Rapture At The 6th Seal?
I think the rapture may not be at the 6th seal, but will be "after the tribulation" (Matthew 24:29-31), after the 7 trumpets and 7 vials are finished. I don't believe that Revelation shows Jesus coming or the Antichrist being destroyed at the 6th seal, for the Antichrist is still gathering his armies after the 6th vial (Revelation 16:12-16), and isn't destroyed until the 2nd coming (Revelation 19:11-21), after the vials (Revelation 16). I believe Paul taught that the Antichrist would be destroyed at the same coming (parousia) of Christ in which we will be gathered together unto him (2 Thessalonians 2:1, 8). I don't believe that Paul taught a 3rd coming (parousia) of Christ.
Between the 6th and 7th vials, Jesus exhorts us to hold on (Revelation 16:15). I believe this is the same blessing as Daniel 12:12, so that we might endure to the 1,335th day after the abomination of desolation (Daniel 12:11-12), which is the day I believe Jesus will come back (Revelation 19).
My concern is that if some mistakenly believe that Jesus promised to rapture us right after the cataclysm of the 6th seal, and then he doesn't, and then month after month continues to pass by without any rapture, some may begin to think that something has gone wrong, that maybe Satan has somehow thwarted the rapture. But if we go into the tribulation believing that we must wait 1,335 days after the abomination of desolation for Jesus to rapture us (Daniel 12:11-12), then we'll be prepared to endure to the very end without our faith being shaken.
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Earthquake
Note that Matthew 24:29-31 doesn't mention the earthquake of the 6th seal (Revelation 6:12); it only refers to the powers of "the heavens" being shaken. Could the earthquake of the 6th seal be included in the earthquakes of Matthew 24:7, and the war and famine of the 2nd and 3rd seals (Revelation 6:3-6) be included in the wars and famines of Matthew 24:6-7, all of which occur prior to the abomination of desolation of Matthew 24:15, just as all of the seals of Revelation 6 occur prior to the rule of the Antichrist of Revelation 13?
Could the "great earthquake" and fearful signs in the sun, moon, and stars in the 6th seal (Revelation 6:12-14) be included in the "great earthquakes" and "fearful sights and great signs shall there be from heaven" (Luke 21:11) which will occur before the 42-month treading down of Jerusalem (Luke 21:24; Revelation 11:2) during the 42-month reign of the Antichrist (Revelation 13:5)?
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Sun, Moon & Stars
Note that the sun being darkened (Revelation 6:12) is not compelling evidence that the 6th seal is after the tribulation, as in Matthew 24:29, for the sun is equally darkened in the 5th trumpet (Revelation 9:2). So the sun could be darkened twice during in the tribulation and then again after the tribulation.
Note that the moon appearing blood red (Revelation 6:12) is not compelling evidence that the 6th seal is after the tribulation, as is Matthew 24:29, for after the tribulation the moon will not give any light at all (Matthew 24:29). So the moon can appear blood red during the tribulation and then not give any light at all after the tribulation.
Note that stars falling from heaven (Revelation 6:13) is not compelling evidence that the 6th seal is after the tribulation, as is Matthew 24:29, for we know that literal stars are much too big to fall to earth, in fact, each one is millions of times larger than the earth, so the stars that will fall to earth must be meteorites, and there are meteoritic events during the tribulation, such as the 2nd and 3rd trumpets (Revelation 8:8-10). So there can be three meteoritic events during the tribulation and then one after the tribulation.
Note that if "the sun and the air were darkened" of Revelation 9:2 doesn't have to be referring to "the sun be darkened" of Matthew 24:29, then "the sun became black as sackcloth of hair" (Revelation 6:12) doesn't have to be referring to "the sun be darkened" of Matthew 24:29.
Note that the moon appearing blood red (Revelation 6:12) is not the same as the moon not giving any light at all (Matthew 24:29).
Note just as "the stars of heaven, and did cast them to the earth" (Revelation 12:4) doesn't have to be referring to Matthew 24:29, so "the stars of heaven fell unto the earth" (Revelation 6:13) doesn't have to be referring to Matthew 24:29.
