Review

 

True/False

Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.

 

____          1.   Robert Hooke observed cork cells under a microscope.

 

____          2.   All living things are composed of many cells.

 

____          3.   A cell is the smallest unit that can carry on all the processes of life.

 

____          4.   All living things that are not bacteria are eukaryotes.

 

____          5.   Lysosomes carry on cellular respiration.

 

____          6.   DNA stores information that directs the activities of a cell.

 

____          7.   The only difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is that plant cells have chloroplasts.

 

____          8.   The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

 

____          9.   Human sperm and egg cells have 23 chromosomes.

 

____          10. Gametes are diploid so that when fertilization occurs, the resulting zygote will have the characteristic number of chromosomes for that species.

 

____          11. A karyotype is a type of gene.

 

____          12. During telophase, a nuclear envelope surrounds each new set of chromosomes.

 

____          13. After mitosis and cytokinesis, each new cell has a complete set of the original cell’s  chromosomes.

 

____          14. Plant cells cannot undergo cell division because of their strong cell walls.

 

____          15. Cytokinesis only occurs during metaphase II.

 

____          16. Meiosis results in the formation of haploid cells from diploid cells.

 

____          17. Meiosis produces four nuclei that have a different chromosome number from the original cell’s nucleus.

 

____          18. Genetics is the branch of biology that involves the study of how different traits are transmitted from one generation to the next.

 

____          19. Plants in Mendel’s P generation were all heterozygous.

 

____          20. The scientific study of heredity is called genetics.

 

____          21. A dominant allele masks the effect of a recessive allele.

 

____          22. Genes on chromosomes are the units of inheritance.

 

____          23. The allele for a recessive trait is usually represented by a capital letter.

 

____          24. Heterozygous individuals have two of the same alleles for a particular gene.

 

____          25. A probability of 1/4 is equal to a probability of 75 percent.

 

____          26. The dominant allele for tallness in pea plants is represented by the letter t.

 

____          27. Individuals must exhibit a trait in order for it to appear in their offspring.

 

____          28. In all living things, DNA replication must occur after cell division.

 

____          29. Before a DNA molecule can replicate itself, it must make itself more compact. This is accomplished by the double helix coiling up on itself.

 

____          30. The genetic code is different in nearly all organisms.

 

____          31. A codon signifies either a specific amino acid or a stop signal.

 

____          32. Only ribosomal RNA plays a role in translation.

 

____          33. Changes in the DNA of an organism are called mutations.

 

____          34. If each parent carries a copy of the sickle cell gene, there is a one-in-four chance that their child will have sickle cell anemia.

 

____          35. Somatic mutations affect an organism’s offspring.

 

 The partial pedigree below is for a family with a genetic disorder.

 

           

 

____          36. Refer to the illustration above. The father listed in the pedigree is most likely heterozygous for the trait.

 

____          37. An individual who expresses a genetic disorder is called a carrier.

 

____          38. A pedigree is a family record that shows how a trait is inherited over several generations.

 

____          39. An autosomal trait will occur with equal frequency in both males and females.

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____          40. Hooke’s discovery of cells was made observing

a.

living algal cells.

c.

dead plant cells.

b.

living human blood cells.

d.

dead protist cells.

 

 

____          41. The smallest units of life in all living things are

a.

cells.

c.

cytoplasm.

b.

mitochondria.

d.

Golgi apparatus.

 

 

____          42. One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that

a.

nucleic acids are found only in prokaryotes.

b.

mitochondria are found in larger quantities in eukaryotes.

c.

Golgi vesicles are found only in prokaryotes.

d.

prokaryotes have no nuclear membrane.

 

 

____          43. Cell membranes

a.

are only found on a small number of cells.

b.

contain genes.

c.

are made of DNA.

d.

are thin coverings that surround cells.

 

 

____          44. The structure that regulates what enters and leaves the cell is called

a.

the nucleus.

c.

the nuclear membrane.

b.

the cell wall.

d.

the cell membrane.

 

 

____          45. Cell membranes

a.

are only found on a small number of cells.

b.

contain genes.

c.

are made of DNA.

d.

are thin coverings that surround cells.

 

 

____          46. The cell membrane

a.

encloses the contents of a cell.

b.

allows material to enter and leave the cell.

c.

is selectively permeable.

d.

All of the above

 

 

____          47. A structure within a cell that performs a specific function is called a(n)

a.

organelle.

c.

tissue.

b.

organ tissue.

d.

biocenter.

