OnNiddah

To Home Page:

On Niddah:

To Prior Page:

This subject has come up several times; so I thought I'd share something that may be a liberty to some of you.

While we've all heard that one should count 7 days from the END of a woman's period - I've always taken it to be from the START. So, having said that - looking it up in both the Torah and Mishnah - hopefully you'll find the following interesting....

In Niddah 1:1a {Neusner} we read: Shammai says, "[For] all women [it is] sufficient for them [to reckon uncleanness] from their time [of discovering a flow]."

{Then Hillel gives some comments}

But then we read in Niddah 1:1d {regarding both Shammai and Hillel's comments}: And sages say not in accord with the opinion of this one nor in accord with the opinion of that one, ...

Then some more comments which 'could' perhaps be taken liberally; but then we read in -
Niddah 1:1g Every woman who has a fixed period - sufficient for her is her time. -(Niddah 1:6a And of what case did they speak when they said, "Sufficient for her is her time" {b} In the case of the first appearance of a drop of blood.)

Even in the more stricter interpretation - yet we find: Niddah 1:3a R. Eliezer says, "Four women [fall into the category of those for whom the] time [of first seeing blood] suffices: {b} (1) "the virgin, (2) the pregnant woman, (3) the nursing mother, and (4) the old lady." ...
{d} But the law is in accord with the opinion of R. Eliezer.

In fact, all of section 1 in Niddah goes back and forth with the subject.

Now, sometimes halachah is according to Shammai - but usually according to Hillel. But we even see that Hillel tends towards the liberal in this matter in many exceptions. Yet Niddah 1:1d seems to indicate that there was not a "absolute halachah" in this matter in the first century. -- (Though in Niddah 1:3d we see that this much seems to be undisputed halachah.)

Now...
Let's not look just at Rabbinic commentary - but the Peshat of Torah should be foremost...

Leviticus 15:
19 � And if a woman have an issue, and her issue in her flesh be blood, she shall be put apart seven days: and whosoever toucheth her shall be unclean until the even.
{...}
25 And if a woman have an issue of her blood many days out of the time of her separation, or if it run beyond the time of her separation; all the days of the issue of her uncleanness shall be as the days of her separation: she shall be unclean.
{...}
28 But if she be cleansed of her issue, then she shall number to herself seven days, and after that she shall be clean.
29 And on the eighth day she shall take unto her two turtles, or two young pigeons, and bring them unto the priest, to the door of the tabernacle of the congregation.{...}

NOTE: Apart seven days - is literally what is said and makes the most sense in consideration of a 3 to 5 day period, or a "fixed" period; also, if it is from the last day: she would be "untouchable" for up to 1/2 month! Now, another reason I believe that this counting is from the first day - is in verse 25 {following} the Mitzvah would be obvious in verse 24 if it was counting from the first day anyway - regardless of the number of days - yet - verse 25 talks about days out of the time, or beyond the time -- which then also required a sacrifice {verse 15:29} - as it would be "out of the normal" - which would then be a matter of perhaps life endangering, or perhaps a miscarriage {which several causes requiring a sacrifice are also covered in Mishnah in Niddah}; and which requires seven days from the END of her issue {verse 29}; even as these abnormal issues could be {depending on circumstances} miscarriages - and so are treated as in the same matter regarding the time period as of one having given birth.

So... in short, I believe that verse 25, and on, is the "out of ordinary" - and so we see the statement: "ALL THE DAYS OF THE ISSUE (then) {...} SHALL BE AS THE DAYS OF HER SEPERATION", which implies that there were days in a "normal" period that were in the seperation, and those that were'nt {makes sense if you think about it - at least to me}; OTHERWISE: verse 25 would be the same Mitzvah - though we know it is a seperate Mitzvah - (for starters having the requirement of a sacrifice} - and so...

Then verse 15:19 would be for a normal period lasting 3 to 5 days -- and I believe by logic, peshat, and a significant portion of early Rabbinic commentary - should be counted from the FIRST day, not the last.

But this is my opinion, let each be led of HaShem.

Shalom