Preterism

Today, a teaching called preterism says that all or some of the prophecies in the New Testament were already fulfilled in the past. Full preterism says that even the 2nd coming and rapture and resurrection have already happened, and so it destroys the faith of some (2 Timothy 2:18) as it destroys their hope in the coming return of Christ (Titus 2:13, 1 Peter 1:13) and their resurrection into immortal bodies (1 Corinthians 15:52-55). Partial preterism says that the tribulation has already happened, and so hinders some Christians from knowing, understanding, and preparing themselves for the sufferings and deceptions that are coming soon (Mark 13:23).

Future events will undo both full and partial preterism, and reveal the damage that they have done.

Time will tell.

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The Tribulation

Can preterists show from historical sources how 2 Thessalonians 2:4 and each verse of Revelation 13 and Revelation 11 and Revelation 16 and Revelation 19 and Revelation 20 and Revelation 21-22 were all fulfilled?

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The 2nd Coming

Could Christ's 2nd coming which will be immediately after the tribulation (Matthew 24:29-31), will be seen by every eye (Revelation 1:7, Matthew 24:30), will bring the resurrection and rapture of the entire church (1 Corinthians 15:23, 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17), and will destroy the Antichrist (2 Thessalonians 2:8), happen as described in Revelation 19 and Zechariah 14?

When was Jesus' coming seen by every eye of every tribe and kindred on earth, causing them great grief (Matthew 24:30 and Revelation 1:7)?

When were those who were still alive and in Christ changed in the twinkling of an eye into immortal bodies? "We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump" (1 Corinthians 15:51-52).

When was the Antichrist destroyed (2 Thessalonians 2:8)?

When did Revelation 19 happen?

When were Zechariah 14 and Zechariah 12 fulfilled?

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Physical 2nd Coming

Isn't Jesus' resurrection body literal and physical? "Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing" (John 20:27); "Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have" (Luke 24:39).

Could Jesus' 2nd coming be in his literal physical body because he must come back from heaven (Acts 3:20-21) in like manner as he left? "This same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven" (Acts 1:11). Didn't Jesus physically go from the Mount of Olives to the clouds to heaven? Could he then "in like manner" physically return from heaven to the clouds to the Mount of Olives? "And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives" (Zechariah 14:3-4); "And one shall say unto him, What are these wounds in thine hands?" (Zechariah 13:6).

See also Revelation 19 section below.

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The Resurrection

I believe "the 1st resurrection" (Revelation 20:6), that is, the resurrection and changing of all "they that are Christ's" (1 Corinthians 15:23) into their immortal bodies, will occur at a single point in time, at the "last trump" (1 Corinthians 15:52), at the 2nd coming of Christ (1 Corinthians 15:23, Revelation 19:11-20:6), and it will include those "beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands" (Revelation 20:4), which refers back to the events of Revelation 13.

Because neither Revelation 13 nor Revelation 19, that is, neither the tribulation nor the 2nd coming, have happened yet, neither can the resurrection have happened yet.

At the same time that the resurrection happens, all those who are still alive and in Christ will be changed in the twinkling of an eye into immortal bodies (1 Corinthians 15:51-53). This didn't happen to the apostles.

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Hope For Resurrection

Full preterism destroys our hope to be resurrected at Christ's 2nd coming:

"As in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming... Flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption. Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality" (1 Corinthians 15:22-23, 50-53).

"In the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage" (Matthew 22:30).

"Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection" (Luke 20:36).

The resurrection has not happened yet. We are still in mortal bodies. We still marry and we still die.

To say the resurrection has happened is to overthrow our faith and hope:

"Who concerning the truth have erred, saying that the resurrection is past already; and overthrow the faith of some" (2 Timothy 2:18).

"Continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel" (Colossians 1:23).

"The hope and resurrection of the dead" (Acts 23:6).

"Hope toward God... that there shall be a resurrection of the dead" (Acts 24:15).

"We are saved by hope: but hope that is seen is not hope: for what a man seeth, why doth he yet hope for? But if we hope for that we see not, then do we with patience wait for it" (Romans 8:24-25).

"If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men most miserable" (1 Corinthians 15:19).

"Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ" (Titus 2:13).

"It doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is. And every man that hath this hope in him purifieth himself, even as he is pure" (1 John 3:2-3).

"Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead... Wherefore gird up the loins of your mind, be sober, and hope to the end for the grace that is to be brought unto you at the revelation of Jesus Christ" (1 Peter 1:3, 13).

After the resurrection, I don't see how our faith could be overthrown, for when Christ comes and all we in Christ are resurrected or "changed, in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye" into immortal bodies (1 Corinthians 15:23, 51-53), our faith in Christ will have become certain knowledge of Christ, "for we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is" (1 John 3:2), "for now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known" (1 Corinthians 13:12).

When we are saved, our mortal bodies are not instantly changed into immortal bodies. Paul spoke of the changing of our bodies as something that is yet to happen (1 Corinthians 15:51-53), and he and the other Apostles died before it happened to their bodies, which are still in their graves, while their spirits are in heaven (2 Corinthians 5:6-8).

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Resurrected At Death?

Note that the Bible doesn't say the resurrection happens at the moment of the death of this or that individual, but will happen at "the coming of the Lord," when "the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise" (1 Thessalonians 4:15-16), that is, the 2nd coming must occur first.

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Physical Resurrection

At his 2nd coming, won't Jesus bring with him from heaven the spirits of those whose bodies will be resurrected at his coming (1 Thessalonians 4:14-16); at the 1st resurrection (Revelation 20:4-5), won't our fleshly bodies be raised just as Jesus' fleshly body was raised? Wasn't the tomb empty (John 20:1-9), and at his 2nd coming won't Jesus still have the wounds of the crucifixion on his body (Zechariah 13:6)?

"Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing" (John 20:27).

"Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have" (Luke 24:39).

Won't Jesus "change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body" (Philippians 3:21), for "if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you" (Romans 8:11), "for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality. So when this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, and this mortal shall have put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory. O death, where is thy sting? O grave, where is thy victory?" (1 Corinthians 15:52-55)?

Isn't it true that this has not happened yet, because the bodies of all believers who have ever died are still in their graves, and we are still dying?

What would be the reason for the resurrection of our bodies if the resurrection was solely spiritual? Don�t we already have spirits (1 Thessalonians 5:23)?

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Spiritual Bodies

I believe the "spiritual body" of the resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:44) is that which is immortal flesh and bones, like the resurrected body Jesus has (Luke 24:39). We are all now in "natural" (1 Corinthians 15:44) mortal bodies that descended by the natural process from Adam's flesh after it was made mortal. At the resurrection we will receive bodies like the glorious body Jesus now has (Philippians 3:21), not by a natural process but by the same Spirit that raised Jesus: "If the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you" (Romans 8:11).