 

 

____          48. A particularly active cell might contain large numbers of

a.

chromosomes.

c.

mitochondria.

b.

vacuoles.

d.

walls.

 

 

____          49. In which of the following organelles is a cell’s ATP produced?

a.

mitochondrion

c.

Golgi apparatus

b.

endoplasmic reticulum

d.

lysosome

 

 

____          50. Proteins are made in cells on the

a.

mitochondria.

c.

nucleus.

b.

ribosomes.

d.

cell membrane.

 

 

____          51. The packaging and distribution center of the cell is the

a.

nucleus.

c.

central vacuole.

b.

Golgi apparatus.

d.

nuclear envelope.

 

 

____          52. The double membrane surrounding the nucleus is called the

a.

nucleolus.

c.

nucleoplasm.

b.

nuclear wall.

d.

nuclear envelope.

 

 

____          53. All cells have

a.

a covering called a membrane that surrounds the cell and controls what information and materials enter and leave it.

b.

an internal fluid that gives shape to the cell and supports the other things within it.

c.

a central zone or nucleus that contains the cell's genes.

d.

All of the above

 

 

____          54. cell : cell membrane ::

a.

nucleus : chromosome

c.

chromosome : DNA

b.

nucleus : nuclear envelope

d.

cell : DNA

 

 

 

           

 

____          55. Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?

a.

structure “1”

c.

structure “3”

b.

structure “2”

d.

structure “4”

 

 

____          56. Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure “3”

a.

to transport material from one part of the cell to the other.

b.

to package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.

c.

as a receptor.

d.

to produce energy.

 

 

____          57. Refer to the illustration above. Structure “1” is

a.

the endoplasmic reticulum.

c.

a mitochondrion.

b.

a Golgi apparatus.

d.

the nucleus.

 

 

____          58. Refer to the illustration above. In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are found in

a.

structure “1.”

c.

structure “3.”

b.

structure “2.”

d.

structure “5.”

 

 

____          59. Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell because

a.

it has mitochondria.

c.

it has a cell membrane.

b.

it does not have a cell wall.

d.

it does not have a nucleus.

 

 

____          60. All the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except

a.

a cell wall.

c.

mitochondria.

b.

a cell membrane.

d.

the endoplasmic reticulum.

 

 

____          61. The organelles associated with photosynthesis are the

a.

mitochondria.

c.

Golgi apparatus.

b.

chloroplasts.

d.

vacuoles.

 

 

____          62. The organelles in plant cells that contain a green pigment are the

a.

mitochondria.

c.

chloroplasts.

b.

bilayer lipids.

d.

Golgi apparatus.

 

 

____          63. Plant cells have large membrane-bound spaces in which water, waste products, and nutrients are stored. These places are known as

a.

mitochondria.

c.

Golgi apparatus.

b.

chloroplasts.

d.

vacuoles.

 

 

____          64. Plant cells

a.

do not contain mitochondria.

b.

have a cell wall instead of a cell membrane.

c.

have a large vacuole instead of a Golgi apparatus.

d.

have chloroplasts and a cell wall.

 

 

____          65. Which of the following is the correct order of organization of structures in living things, from simplest to most complex?

a.

organ systems, organs, tissues, cells

b.

tissues, cells, organs, organ systems

c.

cells, tissues, organ systems, organs

d.

cells, tissues, organs, organ systems

 

 

____          66. Chromatids are

a.

dense patches within the nucleus.

b.

bacterial chromosomes.

c.

joined strands of duplicated genetic material.

d.

prokaryotic nuclei.

 

 

____          67. A protein disk that attaches two chromatids to each other in a chromosome is called a(n)

a.

chloroplast.

c.

gamete.

b.

centromere.

d.

centriole.

 

 

____          68. The chromosomes in your body

a.

exist in 23 pairs.

b.

each contain thousands of genes.

c.

found in the cytoplasm

d.

All of the above

 

 

 

____          69. A student can study a karyotype to learn about the

a.

molecular structure of a chromosome.

b.

genes that are present in a particular strand of DNA.

c.

medical history of an individual.

d.

chromosomes present in a somatic cell.

 

 

____          70. A diploid cell is one that

a.

has two homologues of each chromosome.

b.

is designated by the symbol 2n.

c.

has chromosomes found in pairs.

d.

All of the above

 

 

____          71. The diploid number of chromosomes in a human skin cell is 46. The number of chromosomes found in a human ovum is

a.

46.

c.

23.

b.

92.

d.

12.5.

 

 

____          72. How many chromosomes are in the body cells of an organism that has a haploid number of 8?

a.

