcuate scotoma 
d) Baring of blindspot 

Which of the following chemicals is used to treat Alkali burns in oesophagus: 
a) Hydrochloric acid 
b) Nitric acid 
c) Vinegar 
d) Sulphuric acid

Staphylococci can persist in skin due to the production of which of the following: 
a) Catalase 
b) Coagulase 
c) Lipase 
d) Phosphatase

Narrow anterior fontanelle in children is seen in which of the following conditions? 
a) Hydrocephalus 
b) Craniostenosis 
c) Cleidocranial dysostosis 
d) Vitamin deficiency Rickets

Which of the following is NOT included in the First rank symptoms of Schizophrenia? 
a) Thought withdrawal 
b) Thought insertion 
c) Visual hallucinations 
d) Auditory hallucinations

The first discovered HMG CoA reductase inhibitor which was isolated from penicillium sp. is: 
a) Fluvastatin 
b) Lovastatin 
c) Mevastatin 
d) Pravastatin

Subdural hemorrhage is caused by the rupture of: 
a) Middle meningeal artery 
b) Dural venous sinuses 
c) Bridging veins 
d) Circle of Willis

The main indication to do a Medico legal Autopsy is to find out: 
a) Manner of death 
b) Mode of death 
c) Time since death 
d) Cause of death

Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another via Bacteriophage is called: 
a) Conjugation 
b) Transduction 
c) Transformation 
d)

The "Road to Health" growth chart was first designed by: 
a) David Morley 
b) Cecily Williams 
c) Swaminathan 
d) 

The grass-root worker in ICDS Programme is: 
a) Anganwadi worker 
b) Primary health worker 
c) Dais 
d) Village health worker

The use of local anaesthetics in sites of infection is contraindicated because: 
a) It spreads the infection 
b) It gets inactivated in the acidic pH 
c) both a & b 
d) None of the above

The advantage of using Adrenaline along with local anaesthetic is: 
a) Higher doses of anaesthetic can be used 
b) Hastens the action of the drug 
c) Both of the above 
d) None of the above

The disease which is going to be eradicated soon from India is: 
a) Polio myelitis 
b) Guinea worm infection 
c) Mumps 
d) Diphtheria

The mechanism of action of Adenosine is: 
a) Blocks the inactivated Na+ channel 
b) Blocks the Na+ - K+ ATPase 
c) Activates Ach sensitive K+ channel and causes membrane hyperpolarization 
d) Prolongs repolarization phase by AP widening

Long chain Fatty acids are transmitted across the inner membrane of Mitochondria by: 
a) Acyl carrier protein 
b) Carnitine 
c) 
d) 

Which of the following compounds of Lead is the LEAST toxic: 
a) Lead arsenate 
b) Lead oxide 
c) Lead carbonate 
d) Lead sulphide

All of the following diseases can be transmitted by mosquitoes EXCEPT: 
a) Filariasis 
b) Chikungunya fever 
c) Rift valley fever 
d) Q fever

Vitamin involved in One carbon transfer is: 
a) Thiamine 
b) Riboflavin 
c) Folic acid 
d) Pyridoxine

Which of the following fungi is most difficult to be cultured in vitro? 
a) Microsporum 
b) Rhinosporidium seeberi 
c) Sporothrix schenkii 
d) Coccidioidis immitis

Polydioxanone (PDS) sutures get absorbed in: 
a) 7 days 
b) 21 days 
c) 100 days 
d) 225 days

Suture material for intestinal anastomosis is: 
a) Polydioxanone (PDS) 
b) Vicryl 
c) Catgut 
d) Silk

The inert foreign body in eye is: 
a) Iron 
b) Aluminium 
c) Lead 
d) Gold

The term Neuropraxia means: 
a) Complete division of nerve 
b) Functional disruption 
c) Division of nerve fibres with intact nerve sheath 
d) Anatomical disruption of nerve sheath

Most common cause of First trimester abortion is: 
a) Chromosomal anomalies 
b) Hormonal changes 
c) Immunological defects 
d)