At the resurrection at Christ's 2nd coming (1 Corinthians 15:23, 44-54), I believe we will receive new, literal bodies, spiritual in the sense of their immortality and their ability to appear and disappear and move about as spirits do, like Jesus' resurrection body did (Luke 24:31; John 20:19), yet also physical in that they won't be the bodies of ghosts, but will have flesh and bones that can be seen and handled, like Jesus' resurrection body (Luke 24:39).

Some point out where Paul says "flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God" (1 Corinthians 15:50), but note that Paul goes on to say "neither doth corruption inherit incorruption," so that he must have been referring only to corruptible flesh, for Jesus was resurrected into incorruptible "flesh and bones" (Luke 24:39); I believe Jesus said "bones" instead of the usual "blood" because incorruptible "flesh and bones" (without blood as we know it) can inherit the kingdom of God.

Note that in 2 Peter 1:13-14 Peter doesn't say that he will never be in his body again, only that he will soon be leaving his body via death; when their bodies die, I believe the spirits of believers go into heaven to be with the Lord (2 Corinthians 5:6-8, Philippians 1:21-24, Luke 23:43, Luke 23:46, Acts 7:59).

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Preterist Proof-Texts?

Genesis 22:17; 26:4 -- Note that in these verses the Israelites are not called stars, nor are they said to be in heaven, but are only called as multitudinous as the stars in heaven. The Israelites did not exist at the time God first created the earth and "the morning stars sang together" (Job 38:7).

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Deuteronomy 1:10 -- See Genesis 22:17.

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Judges 5 -- Note that Judges 5 is a song (verses 1, 12), not a literal chronicle of events.

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2 Samuel 22 -- Note that it says 2 Samuel 22 is a "song" (verse 1), not a literal chronicle of past events. If the song is a symbolic prophecy of future events, I believe verses 5-7 will be fulfilled in the time of Jacob's trouble right before the 2nd coming (Jeremiah 30:7-9), and verses 8-16 will be fulfilled at the 2nd coming and the battle of Armageddon (Revelation 19:11-21).

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Psalm 97 -- I believe Psalm 97 will be fulfilled by Christ at the 2nd coming and during the millennium.

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Psalm 104:3 -- God may have always done this, but as of yet no one has seen him returning in the clouds, as they will at the 2nd coming (Matthew 24:30, Revelation 1:7).

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Isaiah 13 -- I believe Isaiah 13-14 has not been fulfilled yet, and will be fulfilled when Christ returns with his heavenly army (Isaiah 13:5, Revelation 19:14) to destroy Babylon (Isaiah 13:19; Revelation 18:21) and to shut Lucifer in the bottomless pit (Isaiah 14:12-15; Revelation 20:1-3), and the whole earth is at rest during Christ's millennial reign (Isaiah 14:7, Revelation 20:6).

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Isaiah 19 -- When were Isaiah 19:2, Isaiah 19:5, and Isaiah 19:18-25 fulfilled?

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Isaiah 34 -- I believe Isaiah 34 has not been fulfilled yet, and will be fulfilled when Jesus destroys the armies of all nations (Isaiah 34:2) at Armageddon (Revelation 19:19-21).

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Ezekiel 30:3 -- When was this fulfilled?

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Ezekiel 32 -- Can you cite the historical sources for Ezekiel 32:11, so we can see what they say?

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Daniel 7:13 -- Who and where is the Ancient of days?

Jesus did not wait to ascend to the Father in heaven (Acts 1:11) until 70 A.D., nor did he descend from heaven (1 Thessalonians 4:16, Acts 1:11) and appear the 2nd time (Hebrews 9:28) in 70 A.D.

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Daniel 11:31 -- Fulfilled by Antiochus?

"And arms shall stand on his part, and they shall pollute the sanctuary of strength, and shall take away the daily sacrifice, and they shall place the abomination that maketh desolate" (Daniel 11:31).

Note that Jesus speaks of this as an event still in the future:

"Ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand)" (Matthew 24:15).

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Daniel 12:13 (stand in thy lot) -- I believe that Daniel 12:13 refers to the lot of land that Daniel (and we) will inherit on the earth for the millennium (Ezekiel 47:21-23).

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Joel 2:2 -- When was this fulfilled?

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Nahum 1 -- When was Nahum 1:5 fulfilled?

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Zephaniah 1:15 -- When was this fulfilled?

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Zechariah 12:10 - When was this verse fulfilled?

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Matthew 3:2 says "at hand," which in the Greek is "eggizo," which means to draw near, just as the Lord's return draws nearer with each passing day, but it still requires that we "be patient" (James 5:8).

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Matthew 5:18 doesn't say that heaven and earth must pass away before the law passes away; it says the law must be fulfilled before heaven and earth pass away.

Jesus fulfilled and so was able to abolish the law at his 1st coming (Ephesians 2:15). The old covenant was disannulled by the new covenant (Hebrews 7:18, 12).

Heaven and earth will not pass away until 1000 years after Christ's 2nd coming (Revelation 21:1, 20:6-11).

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Matthew 10:22 -- I believe there will be an end-time persecution of all Christians in all nations (Matthew 24:9; Revelation 13:7-10), which will be like what the early church suffered (Matthew 10:22). I don't believe Matthew 24 and Revelation 13 have yet been fulfilled; we do not find them described in any history.

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Matthew 10:23 says the apostles wouldn't finish going over all the cities of Israel before Jesus came. They didn't; they all died before they had preached to every city of Israel. Jesus didn't come and instantly transform them while still alive into immortal bodies (1 Corinthians 15:23, 51-53), indeed he still hasn't come. The prophecy will be fulfilled because he will come again without all the cities of Israel having been gone over by the apostles (or even by us, for that matter).

I believe the point of Jesus' statement was that the apostles shouldn't waste time fighting persecution in a city; they should immediately move on to the next city and preach there, for there were so many other cities they could go to (and that we can still go to, for that matter).

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Matthew 12:40 -- I believe Matthew 12:40 refers to Jesus' body being in the grave for three days.

"For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth" (Matthew 12:40). I believe Jesus was speaking as figuratively as Jonah was in "the belly of hell" (Jonah 2:2).

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Matthew 16:28 -- Note that Matthew 16:28 doesn't say Jesus' 2nd coming (Hebrews 9:28; Revelation 19:11-21) had to be in the lifetime of the apostles or necessarily in the lifetime of any subsequent individual believer. Matthew 16:28 was fulfilled in Matthew 17:1-2, just as Mark 9:1 was fulfilled in Mark 9:2.

Note that the parallel verse to Matthew 16:28 says "There be some of them that stand here, which shall not taste of death, till they have seen the kingdom of God come with power" (Mark 9:1). The transfiguration (Matthew 17:1-2; Mark 9:2) was a "vision" (Matthew 17:9) in which some of the Apostles (Mark 9:1-2) "had seen" (Mark 9:9) "the kingdom of God come with power (dunamis)" (Mark 9:1), "for we have not followed cunningly devised fables, when we made known unto you the power (dunamis) and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but were eyewitnesses of his majesty. For he received from God the Father honour and glory, when there came such a voice to him from the excellent glory, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. And this voice which came from heaven we heard, when we were with him in the holy mount" (2 Peter 1:16-18).

