MAHE - 2000 1. Which of the following tests is used to identify blood stains as that of humans a. precipitin test b. hemin test c. benzidine test d. hemochromogen test. 2. Cleft lip and cleft palate is associated with which of the following congenital disease a. Down's syndrome b. Edward's syndrome c. Patau's syndrome d. Turner's syndrome. 3. Trans vaginal sulcus represents a. junction of bladder to cervix b. junction of bladder and urethra c. area of peritoneal attachment of vagina d. lower part of bladder 4. Down's syndrome is a. Triploidy b. Aneuploidy c. tetraploidy 5. Which of the following is true about combination of caffeine and ergotamine for treatment of migraine a. caffeine enhances absorption of ergotamine b. it reduces the absorption of ergotamine c. no effect 6. Which of the following is true about development of brain a. The cerebellum develops from the rhombic lip of met-encephalon and part of mesencephalon b. pineal gland arises as an out pouching from the dinencephalon 7. Which of the following is the commonest cause of blindness in India a. malnutrition b. trachoma c. injuries d. glaucoma 8. Food poisoning is caused by all the following except a. vibrio cholera b. salmonella c. staphylococci d. Claustridium perfringens 9. After death greenish discoloration in the right iliac fossa occurs after a. 12-24 hrs b. 48-72hrs c. after 1 wk 10. A patient is said to have AIDS when the CD-4 count is a. 200 to 499 b. <200 c. <100 11. A child can pedal a tricycle at the age of a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 5 years 12. What is the percentage of hemoglobin to diagnose anemia of pregnancy a. 9 mg/dL b. 8 mg/dL c. .10 mg/dL d. 11 mg/dL 13. Which of the following is true about Mongolian spots a. it is common in Mongol race in South East Asia b. it regresses by itself by one year c. it is associated with Down's syndrome d. treated withsteroids 14. What is the amount of air in lung at the end of normal inspiration a. 2700ml b. 2200ml c. 1200ml d. 1300ml 15. Which of the following statements is true a. 90% duodenal ulcers are associated with H.pylori b. 90% gastric ulcers are associated with H.pylori c. 10% gastric ulcers are associated with H.pylori d. 10%duodenal ulcers are associated with H.pylori 16. Which of the following is true about village health guide a. should be able to read and write b. should have studied up to 6th standard c. should have studied up to 10th standard d. none of the above 17. What is the percentage of weight for height at which severe malnutrition is diagnosed a. <90 b. <80 c. <70 d,<60 18. What is the treatment of multibacillary leprosy as directed by WHO a. 24 months treatment in 36 months b. 24 months treatment in 30 months c. 24 months treatment in 24 months d. 6 months treatment in 9 months. 19. Which of the following is the surgery done for stress incontinence a. Buch colposuspension b. Gillam's operation c. Shirodkar's sling d. Manchester method 20. What is the size of the lens used for microlarngoscopy a. 400mm b. 200mm c. 300mm d. 250mm 21. What is the mechanism of action of anti arrythmic agent Morcizine a. it blocks sodium channel and prolongs AP b. it blocks sodium channel and shortens AP c. it opens sodium channel and prolongs AP d. none of the above 22. Betahistine hydrochloride is used in the treatment of a. Menier's disease b. Migraine c. Atrophic rhinitis 23. Congenital glaucoma is inherited as a. autosomal dominant b. autosomal recessive c. Xlinked recessive d. none of the above 24. About autosomal dominant inheritance all are true except a. it is expressed in homozygotes b. always one parent is affected c. 50% of children affected d. Offspring of a nondiseased child of a diseased parent will not have the mutant gene. 25. Harlequin skin changes are associated with a. it is a normal phenomenon b. seen in icthiyosis c. septicemia 26. All are true about cephalhematoma except a. found outside the pericranium b. expectant management only is needed c. it appears few hrs after delivery d. pitting on pressure is seen 27. Which of the following is contraindicated in the treatment of acute congestive glaucoma a. atropine b. pilocarpine c. timolol d. dorzolamide 28. Rosette shaped cataract is a feature of a. concussion injury b. diabetes mellitus 29. What is the shape of pupil in acute iridocyclitis a. oval and dilated b. small and irregular c. large and round d. none 30. Which of the following is a heterophil agglutination test a. Widal test b. Weil Felix test c. Rose Waler test 31. Cutting of the spinal cord where it joins the medulla leads to which of the following a. stoppage of respiration b. deep and slow respiration c. apneustic respiration d. irregular respiration 32. Dorzolamide is a. sytemic carbonic anhydrase inhibitor b. topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor c. beta blocker 33. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy a. typhoid b. rubella c. rabies d. hepatitis B 34. All of the following are true about Toxoplasmosis except a. 65% fetus suffers damage in 1st trimester b. 75% of fetus infected in 1st trimester c. infection maximum in the 3rd trimester. d Ig M can demonstrate new infections. 35. Under the Universal progamme of immunization which of the following vaccnes is/are are given a. hepatitis B b. measles c. rubella d. all of the above 36. A 21 year old patient presents with history of diarrhea and fever of 10 days duration. On examination there is splenomegaly. The probable diagnosis is a. IMN b. typhoid c. malaria 37. Which of the following is not true a. fibers to the lacrimal gland are supplied by the ciliary ganglion 38. Which of the following is true about Trigeminal nerve a. proprioceptive part of the nucleus is relayed at the mesencephalic region 39. Which of the following is not lost in lesions of the frontal lobe a. emotion b. personality c. calculation 40. Which of the following is the most serious complication associated with LGV a. urethral stricture b. rectal stricture c. elephantiasis of vulva d. pelvic abscess 41. Which of the following is false about Crohn' s disease a. transmural involvement is seen b. long standing cases can lead to carcinoma formation c. fistula formation is seen d. Mycobacterium faeni causes it 42. Which of the following is not premalignant a. sclerosing cholangitis b. ulcerative colitis c. choledochal cyst d. postcholecystectomy 43. Norwegian scabies affects a. elderly b. children c. immunocompromised. 44. Which of the following is not hepatotoxic a. ethambutol b. INH c. Rifampicin d. Pyrazinamide 45. Which of the following is X linked recessive a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. Scapulo humerual Muscular dystrophy c. huntington's disease d. Wilson's disease. 46. Hutchison's freckle is a. carcinoma insitu which can lead to melanoma b. it is a benign condition 47. If the breech engages in left oblique diameter the head engages in a. Left oblique b. Right oblique c. anteroposterior 48. Litzman's obliquity is a. anterior asynclitism b. posterior asynclitism 49. KFD is caused by a. Tick b. Monkeys c. virus d. bacilli 50. Which of the following arboviral diseases is not seen in India a. KFD b. yellow fever c. West nile fever d. Chickungunya 51. Which of the following tests the resistance in middle ear a. puretone audiometry b. impedence audiometry c. caloric test d. BERA 52. Elimination of ethanol is a. capacity limited b. linear relation c. flow rate limited 53. Which of the following is not true about diabetes a. glycemic control will decrease retinopathy b. periodic monitoring is needed c. blindness occurs early d. druation of diabetes is important 54. Which of the following will not lead to granuloma formation a. schistosomiasis b. sarcoidosis c. tuberculosis d. giardiasis 55. Survey Education and Treatment center is set up for a. tuberculosis b. leprosy 56. Which of the following is a dimorphic fungus a. cryptococcus b. candida c. aspergillus d. histoplasma 57. What is the mechanism of action of organophosphorus compounds a. inhibits cytochrome oxidase b. inhibits acetyl choline synthetase c. inhibits acetyl choline esterase. 58. What is the mechanism of action of lysyl oxidase a. it causes post translational modification of pro collagen b. it causes crosslinking of tropocollagen 59. What is the stage of a case of carcinoma endometrium with positive para aortic lymphnodes a. III a b. III c c. IV a d. IV b 60. What is the function of Kupfer cells a. act as phagocytes in liver b. antigen presentation. 