Chromosome pattern in Kline-Felter's Syndrome is: 
a) XXY 
b) XXX 
c) XO 
d) XY

Genotype in Testicular feminization Syndrome is: 
a) 46 XX 
b) 46 XY 
c) 45 XO 
d) 47 XXY

Buccal smear from a patient shows double barr bodies. The chromosome pattern of the patient is: 
a) XXY 
b) XX 
c) XXX 
d) XO

Which of the following drugs is not given in a setting of Acute myocardial infarction? 
a) Aspirin 
b) Metoprolol 
c) Nifedipine 
d) ACE inhibitors

All of the following are seen in a case of Sarcoidosis EXCEPT: 
a) Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy 
b) Positive tuberculin test 
c) Elevated serum angiotensin levels 
d) Regression seen early

All of the following are useful in Digitalis toxicity EXCEPT: 
a) K+ infusion 
b) Hemodiaysis 
c) Fab fragments 
d) Lignocaine

In ORS solution, the benefit of adding glucose to it is: 
a) Increases absorption of Na+ 
b) Provides calories 
c) Increases absorption of K+ 
d) 

Which of the following is true about Physiological Jaundice in a newborn: 
a) Appears on 1st day and disappears on the 7th day 
b) Appears on 2nd day and disappears on the 7th day 
c) Appears on the 4th day and disappears on the 7th day 
d) Appears on the 2nd week and disappears on the 3rd week

In a term newborn, hypoglycemia occurs when the serum blood glucose level is below: 
a) 30 mg/dl 
b) 40 mg/dl 
c) 50 mg/dl 
d) 55 mg/dl

Following surgery, hypertension can be produced by all of the following causes EXCEPT: 
a) Pain 
b) Fear
c) Hypovolemia 
d)

Anaesthesia is NOT safe in: 
a) acute porphyria 
b) Hyperpyrexia 
c) Both of the above 
d) None of the above

Which of the following is NOT seen in acute intermittent porphyria? 
a) Abdominal pain 
b) Neuropsychiatric manifestations 
c) Dermatological manifestations 
d) Passing dark coloured urine

All of the following are used in urticaria EXCEPT: 
a) Antihistamines 
b) Topical glucocorticoids 
c) Cyproheptadine 
d) Hydroxyzine

Vocal cord web formation post traumatically can be prevented by: 
a) Tracheostomy tube insertion 
b) Systemic antibiotics 
d) Mc Naught's keel 
d) None of the above

In MRI of a patient with IVDP, finding a Schmorl's node is significant because: 
a) Shows good prognosis 
b) Is diagnostic 
c) No significance 
d) Shows bad prognosis

For doing a vein graft, the minimum diameter of the vein should be: 
a) 0.5 mm 
b) 3.5 mm 
c) 5 mm 
d) 7 mm 

Mechanism of action of Ondansetron 
a) acts on central 5-HT3 receptors 
b) blocks 5-HT2A receptors 
c) Acts on 5-HT1 receptors
d) Acts on 5-HT2C receptors

Treatment of choice for chronic Pseudopancreatic cyst is: 
a) Cystectomy 
b) Cystogastrostomy 
c) Aspiration of the cyst fluid 
d) 

Which of the following drugs can be safely used in central diabetes insipidus as a nasopharyngeal spray in both adults and children? 
a) 8-a Lysine Vasopressin 
b) 8-a Arginine Vasopressin 
c) Desmopressin 
d) Hydrochlorothiazide

Ebstein Barr virus causes all of the following diseases EXCEPT: 
a) Burkitts lymphoma 
b) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 
c) Hodgkins lymphoma 
d) Kaposi's sarcoma

Oral candidiasis is seen in all of the following diseases EXCEPT: 
a) Pregnancy 
b) Diabetes mellitus 
c) Hypertension 
d) Immunodeficiency

Most important risk factor for Coronary artery disease is: 
a) Smoking 
b) Hypercholestrolemia 
c) Hypertension 
d) Diabetes

Topical preparation of Vitamin D (Calcipotriol) is used in which of the following skin conditions? 
a) Psoriaisis 
b) Pytiriasis rosea 
c) Lichen planus 
d)

