Unit 2 Practice Questions

 

_____1. Which is Not true about the cell theory?
a) Its various parts were described by Schleiden, Schwann, and Virchow.
b) It states that all organisms are composed of cells.
c) It states that all cells come from preexisting cells.
d) It states that bacteria and other small organisms can arise spontaneously.
e) It is accepted today by biologists as applying to virtually all forms of life.

_____2. Which is Not a reason for the small size of cells?
a) As the linear dimensions of a cell increase, the volume increases twice as fast as the surface area.
b) Nutrients and waste must enter and leave the cell through the plasma membrane.
c) The nucleus can only control a certain amount of cytoplasm.
d) Materials must be able to move quickly and efficiently through the cytoplasm.
e) The increase number of organelles requires that eukaryotic cells be smaller than prokaryotic cells.

_____3. A high powered microscope that produces an image from scattered secondary electrons is the
a) immunofluorescence microscope
b) phase contrast light microscope
c) transmission electron microscope (TEM)
d) scanning electron microscope (SEM)
e) confocal microscope

_____4. A microscope that uses antibodies that glow to reveal the location of a protein in a cell is the
a) immunofluorescence microscope
b) phase contrast light microscope
c) transmission electron microscope (TEM)
d) scanning electron microscope (SEM)
e) confocal microscope

_____5. Which statement is Not true about bacteria?
a) Their cell wall is made of a slime layer that is same as in plant cell walls.
b) Some are photosynthetic.
c) Some are chemosynthetic.
d) They are all prokaryotes.
e) All of the above are true.

_____6. Which statement is Not true about bacteria anatomy?
a) The cell wall is located outside the plasma membrane.
b) The gelatinous sheath is located inside the cell wall.
c) There may be small rings of accessory DNA called plasmids.
d) Bacteria may have pili that help attach the bacteria to other structures.
e) All of the above are true.

_____7. Which is Not true of eukaryotic cells?
a) A true nucleus contains the chromosomes.
b) Eukaryotic cells contain membrane bound compartments.
c) They contain ribosomes that are smaller than those of prokaryotic cells.
d) They all contain mitochondria.
e) They contain many organelles in the cytoplasm.

_____8. Cells that do Not produce cell walls are
a) animal cells    b) plant cells    c) bacteria    d) algae

_____9. A eukaryotic organelle that can best be seen with the light microscope is the
a) endoplasmic reticulum    b) nucleus    c) ribosomes    d) polyribosome    e) microtubule

_____10. The nucleus is Not important as the site of
a) DNA synthesis
b) RNA synthesis
c) synthesis of ribosomal subunits
d) protein synthesis
e) All of the above are important.

_____11. Which of these is Not part of the endomembrane system of the cell?
a) mitochondria    b) endoplasmic reticulum    c) lysosomes    d) Golgi complex

_____12. Which is Not true concerning the Golgi complex?
a) It consist of a stack of saccules.
b) Golgi complexes in animal cells have a forming face and a maturing face.
c) Molecules are modified within the lumen of Golgi saccules.
d) Lysosomes are vesicles that bind to enter the Golgi saccules.
e) Golgi apparatus contains enzymes.

_____13. Lysosomes are produced by the
a) vacuoles    b) nucleus    c) mitochondria    d) Golgi apparatus    e) ribosomes

_____14. Membrane bounded vesicles that contain enzymes for oxidizing small organic molecules with the
formation of hydrogen peroxide are
a) vacuoles    b) vesicles    c) glyoxisomes    d) lysosomes    e) peroxisomes

_____15. Which is Not a characteristic of chloroplasts?
a) A chloroplast is surrounded by a double membrane.
b) Chlorophyll absorbs solar energy that is used to form chemical bonds.
c) A membrane inside a chloroplast is called a thylakoid.
d) Stacks called grana are linked by membranous connections.
e) Chlorophylls are found in the fluid stroma of the chloroplast.

_____16. Which is Not a characteristic of mitochondria?
a) A mitochondrion has two membranes.
b) Mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration.
c) Mitochondria are found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
d) Mitochondria contain DNA and ribosomes.
e) The inner space of the mitochondrion contains a fluid matrix.

_____17. Which cytoskeletal element is Not correctly associated with its characteristic?
a) Cilia are small extensions of membrane surrounded microtubules.
b) Microtubules are made up of a globular protein called tubulin.
c) Centrioles are found in the microtubule organizing centers of plants.
d) Flagella have a 9 + 2 pattern of microtubule structure.
e) Basal bodies are located at the base of cilia and flagella.

_____18. Actin filaments are
a) also known as microtubules.
b) able to assemble and disassemble from component proteins.
c) intermediate in size between microtubules and microfilaments.
d) made of different kinds of components in different tissue.

_____19. The cells that line our respiratory tract, and one celled paramecia both have these short hair like projections.
a) flagella    b) microfilaments    c) centrioles    d) cilia    e) pili

_____20. From your knowledge of the function of lysosomes, the pH of lysosomes is likely to be
a) highly variable    b) 5    c) precisely neutral or 7    d) 9    e) 12

_____21. Which of these best distinguishes a prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic cell?
a) Prokaryotic cells have a cell wall, but eukaryotic cells never do.
b) Prokaryotic cells are much larger than eukaryotic cells.
c) Prokaryotic cells have flagella, but eukaryotic cells do not.
d) Prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane bounded nucleus, but eukaryotic cells do have such a nucleus.
e) Prokaryotic cells have ribosomes but eukaryotic cells do not have ribosomes.

_____22. Which organelle would Not have originated by endosymbiosis?
a) mitochondria      b) nucleus        c) flagella              d) chloroplasts               e) Both B and C are correct.

_____23. Which of these is Not found in the nucleus?
a) functioning of ribosomes
b) chromatin that condenses to chromosomes
c) nucleolus that produces rRNA
d) nucleoplasm instead of cytoplasm
e) all forms of RNA

_____24. Vesicles from the smooth ER most likely are on their way to the
a) rough ER
b) lysosomes
c) Golgi apparatus
d) plant cell vacuole only
e) location suitable to their size

_____25. Lysosomes function in
a) protein synthesis
b) processing and packaging
c) intracellular digestion
d) lipid synthesis
e) production of hydrogen peroxide

_____26. Mitochondria
a) are involved in cellular respiration
b) break down ATP to release energy for cells
c) contain grana and cristae
d) are present in animal but not in plant cells
e) All of these are correct.

_____27. Which of these organelles releases oxygen?
a) ribosomes    b) Golgi apparatus    c) mitochondria    d) chloroplast    e) smooth ER

_____28. Which of these is Not true?
a) Actin filaments are found in muscle cells.
b) Microtubules radiate out from the ER.
c) Intermediate filaments sometimes contain keratin.
d) Motor molecules use microtubules as tracts.
e) Eukaryotic cells without centrosomes still produce a spindle.

_____29. Cilia and flagella
a) bend when microtubules try to slide past one another
b) contain myosin that pulls on actin filaments
c) are organized by basal bodies derived from centrioles
d) are constructed similarly in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
e) Both a and c are correct.

_____30. Which of the following organelles modifies and packages for secretion the materials produced by the ribosomes?
a) the chloroplast
b) the Golgi apparatus
c) the nucleus
d) the nucleolus
e) the mitochondria

_____31. A student using a light microscope observes a cell and correctly decides that it is a plant cell because
a) ribosomes are visible
b) an endoplasmic reticulum can be seen
c) a cell membrane is present
d) it has a large central vacuole
e) centrioles are present

_____32. Destruction of microfilaments would most adversely affect which of the following?
a) cell division    b) cilia    c) flagella    d) muscular contraction    e) chitin

_____33. Which of the following best supports the statement that mitochondria are descendants
of endosymbiotic bacteria like cells?
a) Mitochondria and bacteria possess similar ribosomes and DNA.
b) Mitochondria and bacteria possess similar nuclei.
c) Glycolysis occurs in both mitochondria and bacteria.
d) Both mitochondria and bacteria have microtubules.
e) Neither mitochondria nor bacteria possess chloroplasts.