61. Insulin like growth factor is synthesized in a. liver b. anterior pituitary c. islet cells of langerhans d. intestine 62. Anterior pituitary secretions is increased by a. Stomatomedin b. Stomatostatin c. Sucking of the nipple d. decreased fluid volume 63. Which of the following is true about prolactin a. secretion is inhibited by dopamine agoinst b. secretion is stimulated by dopamine c. it is secreted from the posterior pituitary 64. Which of the following is true about prostate a. ejaculatory duct opens in to colliculus seminalis b. urethra pierces its apex c. it is separated from rectum by rectovesical pouch 65. Which of the following is true about succinyl choline a. it is a competitive muscle relaxant b. it is a depolorizing muscle relaxant 66. The normal Portal vein pressure is a. 7-10mmHg b. 10-15 mmHg c. 1-4mmHg d. 7-10cm of saline 67. A 67 year old patient presents with complaints of a pruritic red lesion on his forearm which is having silvery white scales on a red base. The probable diagnosis is a. psoriasis b. leprosy c. lichen planus d. pityriasis alba 68. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for tinea ungum a. miconazole b. systemic griseofulvin c. griseofulvin topically d. amphotericin 69. What is the treatment of angular conjunctivitis a. Chloromycetin drops b. Oxytetracyclin oinment c. atropine oinment 70. What is the mechanism of action of Vigabatrine a. it is a GABA transaminase inhibitor b. it is a dopamine receptor agonist 71. A male boy failed to develop the crackling of voice which normally occurs in adolescence . What is this called a. Dysphonia plica ventricularis b. Phonasthenia c. Pubophonia d. Mogiphonia 72. Which of the following is not true about SLE a. steroids are contraindicated in pregnancy b. lupus anticoagulant tend to prolong clotting time in vitro c. it leads to recurrent fetal loss 73. Which of the following will not lead to malignancy a. pernicious anemia and atrophic gastritis b. Wilkey's disease c. post gastrectomy d. blood group A 74. Which is the commonest malignancy that develops from osteochondroma a. ostersarcoma b. shondrosarcoma c. osteochondrosarcoma 75. What is the best method to assess hypertrophy of cardiac muscles a. thickness of the left ventricular wall on cross section b. weight of the heart c. chest X ray 76. Which of the following is the cause of post spinal headache a. cerebellar herniation b. leakage of CSF c. leak of blood in to CSF d. infection 77. Which of the folllowing is true about chronic subdural haematoma a. it is due to swelling of the blood clot by absorption of CSF across the arachnoid membrane b. it is due to slow bleeding from the middle meningeal artery 78. Papilloedema is due to a. raised intraocular tension b. raised intracranial tension 79. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is seen in a. young males b. young females c. old age d. children 80. Pyridoxine deficiency leads to a. macrocytic anemia b. microcytic hypochromic anemia c. sideroblastic anemia d. hemolytic anemia 81. Which of the following is not a feature of vitamin B12 deficiency a. intramedullary hemolysis b. extramedullary hemolysis c. giant platelets. d. atypia of gastric mucosa 82. A 20 year old Coolie worker who has been regularly eating roti, presents with complaints of diarrhea and altered mental status. The probable diagnosis is a. protein energy malnutrition b. Niacin deficiency c. Riboflavin deficiency 83. What is the target to be achieved by our country a. CPR of 60 and crude birth rate of 21 b. CPR of 56 and birh rate of 9 84. All the following are used in assessing the Physical Quality of Life index except a. Life expectancy at birth b. IMR c. literacy d. life expectancy at one year. 85. Calculate the negative predictive value from the following data a. a/a+c b. b/b+d c. c/c+d d. d/c+d cases controls smokers a b non smokers c d Total a+c b+d 86. Which of the following immunogobulins can cross placenta a. Ig G b. Ig M c. Ig A d. Ig D 87. Which of the following is false about edema a. increased capillary pressure b. hypoproteinemia of plasma c. hypoproteinemeia of the interstitium d. lymphatic obstrucion. 88. Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals leads to a. Gout b. Pseudogout 89. Treatment of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is a. Amoxycillin b. Cotrimoxazole c. Erythromycin d. Penicillin 90. A lymphoma patient who was on treatment with chemotherapeutic agents developed respiratory symptoms. Which of the following is least likely to be the cause a. CMV b. Pneumocystis carinii c. Good Pasteur's syndrome d. drug toxicity 91. Radiotherapy will not produce a. skin lesions b. autoimmunity c. mitotic inhibiton 92. Which of the following genetic disorders is associated with female phenotype and absent barr bodies except a. Testicular feminization b. androgen insensitivity c. Kline felter's syndrome d. Turner's syndrome 93. A lady presents with a painful thyroid swelling following a viral respiratory tract infection . The diagnosis is a. De querveins thyroiditis b. Riedl's thyroiditis c. Hashimoto's thyroiditis 94. Which of the following is false about deQuervein' sthyroiditis a. may lead to lymphoma b. occurs after viral infections c. increased ESR d. radio iodine uptake is low 95. Most common nosocomial infection is a. gastro intestinal tract infection b. urinary tract infection c. respiratory tract infection 96. Which of the following is true about fracture neck of femur a. psoas major act as a lateral rotator b. abductors are supplied by superior gluteal nerve 97. An ECG tracing shows a rate of 40 per minute and absent P waves in all the leads. The probable diagnosis is a. Atrial fibrillation b. ectopic pace maker c. incomplete heart block 98. What is the treatment of choice for supraventricular tachycardia in WPW syndrome a. verapamil b. amiodarone c. lignocaine 99. Which of the following is true a. in partial recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy the abductors are affected more than the adductors so that the vocal cords come to lie in a median position 100. Double bubble sign in USG is diagnostic of a. duodunal obstruction b. ileal obstruction 101. What is the shape of the wound created by a double edged weapon a. elliptical b. wedge shaped c. linear d. boat shaped 102. Which of the following is true about NO a. it inhibits phospholipase A2 b. it inhibits cyclooxygenase type 2 103. Post menopausal symptoms are due to deficiency of a. progesteron b. FSH c. LH d. estrogen 104. Blood Brain Barrier is formed by a. oligodendrocytes b. astrocytes c. microglia 105. Which of the following is not used in CML a. Melphalan b. Busulphan c. hydroxyurea d. a interferon 106. Which of the following is not seen in lepromatous leprosy a. central clearing b. irregular border c. nerve involvement is late d. border is thickened 107. Regarding Mifeprestone which of the following is true a. it is an agonist of progesteron b. it is an antiprogestron with antiglucocorticoid activity 108. Cocaine produces a. vasocontriction followed by vasodilatation b. vasoconstriction and hypertension c. vasodilatiion 109. Which of the following is true about epithelium a. blood vessels tend to pierce the gap junctions b. it rests on a basal lamina formed by Type III collagen c. at the zona occludens forms tight junctions d. zona adherens is traversed by filaments. 110. Which of the following is the investigation of choice for hemobilia a. ERCP b. PTC c. arteriography d. USG 111. Which of the following is cardioprotective a. LDL b. VLDL c. HDL d. IDL 112. Which of the following is false about Hirschsprung's disease a. the aganglionic segment is dilated b. the dilated segment is the normal part c. rectal biopsy is diagnostic 113. Which of the following is not seen in SLE a. lipoid nephritis b. diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis c. focal glomerulosclerosis d. membraneous glomerulonephritis 114. All the following prevent clotting of blood except a. smooth endothelium b. natural anticoagulants c. plasminogen d. flow of blood 115. What is the EEG wave seen in awake inattentive stage a. alpha b. beta c. theta d. delta 116. The basic principle of PCR is a. amplification of DNA fragments b. breaking of the double strands of DNA using heat 117. Which of the following is true about Hepatitis D a. it is an incomplete virus b. there is an effective vaccine c. spread by fecooral route 118. Strongyloides stercoralis leads to a. anemia b. muscle involvement c. malabsorption 119. Ascaris lumbricoids leads to a. rectal prolapse b. pruritus ani c. obstruction of bile duct and intestine 120. Greyish white vaginal discharge with formation of bubbles is a feature of a. Trichomonas b. Gardanella vaginalis c. candida albicans d. bacterial vaginosis 121. Which of the following is the commonest complication following appendicitis a. subphrenic abscess b. infection of wound site c. fecal fistula d. portal payemia. 