Joel 2:31 says the moon will turn to blood before the day of the Lord, which indeed it will, for the 6th seal may be some time before the 2nd coming.
Note that the 5th trumpet of Revelation 9:1-12 doesn't refer to a darkening of the sun by only a third.
I believe Isaiah 34:2-3 refers to the armies the Lord will slaughter at the battle of Armageddon (Revelation 19:19-21), so that Isaiah 34:4 would be a sign associated with Armageddon. Note that neither Isaiah 34:2-4 nor Matthew 24:29-31 refer to the great earthquake of Revelation 6:12.
Regarding the sun being darkened multiple times in Revelation, I don't believe that "the sun and the air were darkened" of the 5th trumpet (Revelation 9:2) is referring to "the sun be darkened" of the 2nd coming (Matthew 24:29-31) because the darkening of the sun of the 5th trumpet occurs at the start of the five-month period of the locusts (Revelation 9:5), which period is then followed by all of the events of the 6th trumpet (Revelation 9:12-21), and I don't believe that the 5th and 6th trumpets are "after the tribulation" like the darkening of the sun is at the 2nd coming (Matthew 24:29-31). And if the darkening of the sun at the 5th trumpet isn't referring to the same darkening of the sun as at the 2nd coming, then there is nothing which requires that the darkening of the sun at the 6th seal is referring to the same darkening of the sun as at the 2nd coming
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Why No Heavenly Signs In Revelation 19?
Note that nothing requires that Revelation 19 and Matthew 24:29-31 be two different comings of Christ, for in Revelation John doesn't mention many of the elements of the rapture and 2nd coming that are mentioned elsewhere in the Bible, such as the shout or the voice of the archangel (1 Thessalonians 4:16), or the resurrection of all believers at the sounding of a trumpet (1 Corinthians 15:52, 1 Thessalonians 4:16), or the gathering together of the saints by angels (Matthew 24:31), or Jesus setting foot on the Mount of Olives (Zechariah 14:4), so it should not be surprising that the specific signs of Matthew 24:29 aren't mentioned in connection with Revelation 19 either. But in Revelation 19 John clearly shows Jesus coming, as he does not anywhere else in Revelation, and both Jesus and Paul say the rapture will happen at Jesus' coming (Matthew 24:29-37, Mark 13:24-27, 2 Thessalonians 2:1, 1 Thessalonians 4:15, 1 Corinthians 15:23), and nowhere does the Bible refer to a 3rd coming of Christ.
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Time Of God's Wrath?
I think that Revelation 6:16-17 could be the terrified hyperbole of the unsaved, that they can't actually see the face of the Father sitting on his throne in heaven (Revelation 5:7), and that the 6th seal may not actually be God's wrath. Note that those in heaven don't say God's wrath "is come" until after the 7th trumpet (Revelation 11:15, 18), in the 7 vials (Revelation 16:1).
I think John could be seeing a cataclysmic event that precedes the trumpets, which may be an historically unprecedented volcanic eruption which will trigger devastating earthquakes all around the world, and which will fill the atmosphere with ash, blocking the light from the sun and making the moon appear blood red. I think this could be accompanied (possibly triggered) by a storm of large meteorites, "falling stars," which will hit the ground, and atmospheric explosions of those which don't make it to the ground.
When they see these horrors, the unsaved will no doubt believe they're all going to die, as "seeing the face of God" means death (Exodus 33:20), and that these events are God's wrath. But God's wrath may not be come in the 6th seal, nor in the 7th, nor in the 7 trumpets. God's wrath may not be come until the final stage of the great tribulation, the 7 vials (Revelation 16), which aren't directed at believers; we are even blessed at the 6th vial (Revelation 16:15), that we might endure to the 1,335th day after the abomination of desolation (Daniel 12:11-12).