I don't believe that Peter was equating the transfiguration with the 2nd coming, as he exhorts us to look forward to the 2nd coming:

"And when the chief Shepherd shall appear, ye shall receive a crown of glory that fadeth not away" (1 Peter 5:4).

"Wherefore gird up the loins of your mind, be sober, and hope to the end for the grace that is to be brought unto you at the revelation of Jesus Christ" (1 Peter 1:13).

"Rejoice, inasmuch as ye are partakers of Christ's sufferings; that, when his glory shall be revealed, ye may be glad also with exceeding joy" (1 Peter 4:13).

"That the trial of your faith, being much more precious than of gold that perisheth, though it be tried with fire, might be found unto praise and honour and glory at the appearing of Jesus Christ" (1 Peter 1:7).

Note that Matthew 16:28 doesn't require that those who wouldn't see the event had to die before the event, only that those who would see the event wouldn't die before they saw it.

"Verily I say" -- What had Jesus just stated that he was summing up in Mark 14:18, Mark 14:30, and Luke 23:43?

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Matthew 23:36

Note that the generation referred to in the specific context of Matthew 23:36 includes those in a past generation:

"That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom YE slew between the temple and the altar. Verily I say unto you, All these things shall come upon this generation" (Matthew 23:35-36, 2 Chronicles 24:20-22).

Note that Jesus said "YE" slew Zacharias when addressing "this generation."

And note that that generation (genea) also includes those in a future generation which will see Jesus' 2nd coming: "YE shall not see me henceforth, till ye shall say, Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord" (Matthew 23:39).

So genea can sometimes refer to the nation of the Jews throughout their entire history. Note that genea is translated as nation in Philippians 2:15, so it can have more than one meaning.

Note that genea is translated as "times" in Acts 14:16; as "time" in Acts 15:21; and as "ages" in Ephesians 3:5, 3:21. Genea is used in Luke 16:8 to refer to worldly people throughout history, just as it is used in 1 Peter 2:9 to refer to believers throughout history.

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Matthew 24

Some claim that the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. was both the tribulation and 2nd coming referred to in Matthew 24. But note that the 2nd coming will be "immediately after the tribulation" (Matthew 24:29-31), so it won't be the tribulation itself. And in no history do we find that in 70 A.D. the tribulation and 2nd coming events described in 2 Thessalonians 2:3-8 and in each verse of Revelation 13 and Revelation 19 and Revelation 11 and Revelation 16 and Revelation 8 and Revelation 9 were fulfilled. And in no history do we find that in 70 A.D. the stars fell from heaven and the sign of the Son of man appeared in heaven, at which all the tribes of the earth mourned; nor does any history describe how all the tribes of the earth saw when the Son of man came in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory and sent his angels with a great sound of a trumpet and they gathered together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other (Matthew 24:29-31).

How did the apostles (or anyone since their time) experience the events of Matthew 24:29-31?

Note that Matthew 24 isn't a song, but a literal description of future events; any non-literal parts are indicated as such: the fig tree is a parable; the lightning, prefaced by "as" and followed by "so," is a simile; the stars that fall can be what we still call "falling stars" or meteors; and the goodman is a past-tense example of the need for watchfulness.

I believe Matthew 24 was written primarily for whoever will be alive when it is fulfilled. Jesus didn't prophesy that the apostles themselves would necessarily see the end-time events, which indeed they did not, for in no history do we find that in the time of the apostles the stars fell from heaven and the sign of the Son of man appeared in heaven, at which all the tribes of the earth mourned; nor does any history describe how all the tribes of the earth saw when the Son of man came in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory and sent his angels with a great sound of a trumpet and they gathered together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other (Matthew 24:29-31). None of this has been fulfilled. No doubt this is why Jesus commanded the apostles to pass on every single thing he taught them to those they preached to (Matthew 28:20).

Note that Jesus sometimes addresses the individuals right before him in a way that shows he considers them to be representatives of a general group. For example, Jesus refers to "the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom YE slew between the temple and the altar" (Matthew 23:35), and says "YE shall not see me henceforth, till ye shall say, Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord" (Matthew 23:39), even though he is addressing his contemporaries. His contemporaries had not yet been born when Zechariah was slain in 2 Chronicles 24:20-22, and they would die before the 2nd coming in Revelation 19 and Zechariah 14 and Zechariah 12, but they stood in as representatives of the nation of Israel throughout its entire history. Similarly, in Matthew 24, we can understand Jesus addressing the 12 apostles as representatives of the entire church, some members of which will see the events of Matthew 24 transpire.

Note that if we try to claim that anything Jesus says to anyone can only refer to the person he is immediately addressing, we would have to claim that Peter is Satan, for at one point Jesus "turned, and said unto Peter, Get thee behind me, Satan" (Matthew 16:23).

In Matthew 23:35, Barachias may be another name for Jehoiada, or it may be a copyist's error, like in Acts 7:16, where Abraham was written instead of Jacob (compare Genesis 33:18-19), for there was another ancient Zacharias who was "the son of Barachias" (Zechariah 1:1), but he wasn't the Zacharias killed between the altar and the temple. Note that Luke, in Luke 11:51, doesn't feel the need to mention Zacharias' father's name at all, so it's unlikely there was more than one Zacharias slain between the altar and the temple. No history records one slain in Jesus' time. Lastly, do you believe that because Matthew 1:1 says "David, the son of Abraham," that it must be referring to a different David than King David, because King David was the son of Jesse? (1 Chronicles 29:26)

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Matthew 24:2 -- While we today can't see "all" the structures of the 1st century temple, like the Apostles did, note that we today can see the stones of the wailing wall which stood one upon another in the time of Jesus still standing one stone upon another; they have not yet been thrown down. Isn't this why the Jews revere the wailing wall so much, because it is the only structure which survived the destruction of the last temple?

Jesus referred to "all these things" and "here" in Matthew 24:2, and what is called the wailing wall today was one of the things in that temple place.

Also note that Jesus was addressing "the city" (Luke 19:41) of Jerusalem when he said "they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another" (Luke 19:44). The wailing wall was and still is in the city of Jerusalem, and its stones are still one upon another.

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Matthew 24:14 -- See Colossians 1:23.

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Matthew 24:15 -- Even though I believe the efficacy of the Jewish temple sacrifices stopped at the crucifixion (Matthew 27:51, Hebrews 7:18-27), and not in 70 A.D., I believe "the temple of God" in 2 Thessalonians 2:4 refers to a literal Jewish temple that will be built, and "the holy place" in Matthew 24:15 refers technically to the inner part of the Jewish temple and to the same future "abomination of desolation" as Daniel 11:31, which refers to "the sanctuary" and "the daily sacrifice."