4

c.

12

b.

8

d.

16

 

 

____          73. The phase of mitosis that is characterized by the arrangement of all chromosomes along the equator of the cell is called

a.

telophase.

c.

anaphase.

b.

metaphase.

d.

prophase.

 

 

 

____          74. Refer to the illustration above. The cell in diagram “1” is in

a.

metaphase.

c.

anaphase.

b.

telophase.

d.

prophase.

 

 

____          75. Refer to the illustration above. Mitosis begins with the stage shown in diagram

a.

“1.”

c.

“3.”

b.

“2.”

d.

“4.”

 

 

____          76. Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown in diagram “5” is in

a.

metaphase.

c.

anaphase.

b.

telophase.

d.

prophase.

 

 

____          77. A typical human cell contains 46 chromosomes. After mitosis and cell division, each of the two new cells formed from the original cell

a.

gets 23 chromosomes.

b.

grows new chromosomes from existing DNA.

c.

gets a complete set of 46 chromosomes.

d.

None of the above

 

 

____          78. As a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the original cell during cytokinesis

a.

receives a few chromosomes from the original cell.

b.

receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the original cell.

c.

donates a chromosome to the original cell.

d.

receives exactly half the chromosomes from the original cell.

 

 

 

____          79. Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following correctly indicates the order in which these events occur?

a.

“A,” “B,” “C,” “D”

c.

“B,” “A,” “C,” “D”

b.

“C,” “B,” “A,” “D”

d.

“A,” “C,” “B,” “D”

 

 

____          80. Refer to the illustration above. During which stage do the centromeres divide?

a.

“A”

c.

“C”

b.

“B”

d.

“D”

 

 

____          81. 5 : cell cycle ::

a.

6 : prophase

c.

3 : meiosis

b.

9 : cytokinesis

d.

4 : mitosis

 

 

____          82. In plant cells, cytokinesis occurs when

a.

the chromosomes make exact copies of themselves.

b.

spindle fibers are formed.

c.

a new cell wall forms.

d.

osmotic pressure is too low.

 

 

____          83. Mitosis is a process by which

a.

DNA is replicated.

c.

cells grow in size.

b.

cytokinesis occurs.

d.

a cell’s nucleus divides.

 

 

____          84. Separation of homologues occurs during

a.

mitosis.

c.

meiosis II.

b.

meiosis I.

d.

fertilization.

 

 

____          85. The difference between anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis is that

a.

the chromosomes line up at the equator in anaphase I.

b.

centromeres do not exist in anaphase I.

c.

chromatids do not separate at the centromere in anaphase I.

d.

crossing-over occurs only in anaphase of mitosis.

 

 

Diagrams A and B show cells from an organism with a diploid chromosome number of 4.

                                   

 

____          86. Refer to the illustration above. Which of the cells will be a diploid cell at the completion of division?

a.

“A”

c.

Both

b.

“B”

d.

Neither

 

 

____          87. Refer to the illustration above. Which of these cells is in the process of dividing to form gametes?

a.

“A”

c.

Both

b.

“B”

d.

Neither

 

 

____          88. The scientific study of heredity is called

a.

meiosis.

c.

genetics.

b.

crossing-over.

d.

pollination.

 

 

____          89. The “father” of genetics was

a.

T. A. Knight.

c.

Gregor Mendel.

b.

Hans Krebs.

d.

None of the above

 

 

____          90. What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype?

a.

0.25

c.

0.66

b.

0.5

d.

1.0

 

 

____          91. The passing of traits from parents to offspring is called

a.

genetics.

c.

development.

b.

heredity.

d.

maturation.

 

 

____          92. A genetic trait that appears in every generation of offspring is called

a.

dominant.

c.

recessive.

b.

phenotypic.

d.

superior.

 

 

____          93. The phenotype of an organism

a.

represents its genetic composition.

b.

reflects all the traits that are actually expressed.

c.

occurs only in dominant pure organisms.

d.

cannot be seen.

 

 

____          94. If an individual has two recessive alleles for the same trait, the individual is said to be

a.

homozygous for the trait.

c.

heterozygous for the trait.

b.

haploid for the trait.

d.

mutated.

 

 

____          95. An individual heterozygous for a trait and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait are crossed and produce many offspring that are

a.

all the same genotype.

c.

of three different phenotypes.

b.

of two different phenotypes.

d.

all the same phenotype.

 

 

____          96. Tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents a genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tallness?

a.

T

c.

Tt

b.