A man developed severe abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhoea after 4 hours of consuming an egg preparation. The most probable causative organism causing the condition is: 
a) Staph aureus
b) Clostridium 
c) E. coli 
d) Salmonella

Which of the following is an example of passively acquired immunity? 
a) Pertusis antiserum 
b) Tetanus toxoid 
c) measles vaccination 
d) Rabies vaccine

Humidity is measured by: 
a) Kata thermometer 
b) Sling Psychrometer 
c) Globe thermometer 
d)

Rheumatic fever prophylaxis is an example of: 
a) Primary prevention 
b) Primordial prevention 
c) Secondary prevention 
d) Tertiary prevention

"Scientific- proof" of an etiological factor is given by: 
a) Case control study 
b) Cohort study 
c) Randomized clinical trial 
d) 

Incubation period for measles is: 
a) 2 - 7 days 
b) 10 - 14 days 
c) 14 - 28 days 
d) 3 - 4 weeks

According to the latest concept, recurrences of Plasmodium vivax malaria is caused by: 
a) Erythrocytic stage 
b) Exoerythrocytic hepatic stage 
c) Hypnozoite stage 
d) latent release from the peripheral blood stores

Drug which cannot be used in Round worm infestation is: 
a) Pyrantel pamoate 
b) DEC 
c) Piperazine 
d) Mebendazole

Which of the following is used in DNA studies? 
a) Southern blot 
b) Northern blot 
c) Western blot 
d) Eastern blot

Kimmelsteil Wilson disease is seen in: 
a) SLE 
b) Diabetes mellitus 
c) Glomerulonephritis 
d)

Which of the following does not cross the placenta? 
a) Insulin 
b) Thyroxin 
c) Oestrogen 
d) Progesterone

Optimum fluoride content of drinking water must be: 
a) 0.003 - 0.05 ppm 
b) 0.5 - 0.8 ppm 
c) 1 -3 ppm 
d)

According to CDC/ WHO criteria for AIDS, which of the following cannot be considered as a criterion? 
a) Cryptococcosis 
b) Oral candidiasis 
c) Kaposi's sarcoma 
d) Disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex

The limiting aminoacid in wheat is: 
a) Tryptophan 
b) Leucine 
c) Threonine 
d) Phenyl alanine

The advantage of breast feeding is that it prevents infection of: 
a) Respiratory tract 
b) Gastrointestinal system 
c) Skin 
d) CNS

Ante mortem drowning is characterized by: 
a) Soddening 
b) fine froth in nostrils and mouth ` 
c) Washerwoman's hands 
d) Wet clothes

Cross examination is done by: 
a) Defence lawyer 
b) Magistrate 
c) Public prosecutor 
d) Witness

Sullivan's index denotes the level of: 
a) Morbidity 
b) Mortality 
c) Disability 
d) Disease

Asbestosis causes all of the following EXCEPT: 
a) Pleural fibroma 
b) Mesothelioma 
c) Gastric carcinoma 
d) Bronchogenic carcinoma

Damage of which of the following nerves causes fixed dilated pupil? 
a) Abducent 
b) Trochlear 
c) Oculomotor 
d) Facial

Which is NOT true about purpura? 
a) Size more than 3 mm 
b) Bleeding into the dermis 
c) Pigment deposition occurs 
d) Blanches on pressure

All of the following drugs are K+ channel openers EXCEPT 
a) Minoxidil 
b) Pinacidil 
c) Glibenclamide 
d) Chromakalim

Which of the following is not an example of Type III immune reaction? 
a) Rheumatoid arthritis 
b) SLE 
c) Serum sickness 
d) Tuberculosis

"Mouse nibbled" ulcer on the margin of vocal cords is seen in: 
a) Carcinoma 
b) Tuberculosis 
c) voice abuse 
d) 

Longest part of the fallopian tube is: 
a) Interstitium 
b) Isthmus 
c) Ampulla 
d) Infundibulum