_____34. Membranes are components of all the following Except a
a) microtubule     b) nucleus    c) Golgi apparatus    d) mitochondria    e) lysosome

_____35. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?
a) a membrane bound nucleus
b) a cell wall made of cellulose
c) ribosomes
d) flagella or cilia that contain microtubules
e) linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein

_____36. Which of the following is best observed by using a compound light microscope?
a) a eukaryotic cell
b) a virus
c) a DNA sequence
d) the inner structure of a mitochondria
e) a nuclear pore

_____37. Which of the following cells would most likely have the greatest concentration of
densely packed rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a) an amoeba engulfing small ciliates
b) a bioluminescent bacterial cell
c) a pancreatic cell engaged in the production of digestive enzymes
d) a functional phloem cell at maturity
e) an epithelial cell whose DNA is replicating before mitosis

_____38. Which of the following structures are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a) cell membrane and chloroplasts
b) DNA and ribosomes
c) cell walls and nuclear envelope
d) flagella and endoplasmic reticulum
e) Golgi complex and mitochondria

_____39. Which of the following is a function of the Golgi complex?
a) protein synthesis
b) ribosome synthesis
c) DNA replication
d) Ca2+ storage in muscle cells
e) modifying and packaging of proteins and lipids into vesicles

_____40. Which of the following cellular bodies contain enzymes for breaking down macromolecules?
a) desmosomes    b) lysosomes    c) nucleosomes    d) peroxisomes    e) ribosomes

_____41. Vesicles derived from the Golgi apparatus that contain hydrolytic digestive enzymes are
a) ribosomes    b) lysosomes    c) mitochondria    d) chloroplasts    e) microbodies

_____42. Which of the following pairs of structures can be seen in the low power field of a compound microscope?
a) mitochondria and Golgi body
b) cell wall and chloroplasts
c) ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum
d) lysosomes and genes
e) mitochondria and ribosomes

_____43. Which of the following organelles is known to produce the organelle that hosts protein synthesis?
a) nucleoid    b) nucleolus    c) rough endoplasmic reticulum    d) Golgi apparatus    e) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

_____44. If the ribosomes in a cell ceased to function, which of the following would occur in a cell?
a) antibody production would increase
b) mitosis would proceed uncontrollably
c) rate of glucose transport in the cytoplasm would increase
d) the sodium-potassium pump would spontaneously start, creating an ionic imbalance between the intercellular and extracellular fluids
e) enzyme production would cease

_____45. Which of the following does Not have a membrane?
a) Golgi apparatus    b) nucleus    c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum    d) microfilament    e) rough endoplasmic reticulum

_____46. Which of the following organelles is Not matched with its corresponding function?
a) ribosomes - protein synthesis
b) nucleolus - ribosome production
c) Golgi apparatus - secretion of products
d) microtubules - muscular contraction
e) lysosomes - digestion

_____47. Organelles that are Not part of the endomembrane system, and therefore do Not take part in
cellular secretions, include which of the following?
a) smooth ER    b) rough ER    c) peroxisomes    d) Golgi apparatus    e) lysosomes

_____48. The destruction of which of the following would most effect cilia?
a) microfilaments    b) microtubules    c) intermediate filaments    d) smooth ER    e) rough ER

_____49. Which of the following characteristics would allow you to distinguish a prokaryotic cell from an animal cell?
a) ribosomes    b) cell membrane    c) chloroplasts    d) cell wall     e) large central vacuoles

_____50. Which of the following is an Incorrect pairing of an organelle with its function?
a) cytoskeleton - consists of three types of fibers that provide support, shape, and mobility to cells
b) chloroplast - host organelle for photosynthesis
c) peroxisomes - organelle that produces H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) as a byproduct
d) vacuole - storage organelle
e) lysosome - organelle that modifies proteins and sugars after their creation

_____51. Which of the following structures would differentiate a plant cell from an animal cell?
a) ribosomes     b) plasma membrane    c) nucleolus     d) centrioles     e) microtubules

_____52. Which of the following structures is present in All eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
a) Golgi apparatus    b) nucleus     c) cell wall     d) lysosome     e) ribosome

_____1. The major functions of the plasma membrane do Not include
a) separation of the fluid environments inside and outside the cell.
b) regulation of molecules and ions that pass into and out of the cell.
c) recognition and communication between different cells and tissues.
d) maintaining connections between adjacent cells
e) production of proteins used in construction of the cell wall.

_____2. When plant cells are exposed to a hypertonic solution they ____ and exhibit the
phenomenon called _____.
a) expand, plasmolysis
b) shrink, plasmolysis
c) expand, turgor pressure
d) shrink, turgor pressure
e) remain the same, crenation

_____3. The current theory of the structure of the plasma membrane is best described by the _______ model.
a) sandwich    b) fluid-mosaic    c) unit membrane    d) electrochemical    e) unipermeable

_____4. In a phospholipid bilayer, the
a) phosphate groups are hydrophobic.
b) fatty acids tails are ionized.
c) fatty acid tails are hydrophilic
d) proteins are located only between the two layers.
e) phosphate heads are oriented toward the exterior of the cell or toward the cytoplasm.

_____5. Which statement is True about the plasma membrane?
a) The proteins make up the matrix of the membrane.
b) The model can be likened to a sandwich where phospholipids are like the bread and proteins are like the filling.
c) The fluid nature of the membrane is regulated by flip-flopping of the phospholipids from one side of the
    membrane to the other.
d) Movement of proteins and phospholipids can occur sideways within the plane of the membrane.

_____6. Which statement is Not true about the proteins in the plasma membrane?
a) Proteins may be attached to the inner surface of the plasma membrane.
b) The hydrophobic portion of a protein is embedded within the membrane.
c) Some plasma proteins are connected to cytoskeletal filaments.
d) Plasma proteins are responsible for membrane functions.
e) Glycoproteins contain carbohydrate chains that are oriented toward the inner surface of the membrane.

_____7. Which phrase does Not describe one of the functions of proteins of the plasma membrane?
a) forming a channel through the membrane
b) initiating the replication of the genetic material
c) binding to a substance to carry it through the membrane
d) acting as a receptor for substances external to the cell
e) increasing the rate of a chemical reaction

_____8. Red blood cells come in many "blood types" including type A , type B, type AB, Type O, Rh positive and
Rh negative and many others. If blood is transfused, the recipient detects any new or "foreign" proteins.
These blood type proteins are
a) in the plasma where they have been secreted by the red blood cells.
b) inside the red blood cell cytoplasm.
c) on the outer surface of the red blood cell membrane.
d) evenly distributed throughout the cell contents and plasma.
e) in the red blood cell nucleus.

_____9. Whether a molecule can cross the plasma membrane depends upon
a) the size of the molecule
b) the shape of the molecule
c) the chemical properties of the molecule
d) the charge of the molecule
e) All of the above.

_____10. Which is the Best definition of diffusion?
a) movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration
b) movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area
    of lower water concentration.
c) movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to and area of their higher concentration.
d) movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low water concentration to an area
    of higher water concentration.
e) movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP.

_____11. Which is the Best definition of osmosis?
a) movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration
b) movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area
    of lower water concentration.
c) movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to and area of their higher concentration.
d) movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low water concentration to an area
    of higher water concentration.
e) movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP.

_____12. Plants show turgor pressure when
a) cells are losing water from their water vacuoles.
b) cells contain water vacuoles that are full of water.
c) water is being used up in photosynthesis.
d) water is being evaporated from the leaves.