122. Which of the following is the commonest benign tumor of esophagus a. leiomyoma b. epithelial polyp c. melanoma 123. Which of the following is associated with asbestos exposure a. Mesothelioma 124. What is a Bunion a. fluid filled cyst over a bony deformity 125. The most effective means of transfer of HIV is a. sexual route b. perinatal c. blood transfusion d. needle prick 126. Which of the following is commonly used for prophylaxis of Rheumatic fever a. Procaine penicillin b. Benzathine penicillin 127. Which of the following is false about APATHETIC HYPERTHYROIDISM a. it is seen in the elderly b. asthenia is the main feature c. radio iodine is used for treatment d. it is inherited as a familial trait 128. Alpha fetoprotein is increased in all except a. open neural tube defects b. Down's syndrome c. hepatoblastoma 129. Myiasis means a. infection with Maggots 130. What is the product of anaerobic glycolysis a. 2 ATP and 2 lactate b. 6 ATP 2 lactate and one NADP c. 2 ATP 2 lactate and one NADH 131. What is the method of transmission of genetic information by means of a bacteriophage called a. conjugation b. sexduction c. transduction 132. For the initiation of transcription in prokaryotes which of the following is not used a. 40S ribosime b. GMP c. initiating factor 133. Which of the following is a prodrug used in the treatment of carcinoma prostate a. cyproterone acetate b. stilbestrol c. folfestrol 134. Most common presentation of genital tuberculosis is a. primary amenorrhea b. secondary amenorrhea c. menorrhagia d. infertiity 135. Which of the following is not a risk factor for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome a. congenital malformations b. previous SIDS in the family c. first child d. young parents 136. Which of the following is a non modifiable risk factor for coronary artery heart disease a. smoking b. obesity c. family history 137. Meleny's superficial spreading gangrene is caused by a. Claustridium spp b. microaerophilic staphyloccus 138. Which of the following is premalignant a. atypical hyperplasia of endometrium 139. A patient presents with scorbutic rosary, bone pains and Xray reveals Frenkel's lines. The diagnois is a. Scurvy b. Achondroplasia c. Syphilis d. rickets 140. All are caused by venous congestion except a. strawberry gall bladder b. nutmeg liver c. Gandy gamna bodies 141. Hangeman's fracture is a. odentoid rupture b. spndylolisthesis between C2 and C3 142. Second sight is a feature of a. cortical cataract b. senile nuclear sclerosis c. lamellar cataract 143. Which of the following is true about porphyria a. protoporphyrinogen oxidase is a cytosolic enzyme b. lead inhibits ferrochelatase c. varigate porphyria is due to deficiency of urodecarboxylase 144. Paracusis is a feature of a. Otosclerosis 145. Looser's zone are seen in a. osteomalacia b. osteoporosis 146. Exophthalmos is feature of a. hyperthyroidism b. hypopituitarism c. hyperparathyroidism 147. Submandibular space infection is called a. Ludwig's angina b. Vincents's angina 148. Beta glucosidase deficiency is a feature of a. Gaucher's disease b. Forbe's disease c. Fabry's disease 149. The transmission at autonomic ganglia is mainly a. adrenergic b. noradrenergic c. cholinergic d. serotoninergic 150. Which of the following is positive in Hydatid disease a. Frey's test b. Montenegro's test c. Casoni's test d. Fairley's test 151. Cholesteatoma is common with a. atticoantral perforation b. central perforation c. tubotympanic lesion 152. Taussig's operation is a. anterior exentration b. debulking c. extraperitoneal lymphadenectomy 153. March fracture is commonest in a. os calcis b. second metatarsal 154. Plasma level correlates best with activity for which of the following a. digoxin b. diuretic c. hit and run drugs 155. Which of the following is not a feature of severe bronchial asthma a. pulse rate more than 120/mt b. tachypnea c. pulsus paradoxus d. hypercarbia 156. The time taken for maturation of spermatozoa is a. 72 days b. 54 days 157. The most effective treatment for cisplatin induced vomiting is a. metoclopramide b. marijuana c. ondansetrone 158. The type of secretion seen in spring catarrh is a. thick purulent