Spontaneous hernia occurs in which of the following: 
a) Inguinal 
b) Femoral 
c) Umbilical 
d) Incisional

All of the following are interceptive contraception methods EXCEPT: 
a) RU 486 
b) Copper T 
c) Norplant 
d) OCP

Which of the following group of lymph nodes drain the upper and outer quadrant of breast? 
a) Deltopectoral nodes 
b) Anterior pectoral nodes 
c) Posterior pectoral nodes 
d) Apical group

Safe period in menstrual cycle is: 
a) 7 - 21 days of menstrual cycle 
b) 7 days before and after menstruation 
c) 14 days before menstruation 
d) 14 days after menstruation

Most cycloplegic drug among the following is: 
a) Atropine 
b) Homatropine 
c) Phenylephrine 
d) Cyclopentolate

All of the following are true about Parkinsonian tremors EXCEPT: 
a) Resting tremor 
b) Usually affects the head 
c) Disappears on L- Dopa therapy 
d) 

Which of the following is true about Bromocriptine? 
a) Increases Dopamine level in Hypothalamus 
b) Increases the level of Growth hormone in Acromegaly 
c) Increases prolactin secretion 
d) None of the above

Commonest complication of ovarian tumor is: 
a) Torsion 
b) Hemorrhage 
c) Infection 
d) Malignant change

Most radio sensitive tumour among the following is: 
a) Teratoma 
b) Dysgerminoma 
c) Fibroma 
d) Choriocarcinoma

Hematogenous spread is seen in: 
a) Seminoma 
b) Follicular carcinoma 
c) Choriocarcinoma 
d) Papillary carcinoma

Pain due to gall bladder inflammation affecting the peritoneum is referred to: 
a) Epigastrium 
b) Shoulder 
c) Hypogastrium 
d) Umbilicus

A patient with portal hypertension presents with bleeding even after undergoing Balloon tamponade and Sclerotherapy. What can be done as an emergency measure? 
a) Ligation and transection 
b) Portosystemic shunt operation 
c) Both of the above 
d) None of the above

Ascitis can be clinically demonstrated when the fluid level is more than 
a) 100 ml 
b) 1000 ml 
c) 1500 ml
d) 2500 ml

Erysipelas is caused by: 
a) Streptococci 
b) Staph aureus 
c) Hemophilus influenzae 
d)

Earliest symptom in Fallopian tube carcinoma is: 
a) Watery discharge per vaginum 
b) Pain abdomen 
c) Menorrhagia 
d) Secondary amenorrhea 

Tzanck test is done in infection with: 
a) Herpes simplex 
b) Cytomegalovirus 
c) 
d) 

In Philadelphia chromosome there is translocation between chromosomes 
a) 11 and 22 
b) 9 and 22 
c) 5 and 13 
d) 8 and 14

Obstructed labour occurs most commonly in which of the following pelvic types? 
a) Gynecoid 
b) Android 
c) Anthropoid 
d) Platypelloid

Split laceration looks like: 
a) Incised wound 
b) Avulsion 
c) 

Which of the following is not a pre-malignant condition? 
a) Ulcerative colitis 
b) Familial adenomatous polyposis 
c) Villous adenoma 
d) Peutz Jegher's syndrome

Major source of amniotic fluid at term is: 
a) Secretions from the amnion 
b) Fetal urine 
c) Diffusion from the fetal skin 
d) 

A 30 years old female was brought to the OPD on the 4th day after delivery. She was showing mood changes, irritability, fearfulness and anxiety about her baby, had fight with the relatives and remained tearful. She is suffering most probably from: 
a) Postparum depression 
b) Postnatal blues 
c) Puerperal psychosis 
d) None of the above

Drug of choice for bipolar mood disorder: 
a) Carbamazepine 
b) Lithium carbonate 
c) Imipramine 
d) 

Treatment most effective in a patient who is having severe depression with suicidal tendencies is: 
a) Tricyclic antidepressants 
b) Electroconvulsive therapy 
c) Psychotherapy 
d) 

Flooding is the mode of treatment for which of the following? 
a) Anxiety disorder 
b) Depression 
c) Fear 
d) 