TT

d.

tt

 

 

In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.

 

                               

 

____          97. Refer to the illustration above. The genotype represented in box “1” in the Punnett square would

a.

be homozygous for freckles.

b.

have an extra freckles chromosome.

c.

be heterozygous for freckles.

d.

have freckles chromosomes.

 

 

____          98. Refer to the illustration above. The genotype in box “3” of the Punnett square is

a.

FF.

c.

ff.

b.

Ff.

d.

None of the above

 

 

____          99. A trait that occurs in 450 individuals out of a total of 1,800 individuals occurs with a probability of

a.

0.04.

c.

0.50.

b.

0.25.

d.

0.75.

 

 

____          100.           How many different phenotypes can be produced by a pair of codominant alleles?

a.

1

c.

3

b.

2

d.

4

 

 

In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Consider the following cross between two rabbits.

 

                                 

 

____          101.           Refer to the illustration above. The device shown, which is used to determine the probable outcome of genetic crosses, is called a

a.

Mendelian box.

c.

Genetic graph.

b.

Punnett square.

d.

Phenotypic paradox.

 

 

____          102.           Refer to the illustration above. Both of the parents in the cross are

a.

black.

c.

homozygous dominant.

b.

brown.

d.

homozygous recessive.

 

 

____          103.           Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the offspring indicated by box “3” would be

a.

brown.

c.

a mixture of brown and black.

b.

black.

d.

The phenotype cannot be determined.

 

 

____          104.           Refer to the illustration above. The genotypic ratio of the F1 generation would be

a.

1:1.

c.

1:3.

b.

3:1.

d.

1:2:1.

 

 

____          105.           What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?

a.

1:0

c.

1:2:1

b.

1:1

d.

1:3:1

 

 

____          106.           What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?

a.

1:2:1

c.

1:2

b.

1:3:1

d.

1:0

 

 

____          107.           What is the expected phenotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?

a.

1:3:1

c.

2:1

b.

1:2:1

d.

1:0

 

 

____          108.           Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype represented by the cell labeled “1” is

a.

round, yellow.

c.

wrinkled, yellow.

b.

round, green.

d.

wrinkled, green.

 

 

____          109.           An organism that has inherited two of the same alleles of a gene from its parents is called

a.

hereditary.

c.

homozygous.

b.

heterozygous.

d.

a mutation.

 

 

____          110.           In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant over green seeds. What would be the expected genotype ratio in a cross between a plant with green seeds and a plant that is heterozygous for seed color?

a.

1:3

c.

4:1

b.

1:2:1

d.

1:1

 

 

____          111.           All of the following are true about the structure of DNA except

a.

short strands of DNA are contained in chromosomes inside the nucleus of a cell.

b.

every DNA nucleotide contains a sugar, a phosphate group, and a base.

c.

DNA consists of two strands of nucleotides joined by hydrogen bonds.

d.

the long strands of nucleotides are twisted into a double helix.

 

 

____          112.           Molecules of DNA are composed of long chains of

a.

amino acids.

c.

monosaccharides.

b.

fatty acids.

d.

nucleotides.

 

 

____          113.           Which of the following is not part of a molecule of DNA?

a.

deoxyribose

c.

phosphate

b.

nitrogenous base

d.

ribose

 

 

____          114.           A nucleotide consists of

a.

a sugar, a protein, and adenine.

b.

a sugar, an amino acid, and starch.

c.

a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base.

d.

a starch, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base.

 

 

____          115.           The part of the molecule for which deoxyribonucleic acid is named is the

a.

phosphate group.

b.

sugar.

c.

nitrogen base.

d.

None of the above; DNA is not named after part of the molecule.

 

 

                     

 

____          116.           Refer to the illustration above. The entire molecule shown in the diagram is called a(n)

a.

amino acid.

c.

polysaccharide.

b.

nucleotide.

d.

pyrimidine.

 

 

____          117.           The base-pairing rules state that the following are base pairs in DNA:

a.

adenine—thymine; uracil—cytosine.

b.

adenine—thymine; guanine—cytosine.

c.

adenine—guanine; thymine—cytosine.

d.

uracil—thymine; guanine—cytosine.

 

 

____          118.           ATTG : TAAC ::

a.

AAAT : TTTG

c.

GTCC : CAGG

b.

TCGG : AGAT

d.

CGAA : TGCG

 

 

____          119.           During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made for each original DNA strand. Thus, if a portion of the original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new strand will be

a.

TTGCATG.

c.

CCTAGCT.

b.