Note that the ground of the temple mount itself can be a holy place in God's eyes: "Worship the LORD in the holy mount at Jerusalem" (Isaiah 27:13). It was the place of Abraham's obedience in offering Isaac and the place chosen for the temple from the time of David. But any structure built upon this ground will not necessarily be considered by God as a holy place, that is, the "Rock" can be considered holy even though the "Dome of the Rock" is not.

Some say the temple in Jerusalem would not be referred to as "the temple of God." But note that even after the crucifixion had annulled the temple sacrifices (Hebrews 7:18), Jesus still commanded the apostles to speak to the people in "the temple" (Acts 5:20), and Paul went to "the temple" to pray (Acts 22:17) and was found "purified in the temple" (Acts 24:18, 21:26), and in a prophetic vision John measured "the temple of God" that will stand during the coming tribulation while the city of Jerusalem is being trodden under foot by the Gentiles for the 42 months of the Antichrist's rule (Revelation 11:1-2, 13:5).

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Matthew 24:16 refers to Judea, but the coming tribulation will involve far more than just Judaea (Matthew 24:21-22).

Note that Judaea still exists today, for the same place that Jesus calls Judaea is included in the area that is currently called the West Bank, and some Jews today still call it Judaea and Samaria.

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Matthew 24:20 (winter/Sabbath) -- I don't believe we will necessarily still have all the conveniences we have now by the time the abomination of desolation occurs.

Note that the parallel passage in Mark 13:18 doesn't mention the Sabbath, which means it is not the sine qua non part of the teaching: some Christians do keep the Sabbath, others do not; we're not to make an issue of it either way (Romans 14:5-8).

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Matthew 24:29-31 -- See Matthew 24.

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Matthew 24:31-34 says "this generation will not pass." See "The Fig Tree" (FigTree.html).

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Matthew 26:64 says Jesus told the high priest that he would see Jesus coming in the clouds of heaven. Even those in Hades who pierced him will see the Lord's coming (Revelation 1:7) after the tribulation (Matthew 24:29-30), for they can see beyond their place of torment (Luke 16:23).

Note that Matthew 26:64 doesn't say: Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven "at the same time."

We believers will see Jesus in heaven if we die before the 2nd coming (2 Corinthians 5:8). And even those in Hades who pierced him may be able to see the Lord now in heaven, for they can see beyond their place of torment (Luke 16:23).

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Mark 1:15 says �the kingdom of God is at hand," or near to coming, and Jesus speaks of it elsewhere as a future time: "Ye shall see Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, and all the prophets, in the kingdom of God, and you yourselves thrust out" (Luke 13:28); as did Paul in the context of our future resurrection: "Flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God" (1 Corinthians 15:50).

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Mark 9:1. See Matthew 16:28 above.

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Luke 17:20-21 -- Here Jesus was replying to the Pharisees, who expected Christ to conquer the world physically at his 1st coming. He was trying to get them to realize that they had to be conquered on the inside first -- as he had told them previously: all they cared about was externals (Luke 11:39).

Notice that right after Luke 17:20-21, Jesus goes on to explain to his disciples that he had to die first, but that after that he would be revealed to destroy all his enemies (Luke 17:22-30). This is confirmed in other passages, which also foretell the day when the kingdom would come with observation (Revelation 1:7, Matthew 24:30).

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Luke 21: "You" = Apostles -- See Matthew 24.

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Luke 21:8 -- Regarding the 2nd coming, any humans themselves saying "the time is near" (instead of God saying it) should not be followed (Luke 21:8). Therefore, neither should we follow any human preterists who say "the time was near."

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Luke 21:20-24 -- I believe Luke 21:24 refers to the same treading down of Jerusalem as Revelation 11:2, which was not fulfilled by the Roman siege of Jerusalem, for John didn't prophesy Revelation 11 until more than 20 years after the destruction of Jerusalem, nor can a surrounding of a city's walls and a treading under foot of a city be equated, nor did 2 Thessalonians 2:4 or such events as described in great detail in Revelation 11 and Revelation 13 occur during the Roman siege.

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Luke 23:43 -- While his body lay in the grave, I believe Jesus' spirit was in paradise in heaven (Luke 23:43, Revelation 2:7).

Note that if we compare the location of the tree of life in Revelation 2:7 (paradise) and Revelation 22:2, 14 (New Jerusalem), we see that paradise is in New Jerusalem.

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John 4:21 -- We worship in Spirit and in truth now; but the verse doesn't say earthly Jerusalem was no longer going to be a holy place, as it especially will be during the millennium: "This shall be the punishment of Egypt, and the punishment of all nations that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles. In that day shall there be upon the bells of the horses, HOLINESS UNTO THE LORD; and the pots in the LORD's house shall be like the bowls before the altar. Yea, every pot in Jerusalem and in Judah shall be holiness unto the LORD of hosts: and all they that sacrifice shall come and take of them, and seethe therein: and in that day there shall be no more the Canaanite in the house of the LORD of hosts" (Zechariah 14:19-21).

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John 13:36 -- Peter followed Jesus into heaven afterwards at his death.

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John 14 -- Note that no verse (not even John 13 or 14) says the rapture will take us any higher than the clouds, but it does say the spirits of believers that died went into heaven long before 70 A.D. (2 Corinthians 5:6-8, Philippians 1:21-24, Luke 23:43, Luke 23:46, Acts 7:59).

John 14:19 will hold true up until the 2nd coming (Matthew 23:39, Zechariah 12:10).

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John 21:23 -- Note that John died, so Jesus could not have come in his lifetime.

Note that John 21:23 doesn't require a coming of Christ before John died; it only required Peter to not be jealous of John for not having to be martyred like Peter had just been told he would be (John 21:19), for Jesus didn't tell Peter that John wouldn't die before he came: [b] "Jesus said not unto him, He shall not die." [/b] John died. Jesus wanted Peter to consider his reaction IF Jesus had willed that John never die while Peter would have to die a cruel death (by crucifixion upside down, as it turned out).

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Acts 1:11 (come back as he left) -- I believe that the angels in Acts 1:11 meant that Jesus will descend from heaven just as physically as he ascended from the Mount of Olives, for at the 2nd coming he must descend from heaven (1 Thessalonians 4:16) and set his feet again on the Mount of Olives (Zechariah 14:4).

In your view, if the way or method of Jesus' ascension was that he ascended physically, why can't the way or method of Jesus' descent from heaven be that he will descend physically? And why can't his descending physically be that described in the following verse? "And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives" (Zechariah 14:4).

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Acts 2:17-20 (last days) -- While I believe Acts 2:16-18 shows that the "last days" began to be fulfilled at Pentecost, note that Acts 2:19-20 wasn't fulfilled at Pentecost or in that generation, as it will be in the coming tribulation (Revelation 6:12, Revelation 8:7-8, Revelation 9:2-3, Revelation 9:17-18), the events of which were still in the future when John wrote Revelation (Revelation 4:1), and which have yet to be fulfilled.