An alcoholic presents with complaints of loss of memory of recent events, impaired insight, confabulation, and dementia of few months duration. The patient is suffering from: 
a) Wernicke's encephalopathy 
b) Korsakoff's psychosis 
c) Delirium tremens 
d) 

Positive Tobey Ayer test is seen in: 
a) Lateral sinus thrombosis 
b) Meniere's disease 
c) Otosclerosis 
d) 

Tone decay test is done to find out: 
a) Otosclerosis 
b) Cochlear lesions 
c) Retrocochlear lesions 
d) 

All of the following are true about Heat stroke EXCEPT: 
a) Temperature required is usually more than 40 degrees 
b) There is increased sweating 
c) 
d) Ice cold water is not effective in reducing the body temperature

Most common complication after using Sodium Nitroprusside in hypertensive patients is 
a) Hypotension 
b) Increased cyanide levels in blood 
c) Thiocyanate toxicity 
d) 

Defect in the short arm of Chromosome number 5 results in: 
a) Familial adenomatous polyposis 
b) Ulcerative colitis 
c) 
d) 

Splenomegaly is seen in the late stages of all of the following EXCEPT: 
a) Kala azar 
b) IMN 
c) Sickle cell anemia 
d) Malaria 

Drug of choice in Meningococcal meningitis is: 
a) Cefotaxime 
b) Benzyl penicillin 
c) Ciprofloxacin 
d) Tetracycline

Hyperuricemia is NOT seen in which of the following conditions? 
a) Renal failure 
b) Von gierke's disease 
c) Lesch Nyhan syndrome 
d) Gilbert's syndrome

Pudendal nerve supplies all of the following EXCEPT: 
a) Posterior fornix of vagina 
b) Urethral sphincter 
c) Anal canal 
d) Bulbospongiosus muscle

Lithogenic bile is so called because of the presence of increased 
a) Bile acids 
b) Cholesterol 
c) Calcium 
d) Bilirubin

Which of the following is true about Rhinophyma: 
a) Seen in tuberculosis 
b) 
c) Caused by K. scleromatis 
d) None of the above

What should be done in an established case of panophthalmitis? 
a) Enucleation 
b) Evisceration 
c) Exenteration 
d) Antibiotics 

Which of the following is LEAST common in supracondylar fracture: 
a) Non union 
b) Median nerve injury 
c) Volkmann's Ischaemic Contracture 
d) Cubitus varus

Differentiation between multibacillary and paucibacillary leprosy is based on: 
a) Morphological index 
b) Bacteriological index 
c) Lepromin test 
d) Skin lesions

Child survival index depends on: 
a) IMR 
b) MMR 
c) Under 5 mortality 
d) Perinatal mortality

What will be the management in a HIV patient with fistula in ano whose CD4 count is less than 200 per m l? 
a) Seton 
b) Fistulotomy 
c) Fistulectomy 
d) None of the above

The word "Parosmia" means: 
a) Perversion of smell 
b) Absent smell sensation 
c) feeling bad smell 
d) 

All of the following are mesodermal derivatives EXCEPT: 
a) Wall of heart
b) Cortex of adrenal gland 
c) Respiratory epithelium 
d) Kidney and tubules

Protrusion of the Intervertebral disc between C5 and C6 compresses which nerve root? 
a) C4 
b) C5 
c) C6 
d) C7

Epidemiological surveillence index of malaria is assessed by which of the following? 
a) ABER 
b) API 
c) Spleen index 
d)

Annual growth rate is said to be "Explosive" when the growth rate exceeds: 
a) 1% 
b) 1.5% 
c) 2% 
d) 2.5%

A patient presented with fever, neck rigidity and with the following blood findings- there is lymphocytosis, Protein level is elevated and the CSF sugar level is normal. What is the probable diagnosis? 
a) Pyogenic meningitis 
b) Viral meningitis 
c) Fungal meningitis 
d) Parasitic meningitis