Note that Satan can create natural disasters like great windstorms (Job 1:19) and he can even cast "stars" down (Revelation 12:4), and he will at one point in the tribulation have great wrath (Revelation 12:12). In Job 1:16 they think "the fire of God is fallen from heaven, and hath burned up the sheep, and the servants, and consumed them" when really it was from Satan; at a certain time God allowed Satan to cause a consuming fire to fall, and not because God was angry with Job in any way.
Note that one can believe that God exists and even be afraid of his wrath, yet still be unsaved, for "the devils also believe, and tremble" (James 2:19).
Don't unbelievers say all sorts of wrong things in John's writings with no indication given by John at that time that they are incorrect? Should we believe that Jesus "deceiveth the people" because of what some unbelievers say in John 7:12 with no indication given by John at that time that they are incorrect? Should we believe that "out of Galilee ariseth no prophet" because of what some unbelievers say in John 7:52 with no indication given by John at that time that they are incorrect? Should we believe that Jesus must not be the Christ because some unbelievers say "we know this man whence he is: but when Christ cometh, no man knoweth whence he is" (John 7:27) with no indication given by John at that time that they are incorrect? If not, then why should we necessarily believe that "the great day of his wrath is come" (Revelation 6:17) simply because of what some unbelievers say?
If every meteorological (weather) disaster like a hurricane or tornado or flooding from heavy rain doesn't have to be a judgment from God, and every geological disaster like an earthquake or landslide or sinkhole doesn't have to be a judgment from God, then why would every meteorite disaster have to be a judgment from God? Can't the latter arise from the natural course of physical forces just as the former do?
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The Great Multitude = Raptured Church?
Note that the great multitude being in heaven (Revelation 7:9) doesn't require that the rapture has occurred, for when their bodies die, the spirits of believers go into heaven to be with the Lord (2 Corinthians 5:6-8, Philippians 1:21-24, Luke 23:43, Luke 23:46, Acts 7:59).
I believe the "great multitude" that "came out of great tribulation" (Revelation 7:9, 14) will be those of us Christians who will enter the tribulation and die in the war, famine, and cataclysm of the seals which occur in the chapter just prior (Revelation 6).
Note that John's not describing the great multitude before the throne until Revelation 7 doesn't mean they weren't getting into heaven by dying during the seals in the chapter just prior, just as his not describing any Christians at all in heaven until he sees the souls of the martyrs in the 5th seal doesn't mean that the souls of all the Christians who have died throughout history weren't already in heaven.
Note that no verse says that the rapture will take anyone any higher than the clouds. And if Christ is in heaven with the great multitude (Revelation 7:17), and they had to have been raptured, then Christ would have had to have "descended from heaven" (1 Thessalonians 4:16) to rapture them, then ascended back into heaven, only to have to descend from heaven all over again to destroy the Antichrist at Armageddon (Revelation 19:19-21), making the 2nd coming (parousia) really the 3rd coming (parousia). I believe Paul taught that the Antichrist would be destroyed at the same coming (parousia) of Christ in which we will be gathered together unto him (2 Thessalonians 2:1, 8). I don't believe that Paul taught a 3rd coming (parousia) of Christ.
Note that Revelation 7 doesn't say that the martyrs under the altar (Revelation 6:9) are out from under the altar, or that they are the great multitude (Revelation 7:9), or that the number of martyrs has been fulfilled (Revelation 6:11), or that the Antichrist himself has even begun his persecution of believers (Revelation 13:7-10).
Note that the "great multitude" that "came out of great tribulation" (Revelation 7:9, 14) don't have to have resurrected bodies in order to wear white robes, for the souls under the altar also wear white robes (Revelation 6:11). Note that when Samuel's spirit was brought up from sheol, he had some sort of ghostly body which was wearing a mantle (1 Samuel 28:14).
I don't believe that God would give robes to the souls under the altar if they could not wear them. That would be as senseless and cruel as giving shoes to someone with no feet.