_____13. If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, which will occur?
a) Salts will move into the cell from the surrounding solution.
b) Water will move into the cell from the surrounding solution.
c) Salts will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution.
d) Water will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution.
e) None of the above will occur.

_____14. If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, which will occur?
a) Salts will move into the cell from the surrounding solution.
b) Water will move into the cell from the surrounding solution.
c) Salts will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution.
d) Water will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution.
e) None of the above will occur.

_____15. If a cell is placed in an isotonic solution, which will occur?
a) Salts will move into the cell from the surrounding solution.
b) Water will move into the cell from the surrounding solution.
c) Salts will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution.
d) Water will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution.
e) None of the above will occur.

_____16. Freshwater protozoans react to a/an _______ environment by removing water through _____.
a) hypertonic, turgor pressure
b) hypotonic, turgor pressure
c) isotonic, a contractile vacuole
d) hypertonic, a contractile vacuole
e) hypotonic, a contractile vacuole

_____17. ______ is a shrinking of the cytoplasm due to osmosis.
a) Plasmolysis    b) Endocytosis    c) Crenation    d) Diffusion    e) Turgor

_____18. Which is the Best definition of active transport?
a) movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration
b) movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area
    of lower water concentration.
c) movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to and area of their higher concentration.
d) movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low water concentration to an area
    of higher water concentration.
e) movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP.

_____19. The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane by
a) facilitated transport    b) active transport    c) cotransport    d) endocytosis    e) exocytosis

_____20. Sugar and amino acids are carried into the cell by membrane proteins by means of
a) facilitated transport    b) active transport    c) cotransport    d) endocytosis    e) exocytosis

_____21. The process by which cholesterol is transported into the cell by binding of LDL, to its receptor and the
internalization of the receptor-LDL complex is
a) facilitated transport    b) active transport    c) cotransport    d) endocytosis    e) exocytosis

_____22. Which term is derived from the Greek root word meaning "out of cell"?
a) osmosis    b) endocytosis    c) tonicity    d) diffusion    e) exocytosis

_____23. Cell products are secreted from the cell through
a) facilitated transport    b) active transport    c) cotransport    d) endocytosis    e) exocytosis

_____24. Pinocytosis is an example of
a) facilitated transport    b) passive transport    c) cotransport    d) endocytosis    e) exocytosis

_____25. Which is Not true about plant cell walls?
a) All plant cells have a primary cell wall.
b) Primary cell walls contain cellulose and hemicellulose.
c) Secondary cell walls are located just outside the primary cell wall.
d) Secondary cell walls occur only in woody plants.
e) Cell walls are penetrated by extensions of cytoplasm that connect adjacent cells' cytoplasm.

_____26. Eukaryotic cells are substantially larger than bacteria cells and average over 20 times more volume
per surface area than bacteria cells. How can the eukaryotic cell membrane provide this higher rate
of exchange of materials?
a) Plasma membrane folds increase the surface area.
b) Carrier proteins speed the rate at which a solute crosses the plasma membrane in the direction of
    decreasing concentration.
c) Mitochondria are concentrated near membranes to provide energy for active transport of molecules or ions.
d) Large molecules are engulfed by vesicle formation.
e) All of the above are true.

_____27. A phospholipid molecule has a head and two tails. The tails are found
a) at the surface of the membrane
b) in the interior of the membrane
c) spanning the membrane
d) where the environment is hydrophilic
e) Both a and b are correct.

_____28. During diffusion
a) solvents move from the area of higher to lower concentration but not the solutes.
b) there is a net movement of molecules from an area of higher to lower concentration.
c) a cell must be present for any movement of molecules to occur.
d) molecules move against their concentration gradient if they are small or charged.
e) All of these are correct.

_____29. Active transport
a) requires a carrier protein.
b) moves a molecule against its concentration gradient.
c) requires a supply of chemical energy.
d) does not occur during facilitated transport.
e) All of these are correct.

_____30. The sodium potassium pump
a) helps establish an electrochemical gradient across the membrane.
b) concentrates sodium on the outside of the membrane.
c) utilizes a carrier protein and chemical energy.
d) is present in the plasma membrane
e) All of these are correct.

_____31. Which of the following forms of cell transport requires the input of energy?
a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) facilitated diffusion
d) movement of a solute down its concentrated gradient
e) active transport

_____32. Among the following choices, which one would most readily move through a
selectively permeable membrane?
a) small uncharged polar molecules
b) protein hormone
c) large uncharged polar molecules
d) glucose
e) sodium ion

_____33. Which of the following requires the input of energy?
a) osmosis
b) facilitated diffusion
c) diffusion
d) sodium potassium pump
e) movement of water down its concentration gradient

_____34. A cell is placed into a hypertonic environment and its cytoplasm shrivels up.
This demonstrates the principle of
a) photolysis    b) diffusion    c) active transport    d) facilitated diffusion    e) plasmolysis

_____35. Which structures are important to the permeability of a cell membrane?
a) microfilaments    b) cell walls    c) ribosomes    d) monosaccharides    e) integral proteins

_____36. Which of the following substances is most likely to pass through a selectively permeable plasma membrane?
a) O2    b) K+    c) glucose    d) NH3    e) starch

_____37. All of the following processes transport mechanisms into a cell Except
a) phagocytosis  b) contractile vacuoles  c) porin channels  d) receptor mediated endocytosis   e) pinocytosis

_____38. Sodium and potassium pass through the neural membrane by
a) movement through channels    b) endocytosis    c) diffusion    d) passive transport    e) phagocytosis

_____39. ATP is required for all of the following processes Except
a) active transport by transport proteins
b) facilitated diffusion
c) microtubule movement within flagella
d) Na+/K+ pump activity
e) protein synthesis

_____40. All of the following can be found in plasma membranes of eukaryotes Except
a) cellulose    b) phospholipids    c) oligosaccharides    d) proteins    e) cholesterol molecules

_____41. All of the following are typical components of the plasma membrane of a eukaryotic cell Except
a) glycoproteins    b) cytochromes    c) cholesterol    d) phospholipids    e) integral proteins

_____42. Which of the following cellular process is coupled with the hydrolysis of ATP
a) facilitated diffusion
b) active transport
c) chemiosmosis
d) osmosis
e) Na+ influx into a nerve cell

_____43. Facilitated diffusion
a) is a type of passive transport
b) moves molecules down the concentration gradient
c) is made possible by specific molecules within the membrane
d) requires no expenditure of energy
e) All of the above apply.

_____44. Which of the following molecules or ions move across membranes by active transport?
a) glucose    b) Na+ (sodium)    c) water    d) ATP    e) starch

_____45. The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane in response to a
concentration gradient exerts a force which is called
a) force of diffusion    b) hypertonic    c) plasmogamy    d) osmotic pressure    e) cytotaxis

_____46.  The difference between osmotic pressure and physical pressure on either side of a
selectively permeable membrane is called
a) force of diffusion   b) water potential   c) workload   d) environmental resistance    e) carrying capacity

_____47. The theoretical model of membrane structure proposed by Singer and Nicholson
in 1972 is called the _____ model.
a) carpal tunnel    b) rigid tile    c) flexible sheet    d) expandable bubble    e) fluid mosaic

_____48. When plant cells are exposed to a hypotonic solution they ____ and exhibit the
phenomenon called _____.
a) expand, plasmolysis
b) shrink, plasmolysis
c) expand, turgor pressure
d) shrink, turgor pressure
e) remain the same, crenation

_____1. Which of these processes occurs in the cytosol?
a) the Krebs cycle                                        c) glycolysis
b) the electron transport system                    d) the transition reaction