The blood gas analysis of a patient shows the following-- Oxygen saturation of blood is 17.1 ml. Hemoglobin concentration is 14 g/dl, PO2 is 60mmHg, PCO2 is 30 mmHg. What is the percentage of saturation of hemoglobin? 
a) 17.1 - (0.003 ´ 30) ´ 100 
14 ´ 1.34 
b) 17.1 - (0.003 ´ 60) ´ 100 
14 ´ 1.34 
c) 14 ´ 1.34 ´ 100 
{ 17.1 - (0.003 ´ 30)} 
d) 17.1 ´ 100 
14 ´ 1.34

Most common cause of Pelvic inflammatory disease is 
a) Chlamydia 
b) Tuberculosis 
c) Gonococci 
d) Group B streptococci

All of the following are autosomal dominant EXCEPT: 
a) Hemochromatosis 
b) Von Willibrand disease 
c) Hypercholesterolemia 
d) Huntington's chorea

All of the following are true about Huntington's chorea EXCEPT: 
a) Both males and females are affected 
b) Manifests clinically after 50 years usually 
c) On MRI, atrophied caudate lobe is seen 
d)

Pulsatile proptosis is caused by: 
a) Carotid cavernous fistula 
b) Lateral sinus thrombosis 
c) Thyrotoxicosis 
d) Retinoblastoma

Cobble stone appearance is seen in: 
a) Trachoma 
b) Spring catarrh 
c) Palpebral conjunctivitis 
d)

Primary osteoarthrosis affects: 
a) Small joints of upperlimb 
b) Hip joint in females 
c) Knee joint in males 
d) Shoulder joint

All of the following are true about Dequervain's thyroiditis EXCEPT: 
a) Tender swelling present 
b) Treated with Aspirin and steroids 
c) Areas where Iodine deficiency is seen are more prone for the disease 
d) There is increased Iodine uptake

On X-ray, left border of the heart is formed by all EXCEPT: 
a) Left atrium 
b) Arch of Aorta 
c) Pulmonary trunk 
d) Superior venacava

Drug of choice in multi- drug resistant Staphylococci is: 
a) Vancomycin 
b) Ciprofloxacin 
c) Cephalosporins 
d) 

Which of the following is true about Vancomycin? 
a) Glycoprotein in structure 
b) Affects protein synthesis 
c) Final transpeptide linkage in cell wall is broken 
d) Inhibits cell wall synthesis

The mechanism of action of Finasteride is: 
a) 5-a Reductase inhibitor 
b) Androgen antagonist 
c) Androgen receptor inhibition 
d) 

Mechanism of action of Abciximab is: 
a) Cycloxygenase II inhibitor 
b) inhibits Thromboxane A2 formation 
c) Inhibits platelet aggregation and binds to integrin receptors 
d) Gp IIb - IIIa inhibition

All are true about massive hemoptysis EXCEPT: 
a) More than 100 ml blood per day 
b) Thoracotomy has to be done 
c) Rigid bronchoscopy should be used 
d) Should lie on the side of the normal lung

Spread of malignant cells through peritoneum depends on: 
a) Gravity factor 
b) Chemotaxis 
c) Angiogenesis factor 
d) 


In antenatal assessment of Down's syndrome, which of the following hormones is NOT useful: 
a) b HCG 
b) a fetoprotein 
c) Oestradiol 
d) Progesterone

Which of the following causes Menorrhagia? 
a) Triphasic pill 
b) IUCD 
c) Progestasert 
d) OCP

The iron content in breast milk is: 
a) 0.1 mg 
b) 0.2 mg 
c) 0.3 mg 
d) 0.4 mg

All of the following causes metabolic acidosis EXCEPT: 
a) Diarrhea 
b) Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis 
c) Renal failure 
d) Diabetic ketosis

Which of the following is NOT true about the management of chronic renal failure? 
a) Dietary proteins should be restricted to 40 gms daily 
b) Fluid intake should be restricted to 1 litre per day 
c) Calcium carbonate tablets should be given with each meal 
d) Aluminium hydroxide tablets (antacid) should be given immediately before meals