AAGTATC.

d.

GGATCGA.

 

 

____          120.           The function of rRNA is to

a.

synthesize DNA.

c.

form ribosomes.

b.

synthesize mRNA.

d.

transfer amino acids to ribosomes.

 

 

____          121.           Which of the following types of RNA carries instructions for making proteins?

a.

mRNA

c.

tRNA

b.

rRNA

d.

All of the above

 

 

____          122.           RNA differs from DNA in that RNA

a.

is sometimes single-stranded.

b.

contains a different sugar molecule.

c.

contains the nitrogen base uracil.

d.

All of the above

 

 

____          123.           Which of the following is not found in DNA?

a.

adenine

c.

uracil

b.

cytosine

d.

None of the above

 

 

____          124.           RNA is chemically similar to DNA except that its sugars have an additional oxygen atom, and the base thymine is replaced by a structurally similar base called

a.

uracil.

c.

cytosine.

b.

alanine.

d.

codon.

 

 

____          125.           In RNA molecules, adenine is complementary to

a.

cytosine.

c.

thymine.

b.

guanine.

d.

uracil.

 

 

mRNA:  CUCAAGUGCUUC

 

Genetic Code:

 

 

____          126.           Refer to the illustration above. What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by the piece of mRNA shown in the diagram?

a.

Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly

c.

Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe

b.

Val—Asp—Pro—His

d.

Pro—Glu—Leu—Val

 

 

____          127.           Which of the following would represent the strand of DNA from which the mRNA strand in the diagram was made?

a.

CUCAAGUGCUUC

c.

GAGTTCACGAAG

b.

GAGUUCACGAAG

d.

AGACCTGTAGGA

 

 

____          128.           Refer to the illustration above. The anticodons for the codons in the mRNA in the diagram are

a.

GAG—UUC—ACG—AAG.

c.

CUC—GAA—CGU—CUU.

b.

GAG—TTC—ACG—AAG.

d.

CUU—CGU—GAA—CUC.

 

 

____          129.           A ribosome has

a.

one binding site for DNA.

b.

three binding sites used during translation.

c.

four binding sites for tRNA.

d.

no binding sites since the proteins must detach.

 

 

____          130.           Suppose that you are given a polypeptide sequence containing the following sequence of amino acids: tyrosine, proline, aspartic acid, isoleucine, and cysteine. Use the portion of the genetic code given in the table below to determine the DNA sequence that codes for this polypeptide sequence.

 

mRNA

Amino acid

UAU, UAC

tyrosine

CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG

proline

GAU, GAC

aspartic acis

AUU, AUC, AUA

isoleucine

UGU, UGC

cysteine

 

 

a.

AUGGGUCUAUAUACG

c.

GCAAACTCGCGCGTA

b.

ATGGGTCTATATACG

d.

ATAGGGCTTTAAACA

 

 

____          131.           Each of the following is a type of RNA except

a.

carrier RNA.

c.

ribosomal RNA.

b.

messenger RNA.

d.

transfer RNA.

 

 

____          132.           Transfer RNA acts as an “interpreter” because it

a.

carries an amino acid to its correct codon.

b.

synthesizes amino acids as they are needed.

c.

produces codons to match the correct anticodons.

d.

converts DNA into mRNA.

 

 

____          133.           In order for protein synthesis to occur, mRNA must migrate to the

a.

ribosomes.

c.

RNA polymerase.

b.

lac operon.

d.

heterochromatin.

 

 

____          134.           During transcription

a.

proteins are synthesized.

c.

RNA is produced.

b.

DNA is replicated.

d.

translation occurs.

 

 

____          135.           Transcription is the process by which genetic information encoded in DNA is transferred to a(n)

a.

RNA molecule.

c.

uracil molecule.

b.

DNA molecule.

d.

transposon.

 

 

____          136.           Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid is called a

a.

mutagen.

c.

anticodon.

b.

codon.

d.

exon.

 

 

____          137.           The X and Y chromosomes are called the

a.

extra chromosomes.

c.

sex chromosomes.

b.

phenotypes.

d.

All of the above

 

 

____          138.           A change in a gene due to damage or being copied incorrectly is called

a.

evolution.

c.

segregation.

b.

meiosis.

d.

a mutation.

 

 

____          139.           A diagram in which several generations of a family and the occurrence of certain genetic characteristics are shown is called a

a.

Punnett square.

c.

pedigree.

b.

monohybrid cross.

d.

family karyotype.