b. ropy discharge 159. Which of the following is the most dangerous liver injury a. ballooning b. collagen formation c. bile lakes d. councilman bodies 160. Which of the following is false about rheumatoid arthritis a. morning stiffness more than 15 minutes b. 3 or more joints are affected c. symmetrical involvement 161. What is the mechanism of action of Atrial Natriuretic Peptide a. it binds to soluble cGMP and causes smooth muscle relaxation b. it binds to membrane bound cGMP and relaxes smooth muscles c. it binds to cAMP 162. Philadelphia chromosome is a feature of a. CML 163. Which of the following food poisoning has the shortest incubation period a. bacillus cereus b. staphylococcal 164. Keratomalacia is due to a. vitamin A deficiency 165. Call Exner bodies are seen in a. yolk sac tumor b. Granulosa cell tumor c. Brenner cell tumor d. hilus cell tumor 166. Which of the following corresponds to core temperature a. axillary b. rectal c. oral d. groin 167. What is the role of the doctor at the time of dying declaration a. to make sure that there are 2 witnesses b. to make sure that the patient is in compos mentis at that time 168. Which of the following is characteristic feature of drowning a. leathery froth in mouth and nostrils b. blood stained froth with mucus c. cutis anserina d. mud in the air passages 169. All the following can be used in the treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria except a. primaquin b. mefloquin c. quinine d. halofantrine 170. All the following does not show lymphatic spread except a. osterosarcoma b. rhabdomyosarcoma 171. All are true about electron transport chain except a. enzymes are located on the matrix side of the mitochondrial membrane b. it can accept molecular oxygen c. Oligomycin inhibits 172. Breath holding spells in children is best treated by a. immediate oxygen inhalation b. knee chest position c. ignoring the child 173. Upper and lower segment ratio becomes equal at a. 4yrs b. 5yrs c. 6yrs d. 7yrs 174. Which of the following is true about gene therapy a. it is meant for removal of defective gene from the genome and replace with good gene b. introduction in to the bone marrow c. introduction intravenously 175. Peptide bond disruption occurs in a. high temperature b. high temperature and low pH c. denaturation of proteins d. ionic bonds at physiological pH 176. Embryonic period is up to how many weeks after conception a. 6wks b. 7wks c. 8wks d. 9wks 177. Which of the following is most commonly used for preservation of organs for transplantation a. plasma b. normal saline c. University of Wisconsin solution 178. In Malaria Control programme DDT is sprayed a. inside house b. Outside house c. in the forest 179. Increased oxygenation in the fetus is due to all the following except a. fetal hemoglobin b. fetal heart rate c. fetal breathing movements. 180. Comedo carcinoma ; which of the following is true a. good prognosis b. cut section shows necrotic punctate areas filled with cheesy material c. commonest carcinoma 181. Caudal anaesthesia means a. 182. Saddle anaesthesia means a. Hyperbaric aneshtesia to sacral canal b. blocking the inferior rectal nerves 183. What is the diagnosis in a patient having pH 7.2 pCO2 60mmHg and pO2 85mmHg with HCO3 25mEq/l a. respiratory alkalosis b. respiratory acidosis c. metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis 184. Principle of Wolf Chaikoff effect is used in a. Giving Lugol's iodine before surgery for thyrotoxicosis b. treatment of carcinoma of thryoid 185. What is the diameter of engagement in face presentation a. mentovertical b. submentobregmatic c. biparietal d. suboccipitobregmatic 186. Caldwell luc surgery is used for a. Maxillary antrum b. ethmoid c. frontal d. sphenoid 187. Which of the following is not contraindicated in pregnancy a. erythromycin b. heparin c. warfarin 188. Which of the following is not contraindicated with oral contraceptives a. amoxycillin b. mebendazole c. rifampicin 189. Desmoid tumor is seen in a. ovary b. testis c. anterior abdominal wall 190. Which of following is the test used in deQuervein's tenosynovitis a. Finkelstein test b. Phalen's test c. Forment's sign 191. The number of deaths in under 5 year age divided by total number of deaths is a. case fatality rate b. proportional mortality rate c. under 5 mortality rate |