_____2. Complete oxidative breakdown of glucose results in ____ ATP molecules.
a) 2    b) 4    c) 32    d) 36    e) 39

_____3. The transition reaction breaks
a) glucose into pyruvates
b) pyruvates into glucose
c) pyruvates into acetyl-CoA and carbon dioxide
d) pyruvates into acetyl-CoA and water
e) acetyl-CoA into pyruvates and carbon dioxide

_____4. The first reaction in the Krebs cycle is binding
a) carbon dioxide to a four carbon molecule
b) carbon dioxide to a five carbon molecule
c) acetyl-CoA to a four carbon molecule
d) acetyl-CoA to a five carbon molecule

_____5. Glycolysis yields about ___ of the energy in glucose in ATP molecules.
a) 2%    b) 15%    c) 28%    d) 39%

_____6. The process based on the Greek root words for "sweet" and "dissolve" is
a) metabolism    b) glycolysis    c) phosphorylation    d) fermentation    e) chemiosmosis

_____7. The first process in breaking down glucose is
a) glycolysis
b) the electron transport system
c) the Krebs cycle
d) fermentation
e) the transition reaction

_____8. Which process produces both NADH and FADH2?
a) glycolysis
b) the electron transport system
c) the Krebs cycle
d) fermentation
e) the transition reaction

_____9. Which process produces alcohol or lactate?
a) glycolysis
b) the electron transport system
c) the Krebs cycle
d) fermentation
e) the transition reaction

_____10. Which process reduces molecular oxygen to water?
a) glycolysis
b) the electron transport system
c) the Krebs cycle
d) fermentation
e) the transition reaction

_____11. Which process involves the chemiosmotic phosphorylation?
a) glycolysis
b) the electron transport system
c) the Krebs cycle
d) fermentation
e) the transition reaction

_____12. Which connects glycolysis with the final stages of the aerobic pathway?
a) glycolysis
b) the electron transport system
c) the Krebs cycle
d) fermentation
e) the transition reaction

_____13. The large number of ATPs produced are
a) embedded in the cristae membranes and diffuse both directions
b) inside the mitochondria matrix and diffuse out through the membrane
c) inside the mitochondria matrix and leave through a channel protein
d) outside the mitochondria and diffuse out through the membrane
e) outside the mitochondria and enter through a channel protein

_____14. The enzymes of the electron transport chain are bound to the surface of the cristae. The cristae
are folded inward in order to
a) decrease the intermembrane space
b) increase diffusion surface for glycolysis
c) separate the products from the substrate in the Krebs cycle
d) form a battery like "cells" for the electron transport chain
e) reduce the distance the FADH2 and NADH has to travel, and place the products of one reaction
    near the enzymes for the next reaction

_____15. Compared to other cell components (organelles, cell membrane or nucleus), the mitochondria
would be the only fraction that would
a) form an electrochemical gradient across a membrane
b) use significant amounts of oxygen
c) use a chemiosmotic complex to produce ATP
d) produce ATP via glycolysis
e) release protons (H+)

_____16. One turn of the Krebs cycle produces
a) 2 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP
b) 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP
c) 1 NADH, 3 FADH2, 2 ATP
d) 3 NADH, 2 FADH2, 1 ATP
e) 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 2 ATP

_____17. Acetyl-CoA is produced from
a) pyruvate and a coenzyme
b) citric acid and a coenzyme
c) ATP and pyruvate
d) carbon dioxide and pyruvate
e) citric acid and carbon dioxide

_____18. The carbon dioxide (CO2) we exhale is produced in
a) glycolysis                                   c) the electron transport system
b) lactate fermentation                    d) the Krebs cycle

_____19. The primary energy carrier between the Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is
a) NADH    b) ADP    c) FADH2    d) water (H2O)    e) carbon dioxide (CO2)

_____20. About ___ of the energy in the glucose molecule is captured in ATP through the reactions
of cellular respiration.
a) 12%    b) 26%    c) 39%    d) 57%    e) 84%

_____21. Which process must occur before fermentation?
a) the Krebs cycle
b) glycolysis
c) fermentation
d) the electron transport system
e) the transition reaction

_____22. The critical factor driving yeast to use fermentation to metabolize sugar is
a) inability to carry on glycolysis
b) lack of oxygen
c) lack of any enzymes
d) that the yeast is intolerant to alcohol
e) that yeast can secure 38 ATP molecules from fermentation

_____23. Which of these pairs of processes are anaerobic?
a) fermentation and glycolysis
b) fermentation and the Krebs cycle
c) glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
d) the Krebs cycle and the electron transport system
e) glycolysis and the electron transport system

_____24. Degradative reactions
a) cause death
b) can drive anabolism
c) tend to be endergonic
d) include the build up of products such as complex proteins and nucleic acids
e) All of the above are true.

_____25. For fatty acids to be able to enter the pathways of cellular respiration, they must be
a) deaminated
b) combined with glycerol
c) combined with ATP
d) broken into acetyl groups
e) be converted into five carbon sugars

_____26. Adult humans cannot synthesize ____ out of ____ acids.
a) eleven, twenty
b) nine, eleven
c) nine, twenty
d) any, twenty
e) half, all

_____27. The amino acids we cannot synthesize are called ____ because we _____.
a) unnecessary, therefore do not need them
b) limiting, must be included in our diet
c) anabolic, must use alternative amino acids
d) essential, must be included in our diet
e) superfluous, must survive without them

_____28. Which of the following occurs in both cellular respiration and photosynthesis?
a) Calvin cycle    b) Chemiosmosis    c) Citric acid cycle    d) Krebs cycle    e) Glycolysis

_____29. What is the cause of cramps you feel in your muscles during strenuous exercise?
a) Lactic acid fermentation
b) Alcohol fermentation
c) Chemiosmotic coupling
d) Too much oxygen delivery to the muscles
e) Oxidative phosphorylation

_____30. Which of the following statements is Incorrect?
a) Glycolysis can occur with or without oxygen
b) Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria
c) Glycolysis is the first step in both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
d) Glycolysis leads to the production of 4 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvate.

_____31. Which of the following molecules can give rise to the most ATP?
a) NADH    b) FADH2    c) Pyruvate    d) Glucose

_____32. What is the value of the alcohol fermentation pathway?
a) It produces ATP
b) It produces lactate (or lactic acid)
c) It produces ADP for the electron transport chain
d) It replenishes carbon dioxide for the dark reaction
e) It replenishes NAD+ so that glycolysis can produce ATP

_____33. What is the purpose of oxygen (O2) in aerobic respiration?
a) Oxygen accepts electrons at the end of the electron transport chain.
b) Oxygen is necessary to carry away the waste carbon dioxide.
c) Oxygen is used in the formation of sugar molecules.
d) The oxygen molecule becomes part of the ATP molecule.
e) Oxygen donates H+ used in the formation of NADH.

_____34. The greatest contributor of electrons to the electron transport system is
a) oxygen    b) glycolysis    c) the Krebs cycle    d) the transition reaction    e) fermentation

_____35. Substrate level phosphorylation takes place in
a) glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
b) the electron transport system and the transition reaction
c) glycolysis and the electron transport system
d) the Krebs cycle and the transition reaction
e) Both B and D are correct.

_____36. Which of these is Not true of fermentation?
a) net gain of only two ATP
b) occurs in the cytosol
c) NADH donates electrons to electron transport system
d) begins with glycolysis
e) carried on by yeast

_____37. Fatty acids are broken down to
a) pyruvate molecules, which take electrons to electron transport system
b) acetyl groups, which enter the Krebs cycle
c) amino acids, which excrete ammonia
d) glycerol, which is found in fats
e) All of these are correct.