If a substance is filtered by the glomerulus and secreted by the tubule, the clearance of the substance will be 
a) More than that of Inulin 
b) Equal to that of inulin 
c) Less than that of inulin 
d) Zero

In symptomatic aortic aneurysms, the one year survival rate is: 
a) 70% 
b) 80 % 
c) 90% 
d) 100%

In abdominal aorta aneurysm repair, the most common complication is: 
a) Hemorrhage 
b) Infection 
c) Renal failure 
d) Pulmonary complications

Serum amylase and lipase levels are increased in which of the following conditions? 
a) Acute pancreatitis 
b) Renal failure 
c) 
d) 

Restriction endonuclease is used in: 
a) Recombinant DNA technique 
b) 
c) 
d) 

Post tetanic potentiation is caused by: 
a) Recruitment of motor units 
b) Increased calcium entry into the cell 
c) 
d) 

All of the following are true about infective endocarditis seen in i.v drug abusers EXCEPT: 
a) Tricuspid valve is commonly affected
b) Withdrawal of the drug reverses the condition 
c) Commonest organism is S. aureus 
d)Contaminated drug is causative

Acute infective endocarditis is caused by: 
a) S. epidermidis 
b) S. aureus 
c) Strepto. viridans 
d) Pneumococci

Medial meniscus is commonly injured because: 
a) It is semilunar in shape 
b) It is attached to the medial collateral lig. 
c) 
d) 

Gastric acid secretion is reduced by: 
a) H+- K+ ATPase inhibitor 
b) H1 antihistaminics 
c) Nicotinic receptor blockers 
d) All of the above

Sodium 2-mercaptoethanesulfonate is useful in the treatment of: 
a) Alopecia 
b) Hemorrhagic cystitis 
c) Bone marrow depression 
d) 

X-ray lower end of femur of a 12 year old boy shows an osteolytic lesion originating from the metaphysis and eroding the cortex. Most probably the tumour is: 
a) Osteosarcoma 
b) Osteoma 
c) Osteoclastoma 
d) Ewing's sarcoma

Example of uterine inertia with no relation to polarity is: 
a) Cervical dystocia 
b) Constriction ring 
c) Irregular contractions 
d) Hypotonia

In a pregnant female, which of the following depicts the level of storage form of iron? 
a) Transferrin level 
b) Serum ferritin level 
c) Hemoglobin level 
d) Iron binding capacity

Which of the following is an abnormal nitrogen base seen in t-RNA? 
a) Methyl xanthine 
b) Orotates 
c) Hydroxyuridine 
d) Cysteine 

A 30 year old normotensive male presented with recurrent painless hematuria. The most probable diagnosis is: 
a) MPGN 
b) Post streptococcal GN 
c) Ig A nephropathy 
d)

An IVDP patient, on examination shows normal knee jerk. But he has got paresthesia over the dorsum of foot and weakness of the extensor hallucis. What would be the level of compression? 
a) between L2 and L3
b) Between L3 and L4 
c) Between L4 and L5 
d) Between L5 and S1 

In a case of hepatitis B, maximum infectivity is seen when the patient is positive for: 
a) HBs Ag & Anti HBc 
b) HBs Ag & HBc 
c) HBs Ag 
d) HBs Ag & Anti HBc 

A diabetic patient presented in ketoacidosis with the following blood values.
pH 7.1, Se. K+ is 5.2, PCO2 is 20mm Hg, PO2 is 90mm Hg, Se. HCO3- is 13meq.
176. The metabolic abnormality in this patient is: a) Metabolic alkalosis with normal HCO3- 
b) Metabolic acidosis with low HCO3- 
c) Metabolic acidosis with normal HCO3- 
d) Metabolic alkalosis with low HCO3-

177. The cause of hyperkalemia in this patient is: a) Hypovolemia 
b) Decreased insulin induced K+ entry into cell 
c) Haemoconcentration 
d) All of the above

178. Why is PCO2 low in this patient? 
a) Metabolic alkalosis 
b) Hyperventilation due to low Ph 
c) Hyperkalemia 
d) Due to reduced ventilation 