(Last Days Generation)
How do these verses require that there be only one last days generation?

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Acts 2:31 -- In Acts 2:31, the Greek word translated "hell" can simply be translated as "grave," as in 1 Corinthians 15:55. Jesus' spirit was not left in a grave like his body was for three days, and it didn't go to hell, but went into the Father's hands upon his death: "Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost" (Luke 23:46). In Luke, the same Greek word translated "commend" is translated "commit" (Luke 12:48) and "set before" (Luke 11:6).

I believe Jesus did not enter Hades until after his resurrection he went there in his spiritual body to preach to the OT saints (1 Peter 3:18-19, 4:6), whom he led up into heaven with him at his ascension (Ephesians 4:8-10).

Note that Jesus doesn't refer to paradise in Luke 16:22, or to Abraham's Bosom in Luke 23:43.

Can you quote what 1st century A.D. Jews said about paradise?

"For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth" (Matthew 12:40). Note that Jesus was speaking as figuratively as Jonah was in "the belly of hell" (Jonah 2:2).

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Acts 2:34 refers to David's body, not his spirit. Peter was showing that David did not fulfill Acts 2:27 because David's body remained in its grave (Acts 2:29). The spirits of the former OT (now NT) saints were in heavenly Jerusalem (Hebrews 12:22-23), for when Jesus "ascended up on high, he led captivity captive" (Ephesians 4:8).

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Acts 7:59 -- Stephen's spirit was received into heaven long before 70 A.D.

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Acts 24:15 -- "There shall be a resurrection of the dead" (Acts 24:15). In the Greek, "shall be" is "mello" (Strong's #3195), which Strong's Greek Dictionary defines first as "to intend," which is how it is translated in Acts 5:35. There indeed shall be a resurrection of the dead, for God intends for there to be one. I believe it has not yet occurred; we do not find it described in any history.

How many years (or centuries, or millennia) can transpire between an event foretold using "mello" and its coming to pass? (e.g. Acts 26:22-23, Romans 5:14, Hebrews 11:8, 2 Timothy 4:1, Matthew 3:7, Matthew 16:27, Acts 23:3, Acts 24:15)

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Romans 10:18 is a quote from Psalm 19:4, which refers to the heavens, the firmament, day, and night, themselves declaring the glory of God the Creator simply by their existence (compare Romans 1:20). But Paul later said he wanted to preach the gospel himself in regions where no man had preached Jesus yet (Romans 15:20, compare 2 Corinthians 10:16). And there are missionaries still today striving to reach indigenous tribes in remote jungles such as in Borneo and the Amazon who have not yet heard of Jesus, knowing that Jesus said the end would not come until every nation of people had heard the gospel (Matthew 24:14).

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1 Corinthians 1:7-8 -- Those who died faithful among the Corinthians will be blameless at the 2nd coming.

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1 Corinthians 4:19 -- While 1 Corinthians 4:19 was not written to me, it was still written for me at least insofar as every other passage of scripture is for me, for all scripture is profitable for me (2 Timothy 3:16-17).

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1 Corinthians 10:11 says "the ends of the world are come." This admonition is for all the church. The end of the world will come upon the church (Matthew 28:20), but the end is not yet (Matthew 24:6, 2 Thessalonians 2:1-3).

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1 Corinthians 15:51-52 -- See 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17.

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1 Corinthians 15:55 (victory over hades) -- Note that Hades can be translated simply as "grave," and those many who were dead in Matthew 27:52-53 did not have to wait until 70 A.D. for their mortal bodies to come up out of their graves. But they, nor anyone else, has yet been resurrected into immortal bodies, or transformed while still alive into their immortal bodies (1 Corinthians 15:51-53).

First, note that Hades has never been a destination for Christians, for the verses that say when our bodies die our spirits go into heaven to be with the Lord (2 Corinthians 5:6-8, Philippians 1:21-24, Luke 23:43, Luke 23:46, Acts 7:59) were all written long before 70 A.D., and no verse says any Christian has ever gone to Hades.

Second, note that the victory over the grave in 1 Corinthians 15:51-55 cannot have happened yet, because it must include the instant transformation of all Christians still alive at that time into immortal bodies (verse 51-52). No such thing happened in 70 A.D., nor has it ever happened since, for all the Christians alive in 70 A.D. died in subsequent years, and Christians today continue to die.

Therefore, in 1 Corinthians 15:55 Paul must be referring to the graves of our physical bodies: "O death, where is thy sting? O grave, where is thy victory?" (1 Corinthians 15:55)

He was referring to the Old Testament saying: "O death, I will be thy plagues; O grave, I will be thy destruction" (Hosea 13:14). Here the Hebrew word translated "grave" is sheol, which could be used to refer to a physical grave where bones are placed, as in Psalm 141:7's "Our bones are scattered at the grave's mouth."

But since Paul was writing to Gentiles in Greece, he reminded them of the saying in the version they would be familiar with, the Septuagint, which says: "Where is thy penalty, O death? O Hades, where is thy sting?" (Hosea 13:14)

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Philippians 4:5 says "Let your moderation be known unto all men. The Lord is at hand." Here the Greek word translated "at hand" is eggus, which can also refer to a nearness in physical position, as in Romans 10:8, Ephesians 2:13, and John 3:23, so that Philippians 4:5 could be saying we should be moderate because Jesus is always near us, as in "I am with you always" (Matthew 28:20).

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Colossians 1:23 -- Note that "was preached" (KJV) in Colossians 1:23 is a translation from the original Greek aorist tense, which is considered without regard for past, present, or future time. One translation of this verse that captures the aorist flavor is "You heard the same good news as is told to everyone in the whole world" (Worldwide English Translation). If the gospel had already been preached to everyone, I don't believe Paul would have spoken elsewhere of his desire "to preach the gospel in the regions beyond you, and not to boast in another man's line of things made ready to our hand" (2 Corinthians 10:16), and today's missionaries would not be troubling themselves to reach remote tribes in places like Borneo and the Amazon which have not yet heard the gospel.

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Colossians 2:17 says "things to come." But doesn't Colossians 2:20 say that Christians were already dead to the Mosaic law (compare Romans 7:4, 6), which Colossians 2:14 says was blotted out on the cross? (compare Ephesians 2:15)

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1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 ("WE") -- When Paul said "we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord" (1 Thessalonians 4:15), I believe he was referring to we Christians generally, and wasn't including himself, for he knew he was going to die before Jesus came (2 Timothy 4:6), which he did, as did all of the 1st century Thessalonians. 1 Thessalonians 4:15 will be fulfilled because some of us Christians will be alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord, which still has not yet occurred for any of us, for when was Jesus' coming seen by every eye of every tribe and kindred on earth, causing them great grief? (Matthew 24:30 and Revelation 1:7) When were those who were still alive and in Christ changed in the twinkling of an eye into immortal bodies? (1 Corinthians 15:23, 51-53) When was the Antichrist destroyed? (2 Thessalonians 2:8) When did Revelation 19 happen? When were Zechariah 14 and Zechariah 12 fulfilled?