_____38. The enzyme ATP synthase is responsible for making ATP and is found in large quantities embedded in mitochondrial
and chloroplast membranes. Peter Mitchell proposed the idea of chemiosmosis to help explain ATP synthesis. Choose the
answer that best completes the following sentence: Hydrogen ions are driven from the mitochondrial ____ to the inner membrane
space by the power of the _____ and then flow down a gradient through ATP synthase, phosphorylating ADP to produce ATP.
a) cristae; ATP
b) matrix; ATP
c) cristae; electron transport chain
d) matrix; electron transport chain
e) matrix; cristae

_____39. Which of the following reactions occurs in the mitochondria?
a) transcription    b) glycolysis    c) Calvin cycle    d) Krebs cycle    e) light reactions

_____40. Most of the ATP made during cellular respiration is generated by
a) glycolysis.
b) intermediate transport steps.
c) the Krebs cycle.
d) oxidative phosphorylation.
e) photophosphorylation

_____41. The product(s) of alcohol fermentation is (are)
a) lactic acid    b) ethanol    c) ADP    d) NADH    e) Both ADP and NADH.

_____42. At the end of glycolysis, each molecule of glucose has yielded 2 molecules of _____,
2 molecules of ____, and a net of 2 molecules of _____.
a) lactic acid; NADH; ATP
b) ethanol; NAD+; ATP
c) pyruvate; NADH; ADP
d) pyruvate; NAD+; ADP
e) pyruvate; NADH; ATP

_____43. In anaerobic cells, the ratio of pyruvate/lactate is much less than 1, while under aerobic
conditions the ratio of pyruvate/lactate is much greater than 1 because
a) pyruvate is the oxidizing agent in the formation of NAD+ from NADH.
b) lactic acid can only be generated under anaerobic conditions required for ADP regeneration.
c) pyruvate decomposes to lactate under anaerobic conditions.
d) pyruvate is converted to carbon dioxide under anaerobic conditions.
e) mitochondria prefer lactic acid to pyruvate for cellular respiration pathways.

_____44. Chemiosmosis occurs in
a) mitochondria only
b) nuclei only
c) ribosomes only
d) chloroplasts only
e) In both mitochondria and chloroplasts.

_____45. Which of the following is Not a Net product of glycolysis or the Krebs cycle?
a) pyruvate    b) NADH    c) ATP    d) CO2    e) NAD+

_____46. Oxygen is required for aerobic respiration because it is
a) an activator for pyruvate kinase.
b) the reducing agent in the electron transport chain.
c) the oxidizing agent in the electron transport chain.
d) the oxidizing agent for acetyl CoA.
e) the reducing agent for acetyl CoA.

_____47. Which of the following results in the creation of the most ATP?
a) Krebs cycle    b) Calvin cycle    c) oxidative phosphorylation    d) fermentation    e) glycolysis

_____48. When oxygen becomes unavailable, this process regenerates NAD+, allowing respiration to continue.
a) glycolysis    b) chemiosmosis    c) fermentation    d) Calvin cycle    e) photolysis

_____49. This process leads to the net production of two pyruvate, two ATP, and two NADH.
a) glycolysis    b) chemiosmosis    c) fermentation    d) Calvin cycle    e) photolysis

_____50. This process couples the production of ATP with the movement of electrons down the
electron transport chain by harnessing the driving force created by a proton gradient.
a) glycolysis    b) chemiosmosis    c) fermentation    d) Calvin cycle    e) photolysis

_____51. Which of the following statements is True about phosphofructokinase?
a) It is stimulated by ATP.
b) It is stimulated by citrate.
c) Acetyl CoA is one of its substrates.
d) Fructose phosphate is one of its products.
e) Fructose bisphosphate is one of its products.

_____52. Glucose can be broken down in both alcoholic fermentation and cellular respiration.
How many times more efficient is cellular respiration than alcoholic fermentation?
a) 2 times
b) 9 times
c) 18 times
d) 34 times
e) It is not - fungi are the most efficient consumers known to man.

_____53. During respiration, most ATP is formed as a direct result of the net movement of
a) potassium against a concentration gradient.
b) protons down a concentrated gradient.
c) electrons against a concentrated gradient.
d) electrons through a channel.
e) sodium ions into a cell.

_____54. The products of glycolysis are
a) 2 ATP and 2 NADH
b) 2 ATP and 1 NADH
c) 2 ATP and 2 NAD+
d) 2 ADP and 2 NADH
e) 2 ADP and 2 NAD+

_____55. Which of the following pathways for the transformation of cellular energy most likely evolved first?
a) cyclic photophosphorylation
b) citric acid (Krebs) cycle
c) Calvin cycle
d) C4 photosynthesis
e) glycolysis

_____56. Glycolysis occurs
a) in the ribosomes.                                                          c) in the cytoplasm.
b) in the intercellular matrix of the mitochondria.                d) on the inner surface of the plasma membrane.

_____57. The process in which CO2 is released as a by product of oxidation-reduction reactions.
a) glycolysis
b) Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle)
c) Calvin cycle
d) light dependent reactions of photosynthesis
e) chemiosmosis

_____58. Process in which sugar is oxidized to produce pyruvic acid or pyruvate.
a) glycolysis
b) Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle)
c) Calvin cycle
d) light dependent reactions of photosynthesis
e) chemiosmosis

_____59. When ATP is produced in mitochondria, all of the following occur Except
a) Water is formed from O2, electrons, and H+.
b) NADH is converted to NAD+ and H+.
c) Protons are pumped out of the mitochondria.
d) An electrochemical gradient is established across mitochondrial membranes.
e) A pH gradient is established across mitochondrial membranes.

_____60. During cellular respiration, ATP is generated by all of the following Except
a) glycolysis
b) oxidative phosphorylation
c) the Calvin-Benson cycle or Calvin cycle
d) biochemical pathways occurring in the cytoplasm
e) biochemical pathways occurring in the mitochondria

_____1. What are the products of photosynthesis?
a) water and carbon dioxide                              c) water and oxygen
b) oxygen and carbohydrate                              d) carbohydrate and water

_____2. What organisms are capable of photosynthesis?
a) plants only                                                c) plants and algae only
b) plants and some bacteria only                   d) plants, algae, and some bacteria

_____3. Sunlight arrives at a plant in units of light energy called
a) protons    b) photons    c) electrons    d) wavelengths

_____4. The Greek root that means "light" is
a) synthesis    b) logos    c) kytos    d) phos    e) elektr A

_____5. Which statement is Not true about sunlight?
a) Gamma rays are shorter than the wavelengths of visible light.
b) Only the visible portion of sunlight is used in photosynthesis.
c) Photons of ultraviolet light contain low energy, and so are harmless to cells.
d) Shorter wavelengths of radiation contain more energy than longer wavelengths.
e) Radio waves have longer wavelengths than go gamma rays.

_____6. Which of these is Not a major photosynthetic pigment in plants?
a) chlorophyll "a"    b) chlorophyll "b"    c) chlorophyll "c"    d) carotenoid pigments

_____7. Why are plants green?
a) They absorb only green wavelengths of light.
b) They absorb only yellow and blue wavelengths of light.
c) They reflect nearly all wavelengths of light.
d) They reflect green wavelengths of light.
e) They reflect yellow and blue wavelengths of light.

_____8. The term "chloroplast" is derived in part from the Greek root that means
a) plant    b) light    c) green    d) photosynthetic    e) oxygen

_____9. To what does the term stroma refer?
a) the double membrane of the chloroplasts
b) a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast
c) a central fluid filled space in the chloroplast
d) the cytochrome system in the membranes of the thylakoids
e) a stack of thylakoid membrane structures

_____10. To what does the term grana refer?
a) the cytochrome system in the membranes of the thylakoids
b) a central fluid filled space in the chloroplast
c) a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast
d) the double membrane of the chloroplasts
e) a stack of thylakoid membrane structures

_____11. Which of these is most closely associated with the process of electron transport?
a) a stack of thylakoid membrane structures
b) a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast
c) the double membrane of the chloroplasts
d) the cytochrome system in the membranes of the thylakoids
e) a central fluid filled space in the chloroplast

_____12. Which statement is Not true about photosystems?
a) Photosystem I passes electron on to photosystem II.
b) Each photosystem contains numerous pigment molecules that act as antennas to capture light.
c) Photosystem I contains a reaction center molecule that absorbs light best around 700 nm, so
    it is called P700.
d) Electrons in the reaction center molecule are excited by absorbing photons of light and are passed
    along to an acceptor molecule.