I don't believe it is a question of whether or not the souls under the altar "need" to wear clothes, just as technically Adam and Eve didn't "need" to wear clothes in the garden of Eden, but we see God giving both the souls under the altar (Revelation 6:11) and Adam and Eve clothes to wear (Genesis 3:21), not to leave lying useless on the ground. Note that just as angelic spirits (Hebrews 1:14) can wear clothes (Revelation 15:6, John 20:12), so human spirits can wear clothes (1 Samuel 28:14).
Note that 1 Samuel 28:14 doesn't say that Samuel's spirit only appeared to be wearing a mantle, but says "he is covered with a mantle" (1 Samuel 28:14).
Note that the fact that the great multitude "shall hunger no more, neither thirst any more" (Revelation 7:16) doesn't require that they've been resurrected, for unresurrected souls also don't hunger or thirst.
Note that just as the use of the Greek word psuche, translated "souls," doesn't require that the spirits of dead people are being referred to, for it's the word used in verses such as Acts 27:37, 14:22, 2:41, so the lack of the use of the word "souls" to describe the great multitude doesn't require that they are not the spirits of dead people.
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Harvest Of Revelation 14
I think that Revelation 14:14-16 may not be a rapture/resurrection: it could possibly be a symbolic picture of Jesus harvesting into heaven the souls of those Christians dying under the Antichrist for not taking the mark:
"They have no rest day nor night, who worship the beast and his image, and whosoever receiveth the mark of his name. Here is the patience of the saints: here are they that keep the commandments of God, and the faith of Jesus. And I heard a voice from heaven saying unto me, Write, Blessed are the dead which die in the Lord from henceforth: Yea, saith the Spirit, that they may rest from their labours; and their works do follow them. And I looked, and behold a white cloud, and upon the cloud one sat like unto the Son of man, having on his head a golden crown, and in his hand a sharp sickle. And another angel came out of the temple, crying with a loud voice to him that sat on the cloud, Thrust in thy sickle, and reap: for the time is come for thee to reap; for the harvest of the earth is ripe. And he that sat on the cloud thrust in his sickle on the earth; and the earth was reaped" (Revelation 14:11-16).
I think Revelation 14:14-16 may not show a coming of Jesus from heaven to earth; he could be seated on one of the clouds of the 3rd heaven (Daniel 7:13 refers to the clouds of the heaven where the Ancient of days is) and perform his spiritual work from the 3rd heaven, just as he works his spiritual works in us currently while he is still physically in heaven.
But why the symbolic picture of him thrusting the sickle if all that is happening is that some Christians are dying and being taken into heaven? Haven't Christians been dying and going to heaven regularly for thousands of years? What makes this dying so different? It could be that an unprecedented, huge number of Christians are being martyred all at the same time by the Antichrist, so that it will be an unusual event which Jesus will personally take full control of.
Note that the symbolic picture of Revelation 14:16 doesn't require an instantaneous or only a single thrusting of the sickle, just as the parable of Mark 4:26-29 doesn't require an instantaneous or only a single putting in of the sickle.
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Winepress of Revelation 14
I think that the treading of the winepress in Revelation 14:19-20 may possibly not be the same as the treading which will be done by Jesus himself at the 2nd coming (Revelation 19:15). Revelation 14:19-20 may be picturing an initial wave of bloody persecution by the Antichrist against all his enemies once he has committed the abomination of desolation in Jerusalem and instituted the mark of the beast and the worship of his image (Revelation 14:9-20), for his False Prophet will "cause that as many as would not worship the image of the beast should be killed" (Revelation 13:15). The 200 mile radius from Jerusalem may indicate that the initial wave of killings will occur throughout Israel, Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Iraq, Syria, and Lebanon.
Revelation 14:19-20 may picture the initial wave of killings by the forces of the Antichrist as "the winepress of the wrath of God" in the same way that Jeremiah pictured the destruction of ancient Judah by the forces of Babylon by saying "The Lord hath trodden under foot all my mighty men in the midst of me: he hath called an assembly against me to crush my young men: the Lord hath trodden the virgin, the daughter of Judah, as in a winepress" (Lamentations 1:15). In his wrath, God may allow the Antichrist's forces to commit this slaughter throughout Israel and the surrounding countries just as in his wrath against "Babylon" (Revelation 16:19) God will allow the 10 kings of the Antichrist's empire (Revelation 17:12) to burn "Babylon" with fire: "These shall hate the whore, and shall make her desolate and naked, and shall eat her flesh, and burn her with fire. For God hath put in their hearts to fulfil his will" (Revelation 17:16-17).