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1 Thessalonians 5:3-4 -- Who's "they" in verse 3? That day won't overtake the dead Thessalonians as a thief, for they are now together with Christ in heaven (1 Thessalonians 5:10).

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1 Thessalonians 5:23 -- Not a hair of the bodies of the dead Thessalonians has perished (Luke 21:16, 18), for their bodies will be resurrected (1 Corinthians 15:54) at the 2nd coming (1 Corinthians 15:23).

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2 Thessalonians 1:6-7 -- I believe the Thessalonians -- even though dead and in heaven -- will be at rest at the 2nd coming.

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2 Timothy 1:10 ("HATH abolished death) -- Note that "hath abolished" (KJV) in 2 Timothy 1:10 is a translation from the original Greek aorist tense, which is considered without regard for past, present, or future time. We are still dying. Death will continue its work upon mankind until it is cast into the lake of fire after the millennium and the 2nd resurrection (Revelation 20:13-14).

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Hebrews 1:1-2 says "these last days." See Acts 2:17 above.

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Hebrews 3:6, 14 -- At the time Hebrews was written believers were already made partakers of Christ (Hebrews 3:1), but they would ultimately not be partakers if they subsequently fell away (Hebrews 6:4-6).

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Hebrews 8:13 -- The old covenant was ready to vanish away by the time Jeremiah 31 was written (Hebrew 8:6-13). As soon as God announced the new covenant through Jeremiah, the old covenant instantly became the old covenant as far as God was concerned: "In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old" (Hebrews 8:13), even though God would not actually annul the old covenant until the crucifixion (Matthew 27:51, Hebrews 7:18).

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Hebrews 9:8-9, I believe, clearly states in the perfect tense that under the old covenant the way into the holiest of all was not yet made manifest, and that the old covenant practices were a figure "for the time then present" (enistemi is in the perfect tense, not the present tense), while Hebrews 9:15 and 10:19-22 clearly state in the present tense that the new covenant is manifest, and in the past tense that their hearts have been sprinkled and their bodies washed.

Re: Hebrews 9:9's "are offered" (present tense in the Greek): "Some phrases which might be rendered as past tense in English will often occur in the present tense in Greek. These are termed 'historical presents,' and such occurrences dramatize the event described as if the reader were there watching the event occur." (From http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_dir/strongs/1019368585.html )

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Hebrews 9:11 says "things to come." But doesn't Hebrews 9:15-17 say Jesus was presently the mediator of the new testament, which was in force after Jesus died?

Regarding "things to come," we are still looking forward to our resurrection and eternal life with Christ, first in the millennium, and then in the New Jerusalem forever.

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Hebrews 9:26 -- Hebrews 9:26 cannot mean that "the end of the world (aion)," in the sense of "this present evil world (aion)" (Galatians 1:4), happened at the crucifixion because even after his resurrection Jesus said "lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world (aion)" (Matthew 28:20), and the disciples had asked Jesus "what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world (aion)" (Matthew 24:3). The events he describes in his answer (Matthew 24:4-51) didn't happen at the crucifixion, nor at 70 A.D., nor have they yet been fulfilled.

So what in the world ended at the crucifixion? -- "Now once in the end of the world (aion) hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself" (Hebrews 9:26), "and you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins; Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course (aion) of this world (kosmos), according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience" (Ephesians 2:1-2). We see that the inexorable course of sin of this world ended at the crucifixion insofar that Jesus "gave himself for our sins, that he might deliver us from this present evil world (aion)" (Galatians 1:4) so that we might begin a new course of living "soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world (aion)" (Titus 2:12).

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Hebrews 10:1 says "things to come." But doesn't Hebrews 10:10 say "we are (present tense) sanctified (perfect tense)" by the sacrifice of Christ?

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Hebrews 10:25 ("AS YE" see the day approaching) -- They is us, for Hebrews is written to those in the last days (Hebrews 1:2), and we're still in the last days. [See Acts 2:17 above.]

("AS" ye see the day approaching) -- Hebrews 10:25 says "and so much the more, as ye see the day approaching." Here the Greek word translated "as" can be translated "how much," as it is in Hebrews 8:6, so that Hebrews 10:25 can be saying "and so much the more, how much you see the day approaching," that is, it doesn't require that those in the 1st century were already seeing the day approaching or even that they would ever see it approaching, only that their and our frequency of meeting should increase to the measure that the day is seen approaching.

Shouldn't we be exhorting one another daily anyway? (Hebrews 3:13)

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Hebrews 10:37 says "yet a little while." While the Lord will return in what will be a little while to him, it won't necessarily be a little while to us, for to the Lord "a thousand years [are] as one day" (2 Peter 3:8), and "a little while" in the Greek is "micron oson oson," which can mean "little how much how much" -- each oson could be 1000 years. This is why we have need of "patience" (Hebrews 10:36), indeed even "long patience," despite the fact that the Lord draws near (James 5:7-8).

Note that even the passage of 2000 years doesn't mean the Lord is tarrying, for the point of 2 Peter 3:3-15 is that "the Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness" (2 Peter 3:9).

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Hebrews 11 (OT saints not in heaven by time written) -- Note that "say" in Hebrews 11:14 is in the same tense as "desire" in Hebrews 11:16, and they are not still saying those things. Both verbs refer back to "confessed" in Hebrews 11:13; the passage of Hebrews 11:4-40 refers to the situation of the former OT (now NT) saints while they were still alive on the earth in OT times, not to their situation at the time Hebrews was written.

The spirits of the former OT (now NT) saints were in heavenly Jerusalem (Hebrews 12:22-23), for when Jesus "ascended up on high, he led captivity captive" (Ephesians 4:8).

Paul was quoting from the Old Testament, "Thou hast ascended on high, thou hast led captivity captive... unto GOD the Lord belong the issues from death" (Psalm 68:18, 20). Here the word translated "death" is the Hebrew word "maveth," which can refer to the realm of the dead, as in "Have the gates of death been opened unto thee?" (Job 38:17), and "thou that liftest me up from the gates of death" (Psalm 9:13).

I believe "captivity" was those former OT (now NT) saints who were once held in captivity in Hades (didn't you call it a prison?) and now were held in Christ's possession.

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James 5:3 says "the last days." See Acts 2:17 above.

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James 5:7-8 says "Be patient therefore, brethren, unto the coming of the Lord. Behold, the husbandman waiteth for the precious fruit of the earth, and hath long patience for it, until he receive the early and latter rain. Be ye also patient; stablish your hearts: for the coming of the Lord draweth nigh." Indeed the Lord's return draws nearer with each passing day, but it also requires that we have "long patience."