_____13. Protons (H+) accumulate in the thylakoid space during electron transport between
 photosystem I and II. The excess protons in the thylakoid space
a) enters the photorespiration pathway.
b) converts NADP to NADPH and generates ATP in the process.
c) is small enough to diffuse back out through the lipid bilayer.
d) raises the pH of the space until the processes stop.
e) moves from the thylakoid space to the stroma through an ATP synthase complex channel
    that generates ATP

_____14. Which statement is Not true about the cyclic electron pathway?
a) It produces ATP.
b) It involves Photosystem I.
c) It produces NADPH.
d) It is believed to be the first of the two electron transport pathways to have developed.

_____15. Which statement is Not true about the noncyclic electron pathway?
a) It absorbs photons into Photosystem I.
b) It absorbs photons into Photosystem II.
c) It produces ATP.
d) It produces NADPH.
e) It produces carbohydrates through carbon dioxide fixation.

_____16. Which is Not true about photosynthesis?
a) In the noncyclic photophosphorylation, water is split and oxygen is released.
b) Photosystem II makes noncyclic photophosphorylation more efficient than does
    cyclic photophosphorylation.
c) The cyclic system is used when there is insufficient NADP+ present to absorb
    electrons in plants cells.
d) More carbohydrate is produced during cyclic photophosphorylation than during
    noncyclic photophosphorylation.

_____17. Which is most closely associated with the Calvin cycle?
a) ATP production
b) oxygen production
c) carbon dioxide fixation
d) carbon dioxide production
e) removal of electrons from water for passage through an electron transport system

_____18. The end product of the Calvin cycle is
a) ATP
b) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
c) phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL)
d) PEP carboxylase (PEPcase)
e) carbon dioxide

_____19. When the stomates in a leaf close, then
a) carbon dioxide in the air spaces in the leaf decreases.
b) oxygen in the air spaces in the leaf increases.
c) C3 plants carry on photorespiration. using oxygen and producing PGA and carbon dioxide.
d) all photosystems as well as photorespiration come to a halt.
e) A, B, and C are correct.

_____20. The major enzyme that catalyzes the reduction of carbon dioxide is called
a) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)    b) phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL)    c) PEP carboxylase (PEPcase)

_____21. The first event in the Calvin cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to the five carbon
    RuBP molecule, which
a) forms a six carbon molecule that immediately breaks  down into two three carbon PGA molecules.
b) is a reaction assisted by large quantities of RuBP carboxylase enzyme.
c) decreases cell carbon dioxide levels, which increases the diffusion gradient.
d) immediately becomes a six carbon sugar that is the base for starch, sucrose, cellulose, etc.
e) A, B, and C are correct.

_____22. Most food plants, such as wheat, oats, and rice, are in the group of
a) CAM plants    b) C3 plants    c) C4 plants    d) I don't know?

_____23. Which statement is Not true about C3 and C4 plants?
a) C3 plants are more successful in mild climates that C4 plants.
b) C4 plants contain chloroplasts only in part of their mesophyll cells.
c) C3 plants fix carbon dioxide in the mesophyll cells.
d) C3 plants make glucose in the bundle sheath cells.
e) The first carbon dioxide fixation product in a C4 plant is oxaloacetate.

_____24. Which would be a CAM plant?
a) cactus    b) corn    c) rice    d) wheat    e) oak tree

_____25. The absorption spectrum of chlorophyll
a) is not the same as that of carotenoids.
b) approximates the action spectrum of photosynthesis.
c) explains why chlorophyll is a green pigment.
d) shows that some colors of light are absorbed more than others.
e) All of these are correct.

_____26. The final acceptor of electrons during the noncyclic electron pathway is
a) Photosystem I    b) Photosystem II    c) ATP    d) NADP+    e) water

_____27. A photosystem contains
a) pigments, a reaction center, and an electron acceptor
b) ADP, phosphate, and hydrogen ions (H+).
c) protons, photons, and pigments.
d) cytochromes only.
e) Both B and C are correct.

_____28. Which of these should Not be associated with the electron transport system?
a) chloroplasts
b) cytochromes
c) movement of H+ into the thylakoid space
d) formation of ATP
e) absorption of solar energy

_____29. The NADPH and ATP from the light-dependent reactions are used to
a) split water
b) cause RuBP carboxylase to fix carbon dioxide
c) re-form the photosystems
d) cause electrons to move along their pathways
e) convert PGA to PGAL

_____30. CAM photosynthesis
a) is the same as C4 photosynthesis
b) is an adaptation to cold environments in the southern hemisphere
c) is prevalent in desert plants that close their stomates during the day
d) occurs in plants that live in marshy areas
e) stands for chloroplasts and mitochondria

_____31. Chemiosmosis
a) depends on protein complexes in the thylakoid membrane.
b) depends on an electrochemical gradient.
c) depends on a difference in H+ concentration between the thylakoid space and stroma.
d) results in ATP formation.
e) All of these are correct.

_____32. Which of the following is the source of oxygen produced during photosynthesis?
a) H2O    b) H2O2    c) CO2    d) CO    e) HCO3-

_____33. Which of the following is the difference between C3 and C4 plants?
a) The first step of the Calvin cycle.
b) The elevation at which they live.
c) The kind of chloroplasts they contain.
d) The first step of the light reactions.
e) The product of the Calvin cycle.

_____34. This process couples the production of ATP with the movement of electrons down the
electron transport chain by harnessing the driving force created by a proton gradient.
a) glycolysis    b) chemiosmosis    c) fermentation    d) Calvin cycle    e) photolysis

_____35. This process has as its products NADP+ and ADP, and sugar.
a) glycolysis    b) chemiosmosis    c) fermentation    d) Calvin cycle    e) photolysis

_____36. CAM plants are unique in that they
a) Use rubisco as the chief enzyme in photosynthesis.
b) Store CO2 collected at night as acid, and use it during the day for photosynthesis.
c) Close their stomata at night and open them by day.
d) Have bundle sheath cells to assist in photosynthesis.
e) Do not use photosystem I at all.

_____37. Which of the following photosynthetic reactions is known to occur in the thylakoid membrane?
a) carbon fixation    b) light reactions    c) dark reactions    d) Calvin cycle    e) transpiration

_____38. Which of the following processes is carried out more efficiently by a C4 plant than by a C3 plant?
a) light absorption
b) chemiosmotic coupling
c) photolysis
d) fixation of carbon dioxide (CO2)
e) transport of sugars

_____39. On a sunny day, the closing of stomata in plant leaves result in
a) a decrease in CO2 intake
b) a shift from C3 photosynthesis to C4 photosynthesis
c) an increase in transpiration
d) an increase in the concentration of CO2 in mesophyll cells
e) an increase in the rate of production of starch

_____40. The process in which O2 (oxygen) is released as a by product of oxidation-reduction reactions.
a) glycolysis
b) Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle)
c) Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions of photosynthesis)
d) light dependent reactions of photosynthesis
e) chemiosmosis

_____41. Process in which carbon from CO2 is incorporated into organic molecules.
a) glycolysis
b) Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle)
c) Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions of photosynthesis)
d) light dependent reactions of photosynthesis
e) chemiosmosis

_____42. Process found in both photosynthesis and cellular respiration.
a) glycolysis
b) Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle)
c) Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions of photosynthesis)
d) light dependent reactions of photosynthesis
e) chemiosmosis

_____43. The products of the light reactions in photosynthesis are
a) oxygen and NADP+
b) water and NADPH
c) oxygen and NADPH
d) water and oxygen
e) oxygen and NAD+

_____44. Which of the following statements is True about RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate)
a) It is a 3 carbon product of the Calvin cycle.
b) It is the final oxidizing agent in the light reaction.
c) It is the CO2 acceptor in the Calvin cycle.
d) It is the rarest substrate in the Calvin cycle and therefore a limiting reagent.
e) None of the above.