179. Peau-de-orange appearance is: a) Due to cutaneous lymphatic obstruction 
b) It appears like peal of orange 
c) Both of the above 
d) None of the above

180. In the case of blood stored in Citrate phosphate dextrose (CPD), which of the following is true: a) Intracellular K+ increases 
b) Increased 2,3-DPG 
c) Swelling of RBCs 
d) All of the above

181. Ossicular ratio is: 
a) 1.3: 1 
b) 1.2: 1 
c) 1.1: 1 
d) 1:1 

182. Tzanck smear is diagnostic in which of the following infections? a) Herpes simplex 
b) CMV infection 
c) EBV
d) 

Which of the following drugs is not used in portal hypertension: 
a) Somatostatin 
b) Somatomedin 
c) Propranolol 
d) Balloon tamponade

184. All are ECG findings seen in hypokalemia EXCEPT: 
a) Tall peaked t waves 
b) Prominent u waves 
c) Prolonged QT interval 
d) Prolonged PR interval

185. Most common symptom of endometriosis: 
a) Secondary infertility 
b) Menorrhagia 
c) Secondary dysmenorrhea 
d) 

186. Food fortification of iodine at the consumption level is: 
a) 30 ppm 
b) 15 ppm 
c) 150 ppm 
d) 60 ppm

187. Golden yellow crust is seen in: 
a) Impetigo 
b) Diabetes Mellitus 
c) Cellulitis 
d) Pseudomonas

188. Which of the following is true in breast carcinoma? 
a) Regional LN affected 
b) Lymphoedema is seen 
c) Both of the above 
d) None of the above

189. False regarding coronary circulation is: 
a) 84 ml/ mnt 
b) 5 ml/mnt A-V difference 
c) Adenosine dilates the coronaries 
d) Has a phasic blood flow

190. Dantrolene sodium acts thru: 
a) Affecting neuromuscular transmission 
b) Blocks the release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum 
c) Post-synaptic receptors 

191. Of the following which one is false? 
a) Vermis --- Co-ordinating and programming of muscular activities 
b) Spinocerebellum--- receives proprioceptive input and motor plan from cortex 
c) Flocculonodular lobe---equilibrium and learning induced changes 
d) Neocerebellum--- Planning and programming movements

192. Genital abnormality is seen in which of the following ovarian tumors? 
a) Granulosa cell tumor 
b) Theca cell tumor 
c) Dermoid 
d) Dysgerminoma

In Ulnar nerve lesions, which of the following is seen? 
a) Flexion at metacarpophalangeal joints and extension at interphalangeal joints of hand 
b) Extension at metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at interphalangeal joints of hand 
c) Flexion at metacarpophalangeal joints and interphalangeal joints of hand 
d) Extension at metacarpophalangeal joints and interphalangeal joints of hand

In fracture medial epicondyle of humerus, which of the following can be affected? 
a) flexion of fingers 
b) Adduction of fingers 
c) Abduction of thumb 
d) Flexion of thumb

When a hypothetical cell is placed in isotonic solution, which of the following will be seen: 
a) Na+ ion goes in with the concentration gradient 
b) With the electrical gradient, the Na+ ion goes out 
c) The resting membrane potential is -70 mV ( interior - ve) 
d) Flux is always neutral

All of the following statements are true regarding drug induced SLE EXCEPT: 
a) ds DNA rare 
b) Withdrawal of the drug relieves the symptoms 
c) The causative drug should not be given to a patient with idiopathic SLE 
d) 

197.The advantage of using Thiopentone anaesthesia is: 
a) Rapid induction and fast recovery 
b) Can be used in Porphyria 
c) Good analgesic action 
d) No need of Atropine premedication

198.All of the following can cause intraoperative hypothermia EXCEPT: 
a) Tachycardia 
b) Vasodilatation 
c) Overuse of iv fluids 
d) Vasoconstriction

199.Which of the following statements is true regarding up-regulation of receptors? 
a) Due to continued use of an agonist on the receptor 
b) Due to continued use of an antagonist on the receptor 
c) There is decreased synthesis of the receptor 
d)
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