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1 Peter 1 (salvation still future at time written) -- While we are already sanctified (1 Peter 1:2) and born again (1 Peter 1:3), thus receiving the salvation of our souls (1 Peter 1:9), which are already redeemed (1 Peter 1:18) and purified (1 Peter 1:22), we still hope for an incorruptible inheritance (1 Peter 1:3-4) which will be the salvation revealed and the grace brought to us at the appearing/revelation of Christ (1 Peter 1:5, 7, 13), which can be nothing other than the raising/transformation of our mortal bodies into incorruptibility.

Note that none of this says that our spirits can't go into heaven if we die before the 2nd coming.

See 1 Corinthians 15:55 above.

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1 Peter 1:20 says "these last times." See Acts 2:17 above.

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1 Peter 4:7 says "at hand," which in the Greek is "eggizo," which means to draw near, just as the Lord's return draws nearer with each passing day, but it still requires that we "be patient" (James 5:8).

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1 Peter 4:17 says "For the time is come that judgment must begin at the house of God: and if it first begin at us..." Here there is no "is come" in the Greek, and "must begin" is in the aorist tense, not the present tense. The time of judgment must begin with the church, whenever that time comes, and if it first begins with us the church, whenever it begins...

Note that in 1 Peter 4:17-18, "us" refers to the "the house of God," "the righteous," which are in no way limited to the 1st century, but continue down until this day.

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1 John 2:17 says "the world passeth away." See Acts 2:17 above.

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1 John 2:18 says "it is the last hour." The Greek word in 1 John 2:18 for "hour" or "time" (KJV) can refer to any period of time, even of an indefinite length, as in John 4:23, where the same "hour" refers to the present and indefinitely into the future.

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1 John 4:3 - Modern Gnosticism, called Theosophy or the New Age, denies that Jesus came in the flesh, and so it is the spirit of antichrist (1 John 4:3). It will become an even worse enemy to the end-time church than 1st century Gnosticism was to the 1st century church, for the coming Antichrist will be given power over all nations and over the saints (Revelation 13:7).

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Revelation 1:1 indeed says "shortly come to pass." But Irenaeus of Lyons (b.130) says Revelation was written by John "towards the end of Domitian's reign": "We will not, however, incur the risk of pronouncing positively as to the name of Antichrist; for if it were necessary that his name should be distinctly revealed in this present time, it would have been announced by him who beheld the apocalyptic vision. For that was seen no very long time since, but almost in our day, towards the end of Domitian's reign" (Against Heresies, Book 5, Chapter 30, Paragraph 3). Domitian's reign ended in 96 A.D. How did each verse of Revelation 13 and Revelation 11 and Revelation 16 shortly come to pass after 96 A.D.? How did the 2nd coming in Revelation 19 shortly come to pass, and how did the millennial reign and great white throne judgment of Revelation 20 and the eternal state of the new heaven and new earth and New Jerusalem of Revelation 21-22 shortly come to pass? To God, all these will indeed shortly come to pass, for to him a thousand years are as one day (2 Peter 3:8), but we men need "long patience" in waiting for the 2nd coming, even though it draws nearer with each passing day (James 5:7-8).

The latter end of Domitian's reign was marked by persecution against the Christians flourishing throughout the Roman Empire, to the point where, as Eusebius says, "even those writers who were far from our religion did not hesitate to mention in their histories the persecution and the martyrdoms which took place during it" (Church History, Book 3, Chapter 18).

Who wrote the Syriac Vulgate Bible Title, how was the date determined, and how would a 6th century statement have more authority than Irenaeus' 2nd century statement?

What spelling of Domitian's name does the earliest manuscript of Irenaeus have, and why would it be stupid to understand Domitianou to be Domition, especially when John saw his vision "almost" in Irenaeus� day?

How is the internal testimony wholly in favor of the earlier date?

Regarding Papias of Hieropolis suggesting that John was martyred during the last days of Jerusalem, can you quote the manuscript and indicate its date?

Who thinks the "Shepherd of Hermas" was written by the mid-80's, and based on what, and how is it clearly influenced by the book of Revelation?

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Revelation 1:3 says "the time is at hand." See Revelation 1:1.

In Revelation 1:3, the word "keep" is translated from the Greek "tereo," which can be used to refer to the "preserving" of things (1 Thessalonians 5:23, Jude 1:1). I believe it could mean we are to preserve every verse of Revelation intact, not adding or deleting a single word (Revelation 22:18-19).

The churches of Asia preserved the book for us.

Some ask how this makes sense: "Blessed are they who preserve the words of this prophecy, for the time is near." To God, the time described in Revelation is near -- it will certainly come to pass -- so we must perfectly preserve Revelation for that generation which will see it happen.

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Revelation 1:4 (To 7 Churches) -- I believe that only Revelation 1:4-20 and the 7 letters which follow are addressed specifically to the 7 churches. The book is for all Christians, to show them through John what must happen in the future (Revelation 1:1, 4:1); it wasn't just given to the 7 churches.

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Revelation 1:7 -- They will not see Jesus until the 2nd coming (Revelation 19). Jesus must return from heaven (Acts 3:20-21) just as physically he left (Acts 1:9-11). He ascended physically from the Mount of Olives to the clouds to heaven; he will descend physically from heaven to the clouds to the Mount of Olives (Zechariah 14:4). And he will still have the wounds of the crucifixion on his body for all to see (Zechariah 13:6, compare John 20:27).

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Revelation 1:9 -- Domitian's reign was marked by persecution against the Christians flourishing throughout the Roman Empire, to the point where, as Eusebius says, "even those writers who were far from our religion did not hesitate to mention in their histories the persecution and the martyrdoms which took place during it" (Church History, Book 3, Chapter 18). This is why John says he is a "companion in [the] tribulation" (the Greek has a "the" before tribulation), as under that persecution he was banished to "the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ" (Revelation 1:9), but the end-times tribulation of Revelation 6-19 was yet in the future (Revelation 4:1).

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Revelation 1:9-10 -- I believe Revelation 1:9-10 means that John was in a spiritual trance on Patmos on a Sunday.

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Revelation 1:19 says in some translations the "things which are about to occur." But Revelation 1:19 says "which shall be hereafter" in the KJV. The Greek word "mello" can mean "intended."

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Revelation 2:16 -- We can understand Jesus' warning in Revelation 2:16 to the 1st century church of Pergamos as a warning against complacency which did not require Christ's literal return, as in Revelation 3:3.

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Revelation 2:22 doesn't have a "the" before "great tribulation" in the Greek or in translation; Jesus could cast them into great suffering due to their fornication, probably by causing them to contract sexually transmitted diseases.

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Revelation 2:25 says "what you have, hold fast until I come." But the Greek, "an hexo," can mean "if haply I come," so that we can understand Christ's command to the 1st century church of Thyatira as including a threat of chastisement by Christ which was conditional upon their behavior, which chastisement would not require Christ's literal return in order to be fulfilled, as in Revelation 3:3.