_____45. If 6 molecules of oxygen are released during photosynthesis, how many molecules of
carbon dioxide would be fixed?
a) 1    b) 3    c) 6    d) 12    e) 24

_____46. Which of the following statements is true concerning plants that utilize C4 photosynthesis?
a) They only open their stomata at night.
b) The use bundle sheath cells to separate the Calvin cycle from the atmosphere.
c) They use rubisco (ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase) to capture the carbon
    dioxide from the atmosphere.
d) There are more C4 plants in temperate deciduous forests because of the mild heat and
    available moisture.
e) All of the above.

_____47. The basic photosynthetic unit in a chloroplasts is the
a) stroma    b) stoma    c) thylakoid    d) granum    e) chlorophyll

_____48. All of the following are end products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis Except.
a)  NADPH    b) ATP    c) O2 (oxygen)    d) H+ (protons)    e) C6H12O6 (glucose)

_____49. In C3 plants, the enzyme that incorporates CO2 into organic compounds is
a) helicase   b) PEP carboxylase   c) RuBP carboxylase   d) carboxypeptidase  e) pyruvate decarboxylase

_____50. Plants that use C4 photosynthesis utilize
a) phosphoenolpyruvate  b) PEP carboxylase   c) bundle sheath cells   d) All of the above

_____51. The products of the light reactions, or photophosphorylation, in photosynthesis are
a) oxygen and water.
b) oxygen and ATP.
c) oxygen, ATP, and NADPH.
d) water, ATP, and NADPH.
e) water, ATP, and NADP+ + H+.

_____52. Which statement concerning plants that utilize C4 photosynthesis is Not true?
a) They open their stomata only at night.
b) They capture carbon dioxide with PEP carboxylase.
c) They are more efficient than C3 plants because they transpire less and therefore lose less water.
d) The use the Calvin cycle to make sugars.
e) They use bundle sheath cells.

_____53. Which of the following is a specialized feature of plants that live in hot dry regions?
a) Stomata that open and close   b) Transpiration   c) Photophosphorylation   d) C4 photosynthesis    e) Carbon fixation

_____54. The light -dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur in the
a) nucleus    b) cytoplasm    c) mitochondria    d) thylakoid membrane    e) stroma

_____55. The cyclic pathway of photosynthesis occurs because
a) The chloroplasts need to regenerate NAD+.
b) The Calvin cycle uses more ATP than NADPH.
c) It can occur in regions lacking light.
d) It is more efficient way to produce oxygen.
e) It is a more efficient way to produce the NADPH needed for the Calvin cycle.

_____1. Karyokinesis is another term for
a) spindle formation    b) cytokinesis       c) prophase       d) binary fission         e) mitosis

_____2. Which is Not true about bacteria chromosomes?
a) There is generally only one chromosome in each bacteria cell.
b) A bacteria chromosome is present in a single copy per cell.
c) A bacteria chromosome is attached to the plasma membrane.
d) A bacteria chromosome is in a loop.
e) A bacteria chromosome contains both DNA and associated histones.

_____3. The structure that contains the genetic information in a bacteria cell is called the
a) nucleus      b) nucleoid       c) nucleolus      d) nucleosome        e) nucleoprotein

_____4. The speed of binary fission used by bacteria is
a) considerably slower than mitosis of advance organisms since bacteria are so primitive.
b) considerably faster than mitosis of advance organisms.
c) essentially the same speed as mitosis in advance organisms.

_____5. Virtually all specialized cells of a multicellular organism
a) develop through mutations from less specialized cells of the organism.
b) contain more genetic material than less specialized cells of the same organism.
c) contain less genetic material than less specialized cells of the same organism.
d) have the same amount of DNA and the same number of chromosomes as all other cells of the organism.

_____6. Which is Not true about chromosomes of a multicellular organism?
a) They are made up of DNA and protein.
b) Each chromosome is a replicated into two chromatids during the S phase of interphase.
c) Each chromosome separates into daughter chromosomes by binary fission.
d) All cells contain chromosomes that carry the same genetic information.

_____7. Which statement is Not true about eukaryotic chromosomes?
a) There is only one chromosome of each type in each body cell.
b) Chromosomes condense from chromatin at the start of mitosis.
c) Chromosomes contain both DNA and associated histones.
d) Chromosomes disperse back into chromatin at the end of mitosis.
e) Chromosomes are not located within the nuclear envelope during mitosis.

_____8. The diploid (2n) number of chromosomes for humans is
a) 23     b) 24      c) 44       d) 46         e) 48

_____9. The haploid number (1n or n) of chromosomes for humans is
a) 23      b) 24      c) 44      d) 46         e) 48

_____10. Which statement is Not true about mitosis?
a) Mitosis is a process that duplicates and divides the nuclear contents only.
b) Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same number of chromosomes
     as he parent cell.
c) Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same kinds of chromosomes
    as the parent cell.
d) Mitosis uses a 2n parent cell to form daughter cells containing n chromosomes.
e) Mitosis is involved in development of a fertilized egg into a multicellular organism.

_____11. Which represents the correct sequence of stages in the cell cycle?
a) G1, G2, S, M                               c) G1, G2, M, S
b) G1, M, G2, S                               d) G1, S, G2, M

_____12. The critical checkpoints that control the cell cycle are at the
a) G1 to S stage and G2 to M stage
b) S to G2 stage and G2 to M stage
c) M to G1 stage and G2 to M stage
d) M to G1 stage and S to G2 stage
e) S to G2 stage and G2 to M stage

_____13. During which stage of the cell cycle is cell growth and replication of organelles most significant?
a) M phase     b) G1 phase    c) G2 phase    d) S phase     e) G0 phase

_____14. Which stage is most associated with a cell that is unable to divide again, such as a muscle or nerve cell?
a) M phase     b) G1 phase    c) G2 phase    d) S phase     e) G0 phase

_____15. ____ molecules are a common way for the cell to turn on metabolic pathways.
a) Inhibitory    b) Respiratory     c) Cytochrome     d) Ionized     e) Phosphorylated

_____16. Which sequence of stages in mitosis correct?
a) prophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase
b) prophase, telophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase
c) prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d) telophase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase
e) anaphase, telophase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase

_____17. Which occurs in metaphase?
a) Centrioles move to opposite poles.
b) Chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell.
c) Chromosomes move to opposite poles.
d) The nuclear envelope disappears.

_____18. Which occurs in anaphase?
a) Centrioles move to opposite poles.
b) Chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell.
c) Chromosomes move to opposite poles.
d) The nuclear envelope disappears.

_____19. Plant cells differ from animal cells in mitosis in all Except which of these ways?
a) Plants lack centrioles, but animals have them.
b) Plants lack microtubules and spindles, but animals have them.
c) Plants lack cell furrow, but animals have them.
d) Plants from a cell plate, but animal do not.
e) Plants develop a cell wall between daughter cells, but animals do not.

_____20. Cytokinesis in plant cells differ from this process in animal cells because
a) the plant endoplasmic reticulum form a cell plate.
b) microtubules are laid down in a plywood like cell plate pattern.
c) the Golgi apparatus produces vesicles that migrate along the microtubules and fuse to become a cell plate.
d) the inner plasma membrane divides by cytokinesis as in animal cells and then secretes a cellulose cell wall.
e) asters coalesce to form a fibrous plate that reinforces with cellulose.

