Does the Bible teach the Doctrine of Total Depravity?

 

Cross Examination Rebuttal:  Moses Flores

 

          First I would like to thank Nick for a great cross-examination.  My only regret was that we did not have enough time, but it has already been resolved to take more time on the next exchange.  I think the cross-examination is the place where the “rubber really meets the road” so to say and there are a few issues that I would like to bring up.

            I have only one main concern that I wish to voice from the cross-examination exchange:  the inconsistency of man’s liberty to choose “as he wills” and the “necessity of grace to choose righteousness”.  You stated:  “My position regarding free will is simply this:  Man is free in regards to the choices he makes, meaning that every option which is set before him, man has the freedom to choose that which he will. I believe that sin has ruined man to the point that apart from the grace of God they will never choose that which is good.”  Quite frankly it sounds like you want to “have you cake and eat it too.”  Allow me to explain.

            First, the supposition regarding the will of man:  “man is free in regards to the choices he makes, meaning that every option which is set before him, man has the freedom to choose that which he will.”  Philosophically, this statement is suspect to different interpretations.  As I understand the statement from yourself, however, I understand you to mean that man possesses the ability to choose to believe in Christ if he so wills.  Thus, the problem, as you stated later is “not that they ‘can’t’ but rather they ‘won’t’…”  There is a logical contradiction here as well as a Scriptural one.

            Logically, one cannot be “free” to choose whatever one will between options set before you and, yet, need something more in order to be able to choose a certain thing.  That is, man cannot both be “free” to believe in Christ whenever he wills and then also “need” grace to do so.  The fact that you state grace is “necessary” logically implies that man cannot simply will to believe in Christ because he lacks the ability.  Thus, I have no qualms with the statement that “sin has so ruined man to the point that apart from the grace of God they will never choose that which is good,” with the understanding that “that which is good” is “belief in Christ.”  It’s maintaining that statement with man’s freedom to be able to “believe in Christ” or “not believe in Christ” at the same time that is logically suspect.

            Scripturally, my problem is that there is no explicit statement that teaches this liberty on the part of man.  Rather, over and over again, we see that man has become so universally and radically sinful, that “all the intentions of the heart of man are sinful” ( Genesis 6:5; 8:21; cf. Numbers 15:37-39; I Kings 8:46; Job 15:14-16; Psalm 14:1-3; 51:5; 58:3;130:3; Proverbs 4:23; 20:9; Ecclesiastes 7:20; 8:11; Isaiah 6:5; 53:6; 64:6; Jeremiah 10:14;13:23; 17:9;  Matthew 7:11; 15:19; Mark 10:18; Luke 17:10; John 2:24; 3:36; 6:44; Romans 1:18-2:16; 3:9-20, 23; 5:12-18; 6:23; 7:18-20, 8:6,7; I Corinthians 2:14; II Corinthians 3:5; Colossian 2:13, I Timothy 2:25; 6:5).  Romans 3:10-18 is the summative assessment of man by God himself.  “There is no one righteous…they have all gone astray…there is none who seeks after God…”  Likewise, Romans 6, in contrasting the believer in Christ as a slave to righteousness presents that in the light of fallen and unredeemed men being “slaves to sin.”  The clear meaning and understanding of a “slave” is not one who is free, but rather one who is “not free”.  Thus, the implied meaning is that our moral faculties to do righteousness – particularly our wills - are enslaved to sin as long as we remain unregenerate.  Jesus himself taught this when he said, “whoever commits sin is a slave of sin.” 

            In regards to the response that man cannot believe in Christ “not because he ‘can’t’ but because he ‘won’t…” I find this to be wholly contrary to the Scriptures that I have clearly exposited in my opening affirmative statement.  There is do denying the words in John 6:44 and 65: “no one is ABLE to come to me…”; nor the word in I Corinthians 2:14 that the “natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; nor CAN he know them…”; nor the words in Romans 8:7 that the carnal man “is not subject to the law of God, nor indeed CAN be…”  These clearly speak of a lack of ability and not simply lack of will. 

            Now, at this point I should also like to reply to the assertion that the Bible in general shows that God gives a Prevenient grace to all men that enables all men to come to the Father.  I would assert to you that this is wholly against the text in several ways.  First, the Greek root word for “draw” (elkw) which means to “draw, to drag” (cf. John 12:32, 21:6; James 2:6; Acts 16:19).  Thus, this is not a type of “wooing” taking place by the Father but an active work the Father that inevitably results in the “raising up at the last day” of the same ones who are “drawn.”  It cannot be the case that God “draws” all men to Himself in this way for then it would necessarily follow that all who are “drawn” are also “raised up on the last day” which would mean that all men would inevitably be saved.  Obviously, that is not the case.  Interestingly enough, the parallel passage in John 6:65 reads “…no one can come to be unless it has been granted to him by My Father.”  This word here is used in the sense of permission, or the bestowal of ability.

            I should also point out that the response given by yourself concerning John 6:44 and the “Bible in general” presupposes that the Bible is not necessarily consistent in all its parts.  I believe that the Bible presents a unified teaching concerning the doctrine of man.  Thus, the parts of the Bible (i.e. individual texts) are entirely consistent with the whole.  Thus, if human inability to believe in Christ through “free will” is not taught in the Bible, but rather that human natural do not possess the ability to believe in Christ is, then it is clear that it what should be believed. 

            “No one is able…” Jesus said.  These words of Christ still stand unrefuted.  The words of other Scripture still stand unrefuted and impeccable in their meaning that the natural man is unable to submit to the law of God, understand the things of the Spirit, and unable to please God (cf. Romans 8:7-8, I Cor. 2:12-14).  There is no getting around the meaning of the Greek and its reference to“ability.” 

            In closing, the Prince of Preachers, Charles Spurgeon, concerning this text said, “It is strange how people, when talking about free-will, talk of things which they do not at all understand. "Now," says one, "I believe men can be saved if they will." My dear sir, that is not the question at all. The question is, are men ever found naturally willing to submit to the humbling terms of the gospel of Christ? We declare, upon Scriptural authority, that the human will is so desperately set on mischief, so depraved, and so inclined to everything that is evil, and so disinclined to everything that is good, that without the powerful. supernatural, irresistible influence of the Holy Spirit, no human will ever be constrained towards Christ.” (Human Inability). 

            Man has not even the will to be saved apart from the drawing of the Father.  The only way man will to be saved is if God grants it to him.  To God alone be the glory.