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Revelation 3:3 must be a threat of chastisement by Christ which would not require Christ's literal return in order to be fulfilled, just as Revelation 3:20 is a positive encouragement to repent which did not require that Christ had literally returned to them, for we don't find the events that must happen at Christ's literal return, which are described in such passages as Revelation 19; Matthew 24:29-31; Zechariah 14; Zechariah 12; 1 Corinthians 15:23, 51-52; 2 Thessalonians 2:8; Revelation 1:7; and 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 fulfilled anytime in the 1st century, or anytime since then.

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Revelation 3:10 says in some translations the "things which are about to occur." But Revelation 3:10 says "which shall come" in the KJV. The Greek word "mello" can mean "intended."

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Revelation 3:11 -- Note that nothing requires that the 2nd coming reference in Revelation 3:11 be fulfilled in the lifetime of the 1st century Philadelphians, just as nothing requires that the 2nd coming reference in 1 Corinthians 1:7-8 be fulfilled in the lifetime of the 1st century Corinthians, or that the 2nd coming reference in Revelation 22:7, 22:12, 22:20 be fulfilled in the lifetime of whoever read and kept the sayings of Revelation throughout the history of the church from the 1st century down until this day.

Note that God's promises to us are not always given according to our human reckoning of time. That is the point of 2 Peter 3:3-15, that "the Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness" (2 Peter 3:9), for we "are not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day" (2 Peter 3:8). This is why we have no problem with being exhorted to have "long patience" despite the fact that the coming of the Lord draws near (James 5:7-8).

Revelation 3:11 says "I come quickly". When he comes he will indeed come suddenly and quickly.

Some say "Jesus explicitly said that he was coming SOON. The Greek word here is takhu (tachu). It means: quickly, without delay, soon." But tachu may be read adverbially to describe how an action will be completed, not necessarily when it will be completed. When he comes, Jesus will indeed come suddenly and quickly.

Some say "in the days of King James, around 1611, quickly meant: within a short space of time, without delay, very soon." But, again, the KJV uses quickly adverbially to describe how quickly an action will occur once it occurs, not necessarily when it will occur. For example, Deuteronomy 28:20 warns that Israel will perish quickly once God's curse overtakes them; it does not say from the time Deuteronomy 28:20 was spoken until Israel perished would be without delay. We know Israel did not completely perish as a political entity until 70 A.D., which I believe wasn't until some 1468 years after Deuteronomy 28:20 had been spoken.

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Revelation 3:20 -- If Christ had already returned by this time, how many 2nd comings are there?

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Revelation 4:1 -- Revelation is a book of the future: "I will shew thee things which must be hereafter" (Revelation 4:1).

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Revelation 13 -- I believe Revelation 6-22 describes a future succession of literal events and personages in both the physical and spiritual realm using some symbols just as Daniel described a past and verifiable succession of literal historical empires and personages using some symbols.

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Revelation 13 -- Who fulfilled or will fulfill Daniel 11:36-39; 2 Thessalonians 2:3-4; Revelation 13:5-8, 18; and Revelation 19:19-20?

Some say the church fathers knew the Antichrist was Nero.

But Justin Martyr (100-165) spoke of the coming of the Antichrist as an event yet in the future: "He whom Daniel foretells would have dominion for a time, and times, and an half, is even already at the door, about to speak blasphemous and daring things against the Most High" (Justin Martyr, Dialogue with Trypho, Chapter 32).

As did Irenaeus of Lyons (130-202): "But, knowing the sure number declared by Scripture, that is, six hundred sixty and six, let them await, in the first place, the division of the kingdom into ten; then, in the next place, when these kings are reigning, and beginning to set their affairs in order, and advance their kingdom, [let them learn] to acknowledge that he who shall come claiming the kingdom for himself, and shall terrify those men of whom we have been speaking, having a name containing the aforesaid number, is truly the abomination of desolation" (Irenaeus, Adversus Haereses, Book 5, Chapter 30).

As did Hippolytus: "It is proper that we take the Holy Scriptures themselves in hand, and find out from them what, and of what manner, the coming of Antichrist is; on what occasion and at what time that implores one shall be revealed; and whence and from what tribe (he shall come); and what his name is, which is indicated by the number in the Scripture; and how he shall work error among the people, gathering them from the ends of the earth; and (how) he shall stir up tribulation and persecution against the saints; and how he shall glorify himself as God; and what his end shall be" (Hippolytus, Treatise on Christ and Antichrist, 5).

As did Cyprian (about 250 A.D.): "Nor let it disturb you, dearest brethren, if with some, in these last times, either an uncertain faith is wavering, or a fear of God without religion is vacillating, or a peaceable concord does not continue. These things have been foretold as about to happen in the end of the world; and it was predicted by the voice of the Lord, and by the testimony of the apostles, that now that the world is failing, and the Antichrist is drawing near, everything good shall fail, but evil and adverse things shall prosper" (Cyprian, Epistles 67.7). "Even Antichrist, when he shall begin to come, shall not enter into the Church because he threatens� They endeavour to imitate the coming of Antichrist, who is now approaching" (Cyprian, Epistles 54.19).

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Revelation 13:18 - Some say 666 = Nrwn Qsr, one Hebrew spelling of Nero Caesar. But will they cite the original source for this spelling, and show that it was the common and not an intentionally deviant spelling? Nero did not fulfill the details of Revelation 13.

Revelation 13:18 - Some manuscripts have 616 instead of 666. This was intentional textual tampering, rejected by the early church fathers. Irenaeus of Lyons (born 130 A.D.) said that 666 (and not 616) is the number for the Antichrist in "all the most approved and ancient copies [of the Apocalypse], and those men who saw John face to face bearing their testimony" (Against Heresies, Book 5, Chapter 30).

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Revelation 16:12 (drying up Euphrates) -- I believe the Euphrates is dried up in order to facilitate a more rapid movement of the armies of the kings of the east to Armageddon:

"And the sixth angel poured out his vial upon the great river Euphrates; and the water thereof was dried up, that the way of the kings of the east might be prepared... And he gathered them together into a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon" (Revelation 16:12, 16).

Note that a section of a literal body of water was dried up in order to facilitate a more rapid movement of the armies of Israel out of Egypt: "The LORD did bring the children of Israel out of the land of Egypt by their armies" (Exodus 12:51), "and the children of Israel shall go on dry ground through the midst of the sea" (Exodus 14:16).

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Revelation 19 -- Could the white horses that Jesus and we believers are seen riding in Revelation 19:11, 14 be literal spiritual horses like the ones that caught Elijah up into heaven in 2 Kings 2:11 and which were seen around Elisha in 2 Kings 6:17?

Could the sword coming out of Jesus' mouth in Revelation 19:15, 21 be a literal spiritual sword like the sword the angel stretched out to bring plague to Jerusalem in 1 Chronicles 21:16-17 and which the angel which confronted Balaam would have killed him with in Numbers 22:31-33?