_____21. Binary fission by bacteria differs from mitosis because
a) the chromosome copies attach to the plasma membrane and are pulled apart by cell growth.
b) the chromosome is a simple DNA strand without complex proteins and no spindle forms.
c) there is no nuclear membrane to breakdown and rebuild.
d) All of the above are correct.

_____22. In multicellular organisms, mitosis is
a) the means of tissue growth and repair.
b) a way to generate new kinds of mutant or recombinant organisms.
c) the means of sexual reproduction.
d) not useful in stem cell lines that constantly replace skin, etc.
e) able to occur in only a few cells of specialized tissues.

_____23. Which of the following is Not true about cancer cells?
a) They never fully differentiate.
b) They exhibit contact inhibition.
c) They exhibit uncontrolled growth.
d) They exhibit disorganized growth.
e) They may undergo metastasis.

_____24. Apoptosis refers to cell death and
a) is always biologically detrimental to an organism.
b) is merely the accumulation of genetic errors.
c) can be programmed and is essential to normal development.
d) is a failure in the translation or transcription mechanism.
e) is any failure of the genetic machinery to work properly.

_____25. Which of the following are carcinogens?
a) radon gas     b) X-rays    c) some viruses   d) some chemicals       e) All of the above include carcinogens.

_____26. Which of the following statements about mitosis is correct?
a) Mitosis makes up 80 percent of the cell cycle.
b) The order of mitosis is prophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, and telophase.
c) Single celled eukaryotes undergo mitosis as part of asexual reproduction.
d) Mitosis is performed by prokaryotic cells.
e) Cell plates are formed in animal cells during mitosis.

_____27. During this phase the split sister chromatids, now considered to be chromosomes, are moved to the opposite poles of the cell.
a) Prophase     b) Metaphase    c) Anaphase     d) Telophase      e) Cytokinesis

_____28. During this phase the nucleus deteriorates and the mitotic spindle begins to form.
a) Prophase     b) Metaphase    c) Anaphase     d) Telophase      e) Cytokinesis

_____29. During this phase the two daughter cells are actually split apart.
a) Prophase     b) Metaphase    c) Anaphase     d) Telophase      e) Cytokinesis

_____30. During this phase the sister chromatids line up along the equator of the cell, preparing to split.
a) Prophase     b) Metaphase    c) Anaphase     d) Telophase      e) Cytokinesis

_____31. Which of the following is Not known to be involved in the control of cell division?
a) Cyclins    b) Protein kinases     c) Checkpoints     d) Fibroblast cells    e) Growth factors

_____32. If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis, then at anaphase there would be a total of
a) 23 chromatids       b) 23 chromosomes     c) 46 chromosomes     d) 46 chromatids       e) 92 chromosomes

_____33. All of the following statements are true Except
a) Spindle fibers are composed largely of microtubules.
b) Centrioles consists of nine triplets of microtubules arranged in a circle.
c) All eukaryotic cells have centrioles.
d) All eukaryotic cells have a spindle fiber.
e) Many of the microtubules in a spindle apparatus attach to kinetochores of chromosomes.

_____34. DNA replication occurs during
a) anaphase       b) interphase     c) metaphase      d) prophase      e) telophase

_____35. The division of the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell is called
a) mitosis        b) binary fission       c) cytokinesis        d) karyokinesis       e) None of the above.

_____36. Histones are proteins that
a) are found only in prokaryotic cells
b) aid in the packaging of DNA in eukaryotic cells.
c) aid in controlling the activity of regions of DNA.
d) All of these.

_____37. Each daughter cell produced by binary fission contains
a) half the chromosomes of the original cell.
b) twice as many chromosomes as the original cell had.
c) an identical copy of the original cell's chromosome.

_____38. What structure Not found in animal cells forms along the midline of a dividing plant cell?
a) cleavage furrow       b) centrioles        c) cell plate        d) kinetochore

_____39. During mitosis and meiosis, kinetochore fibers are thought to
a) control cytokinesis     b) make centromeres     c) move chromosomes        d) pairing of homologues

_____40. The chromosomes in your body
a) exists in 23 pairs
b) each contain thousands of genes
c) are about 40 percent DNA and 60 percent protein
d) All of these are true.

_____41. Chromatids are
a) dense patches within the nucleus
b) bacterial chromosomes
c) joined strands of duplicated genetic material.
d) prokaryotic nuclei

_____42. A protein disk that attaches two chromatids to each other in a chromosome is called a(n)
a) kinetochore fiber     b) centromere      c) centriole      d) centrosome

_____43. The chromosome of a bacterium
a) is wrapped around proteins
b) has a circular shape
c) occurs in multiple pairs within the cell
d) is found within the nucleus

_____44. A spindle fiber is a specialized form of
a) microtubule        b) flagellum        c) cilium        d) chromosome

_____45. Mitosis is a process by which
a) DNA is replicated                        c) cytokinesis occurs
b) cells grow in size                         d) a cell nucleus divides

_____46. Which does Not occur in telophase?
a) Cytokinesis is under way.
b) The nuclear envelope is being constructed.
c) The centromeres split apart.
d) Chromosomes de-condense into chromatin.
e) The nucleolus reforms.

_____47. Which of the following statements about cell division is False?
a) There are regulatory proteins called cyclins and phosphorylate enzymes that begin the cell cycle.
b) Cyclins build up after cell division.
c) Cdks or cyclin dependent kinases are present in uniform concentrations throughout the cell cycle.
d) Cdks combine with cyclins during the cell cycle.
e) Cell division is influenced by both growth factors and cell density.

_____48. Homologous chromosomes are chromosomes that
a) are found only in identical twins.
b) are formed during mitosis.
c) split apart during meiosis I.
d) resemble one another in shape, size, and function.
e) determine the sex of an organism.

_____49. During mitosis, chromosomes are not visible as discrete units during
a) prophase       b) metaphase        c) anaphase      d) interphase         e) telophase

_____50. The G0 phase
a) includes all of the mitotic phases.
b) is a "resting" stage that occurs prior to the G1 phase.
c) is a "resting" stage that occurs during the G1 phase, prior to possibly resuming division.
d) occurs only in rapidly dividing cell.
e) occurs after G2 but just prior to mitosis, allowing the cell to prepare for the actual nuclear division.

_____51. Consider a plant cell that has 14 chromosomes and is undergoing prophase in mitosis.
At this time there are _____ chromatids and _____ centromeres.
a) 14, 14     b) 14, 28         c) 0, 14       d) 0, 28       e) 28, 14

_____52. A specialized disk shaped structure on the chromatids that attaches the mitotic spindle to the centromere is called the
a) apoptosis     b) aster      c) kinetochore       d) centriole         e) cyclin

_____53. Which of the following structures would allow one to determine if a cell division involved plants or animals?
a) Presence of spindle fibers.
b) Alignment of chromosomes at the middle during metaphase.
c) Presence of cell plate.
d) Separation of chromosomes during anaphase.
e) Disappearance of nucleus during prophase.

_____54. The collapsing and folding of the DNA molecule is accomplished with the aid of special ______ which are called ______.
a) proteins, histones
b) carbohydrates, cellulose
c) lipids, phospholipids
d) membranes, vesicles
e) proteins, histamines

_____55. After the DNA molecule is duplicated it consists of two connected pieces called
a) duplicates       b) centromeres     c) chromatins      d) sister chromatids       e) diploids

_____56. The process of making a duplicate copy of the DNA molecule is called
a) replication      b) diploidization       c) metastasis       d) apoptosis          e) fertilization

_____57. The process by which the chromosomes are equally divided and distributed to the two new cells during cell division is called
a) mitosis       b) cytokinesis        c) apoptosis          d) cell cycle          e) metastasis