For those faithful Christians who are killed in the initial wave of killings by the Antichrist, I believe their death will in no way be God's wrath against them, but that they will even be blessed in their death, for their spirits will be reaped by Christ himself into heaven (Revelation 14:13-16, compare 2 Corinthians 5:8, Philippians 1:21). But for the unbelievers who die in the same wave of killings, it will be God's wrath against them (Revelation 14:19-20).
I believe that the Antichrist will kill many unbelievers who will refuse to worship him, just as tyrants throughout history have always killed unbelievers for refusing to submit to them.
If you believe that the rapture had to be at the 6th seal, and the trumpets and vials had to occur between the rapture and Armageddon, then how could the treading of the winepress at Armageddon (Revelation 19:15) be immediately after the persecution by the Antichrist?
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Have To Go Through Vials?
From the time he commits the abomination of desolation (Matthew 24:15; Daniel 11:31, 36), I believe the Antichrist is given 1,260 days to rule and persecute believers (compare Revelation 13:5), after which I believe vials 1-5 (Revelation 16) will be poured out on his kingdom over a period of 30 days, during which time we don't see him persecuting believers. On day 1,290 (Daniel 12:11), I believe the 6th vial will be poured out preparing the way of the kings of the east (Revelation 16:12). It may then take about 45 days for the Antichrist and all the kings of the earth to gather all of their armies to Armageddon (Revelation 16:14). I believe Daniel 12:12 and Revelation 16:15 are the same blessing, so that we must wait until the 1,335th day for Christ to return to us, when he will destroy the Antichrist (2 Thessalonians 2:8).
Some say Daniel 12:11 means there will be 1,290 days from the time the sacrifices are stopped until the abomination of desolation. But I don't believe Daniel 11:31 suggests such a gap of time between the two events.
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Daniel For Unsaved Jews Only?
"The people that do know their God" (Daniel 11:32) can only refer to Christians, as no one can know the Father apart from Christ: "Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also" (John 8:19); "Neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him" (Matthew 11:27); "I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me" (John 14:6); "Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also" (1 John 2:23).
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Revelation 10 Angel
Note that Revelation 10 refers not to Christ but to "another mighty angel" (verses 1, 5, 8, 9, 10). Christ is not an angel (Hebrews 1:5).
If you believe Revelation 10 is a coming of Christ, then do you believe there will be a 4th coming of Christ: 1st his Birth, 2nd a pre-wrath coming, 3rd a Revelation 10 coming, and 4th his Revelation 19 coming? Does the Bible anywhere refer to more than one future "coming" of Christ?
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Only One Coming Of Jesus Shown In Revelation
Note that the coming of Jesus is not shown until Revelation 19.
In Revelation 14:1, I believe Jesus is standing on the heavenly mount Sion (Hebrews 12:22).
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Antichrist Before Trumpets?
Does anything say or require that the abomination of desolation occur before the trumpets?
Does anything say or require that the day of the Lord has begun or the rapture has occurred before the trumpets?
Note that nothing at the 6th seal says or requires that the rapture occurs at that point.
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Trumpets = Judgments?
Does Revelation say the trumpets of the tribulation are "judgments"? Isn't it possible that God's judgment may not begin until the 7 vials of wrath at the end of the tribulation (Revelation 15:4, Revelation 16:7), and that none of them will be directed at us Christians?
Could all of us Christians who will be in the tribulation (Revelation 6:11, 7:14, 9:4, 12:17, 13:7-10, 14:12-13, 15:2, 16:15, 18:4, 20:4) go through its wars, famines, plagues, persecutions, martyrdoms, and natural disasters, just as we Christians have always suffered, and not because God was bringing judgment against us?