 

 

____          140.           A family record that indicates the occurrence of a trait is a

a.

sonogram.

c.

pedigree.

b.

karyotype.

d.

chromosome map.

 

 

____          141.           What would be the blood type of a person who inherited an A allele from one parent and an O allele from the other?

a.

type A

c.

type AB

b.

type B

d.

type O

 

 

____          142.           Which of the following describes hemophilia?

a.

multiple-allele trait

c.

sex-linked trait

b.

dominant trait

d.

codominant trait

 

 

____          143.           In humans, the risks of passing on a genetic disorder to one’s children can be assessed by

a.

analysis of a pedigree.

c.

prenatal testing.

b.

genetic counseling.

d.

All of the above

 

 

____          144.           Genetic counseling is a process that

a.

helps identify parents at risk for having children with genetic defects.

b.

assists parents in deciding whether or not to have children.

c.

uses a family pedigree.

d.

All of the above

 

 

____          145.           While studying several generations of a particular family, a geneticist observed that a certain disease was found equally in males and females and that all children who had the disease had parents who also had the disease. The gene coding for this disease is probably

a.

sex-linked recessive.

c.

autosomal recessive.

b.

sex-linked dominant.

d.

autosomal dominant.

 

 

____          146.           If a characteristic is sex-linked, it

a.

occurs most commonly in males.

c.

can never occur in females.

b.

occurs only in females.

d.

is always fatal.

 

 

____          147.           Since the allele for colorblindness is located on the X chromosome, colorblindness

a.

cannot be inherited.

c.

is sex-linked.

b.

occurs only in adults.

d.

None of the above

 

 

____          148.           People with Down syndrome have

a.

45 chromosomes.

c.

47 chromosomes.

b.

46 chromosomes.

d.

no X chromosomes.

 


Review

Answer Section

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

            1.   T

 

            2.   F

 

            3.   T

 

            4.   T

 

            5.   F

 

            6.   T

 

            7.   F

 

            8.   T

 

            9.   T

 

            10. F

 

            11. F

 

            12. T

 

            13. T

 

            14. F

 

            15. F

 

            16. T

 

            17. T

 

            18. T

 

            19. F

 

            20. T

 

            21. T

 

            22. T

 

            23. F

 

            24. F

 

            25. F

 

            26. F

 

            27. F

 

            28. F

 

            29. F

 

            30. F

 

            31. T

 

            32. F

 

            33. T

 

            34. T

 

            35. F

 

            36. T

 

            37. F

 

            38. T

 

            39. T

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

            40. C

 

            41. A

 

            42. D

 

            43. D

 

            44. D

 

            45. D

 

            46. D

 

            47. A

 

            48. C

 

            49. A

 

            50. B

 

            51. B

 

            52. D

 

            53. D

 

            54. B

 

            55. B

 

            56. D

 

            57. A

 

            58. B

 

            59. B

 

            60. A

 

            61. B

 

            62. C

 

            63. D

 

            64. D

 

            65. D

 

            66. C

 

            67. B

 

            68. D

 

            69. D

 

            70. D

 

            71. C

 

            72. D

 

            73. B

 

            74. C

 

            75. C

 

            76. B

 

            77. C

 

            78. B

 

            79. C

 

            80. A

 

            81. D

 

            82. C

 

            83. D

 

            84. B

 

            85. C

 

            86. A

 

            87. B

 

            88. C

 

            89. C

 

            90. D

 

            91. B

 

            92. A

 

            93. B

 

            94. A

 

            95. B

 

            96. C

 

            97. A

 

            98. B

 

            99. B

 

            100.               C

 

            101.               B

 

            102.               A

 

            103.               B

 

            104.               D

 

            105.               B

 

            106.               A

 

            107.               D

 

            108.               A

 

            109.               C

 

            110.               D

 

            111.               A

 

            112.               D

 

            113.               D

 

            114.               C

 

            115.               B

 

            116.               B

 

            117.               B

 

            118.               C

 

            119.               D

 

            120.               C

 

            121.               A

 

            122.               D

 

            123.               C

 

            124.               A

 

            125.               D

 

            126.               C

 

            127.               C

 

            128.               A

 

            129.               B

 

            130.               B

 

            131.               A

 

            132.               A

 

            133.               A

 

            134.               C

 

            135.               A

 

            136.               B

 

            137.               C

 

            138.               D

 

            139.               C

 

            140.               C

 

            141.               A

 

            142.               C

 

            143.               D

 

            144.               D

 

            145.               D

 

            146.               A

 

            147.               C

 

            148.               C

 

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