Unit 1 Practice Questions
_____1. Which of the following is Not
one of the characteristics of living organisms?
a) to
be organized
b) to respond
c) to grow
d) to metabolize
e) All of the above are
characteristics of living organisms.
_____2. Which term is based on Greek root meaning
"ordered arrangement of the home"?
a) biology
b) biosphere c)
homeostasis d) photosynthesis
e) ecosystem
_____3. Which of the following sequences of organization is
likely to be seen in a multicellular
organisms, going from smallest to largest?
a) cell,
organ, tissue, organism
b) cell, organ, system,
tissue
c) cell, tissue, system,
organism
d) organism, system, organ,
tissue
e) tissue, system, cell,
organ
_____4. Which of the following characteristics is Not required for the life of an
individual organism to continue?
a) to be
organized b) to respond
c) to metabolize d) to
reproduce
_____5. One classic definition of life is "a
self-replicating molecular assemblage". However,
clay particles (in clay soil) contain layered
aluminum and iron compounds that determine
the pattern of the adjacent layers of sediment.
This is technically a self-replicating
molecular assemblage.
a) Therefore, it is living.
b) It is not living because
it cannot think.
c) It is not living because
there is no molecular changes (or chemistry) involved.
d) It is not living because
there is no carbon involved; otherwise, such duplication would
be living.
e) It is not living because
it is a simple repetitive process without the ability to evolve or
respond to the environment.
_____6. Which of the following organisms is Not ultimately dependent on the sun as a
source of energy?
a) A night blooming flower is
pollinated by a night flying bat.
b) An underground earthworm
avoids the sun.
c) A cave fish feed on debris
that washes down to it.
d) All of the above are
ultimately dependent on the sun.
_____7. What is the process by which the sun's energy is
trapped as the source of energy used
by virtually all living organisms?
a) evolution
b) metabolism c)
adaptation d)
homeostasis e) photosynthesis
_____8. Which statement is False about nearly
all living things?
a) Living things are made up of
cells.
b) Living things must obey the laws
of chemistry and physics.
c) Living things show biological
organization and other common characteristics of life.
d) Emergent properties can be used
to distinguish living things from nonliving things.
e) Living things are composed only
of organic elements, whereas nonliving things are made
up of inorganic
elements.
_____9. What is the name of all the chemical energy
transformations that occur within a cell?
a) evolution
b) metabolism c)
adaptation d)
homeostasis e) photosynthesis
_____10. What do we call the maintenance of internal
conditions of an organism within
a certain boundary range?
a) evolution
b) metabolism c)
adaptation d)
homeostasis e) photosynthesis
_____11. Which of the following terms is based on the Greek
root words for
"holding still" or "to be
standing"?
a) evolution
b) metabolism c)
adaptation d)
homeostasis e) photosynthesis
_____12. Which of these is a peculiarity of form, function, or
behavior that promotes
the likelihood of a species' continue existence?
a) evolution
b) metabolism c)
adaptation d)
homeostasis e) photosynthesis
_____13. Which of these is the process by which changes occur
in the characteristics
of species of organisms over time?
a) evolution
b) metabolism c)
adaptation d)
homeostasis e) photosynthesis
_____14. All ecosystems taken together make up a
a)
niche b) biosphere
c) community d)
population e) habitat
_____15. Interactions between different populations in an
ecosystem tend to
a) disrupt the ecosystem
b) increase the use of raw
materials
c) decrease the need for
energy
d) keep the system relatively
stable
e) speed up evolution
_____16. Who was the person who first devised the binomial
system of naming a species?
a) Aristotle b) Gregory
Mendel c) Carolus Linnaeus d) Charles Darwin e) George W. Bush
_____17. The two parts of a species name, in order, are the
a) kingdom and genus names
b) genus and family names
c) genus and specific epithet
(species)
d) specific epithet and genus
name
e) species and genus names
_____18. Which of the following sequences correctly gives the
different classification
levels of an organism, going from the largest
group to the smallest? (Some are left out.)
a) species, genus, family,
class, phylum
b) kingdom, phylum, class,
order, species
c) class, family, kingdom,
species, genus
d) genus, class, phylum,
species, family
e) kingdom, class, phylum,
genus, species
_____19. Which of the following domains contains the most
primitive bacteria
and that live in extreme environments?
a) Archaea
b) Bacteria c) Plantae
d) Fungi e) Eukarya
_____20. Which of the following domains contains the common
advanced plants
and animals and fungi?
a) Archaea
b) Bacteria c) Plantae
d) Fungi e) Eukarya
_____21. Which of the following kingdoms contain multicellular organisms that ingest their food?
a) Protista
b) Animalia
c) Plantae
d) Archaea
e) Fungi
_____22. Which of the following kingdoms contain multicellular organisms that
obtain their food by absorption through hyphae and never develop from embryos?
a) Protista
b) Animalia
c) Plantae
d) Archaea
e) Fungi
_____23. What is inductive reasoning?
a) a
tentative statement, based on data, that can be used to guide further
observations
and experiments.
b) a
report of the findings of scientific experiments.
c) A general statement made
to infer a specific conclusion, often as an " if…..then" format.
d) using
isolated observations and facts to reach a general idea that may explain a
phenomenon.
_____24. What is deductive reasoning?
a) a
tentative statement, based on data, that can be used to guide further observations
and
experiments.
b) a
report of the findings of scientific experiments.
c) A general statement made
to infer a specific conclusion, often as an " if…..then" format.
d) using
isolated observations and facts to reach a general idea that may explain a
phenomenon.
_____25. What is a hypothesis?
a) a
tentative statement, based on data, that can be used to guide further
observations
and
experiments.
b) a
report of the findings of scientific experiments.
c) A general statement made
to infer a specific conclusion, often as an " if…..then" format.
d) using
isolated observations and facts to reach a general idea that may explain a
phenomenon.
_____26. Which statement is Not
true about a hypothesis?
a) Experiments or
observations are undertaken to test a hypothesis.
b) A hypothesis cannot be
proven true.
c) A hypothesis cannot be
proven false.
d) Data that support a
hypothesis do not actually prove it.
_____27. Which best describes a control group in an
experiment?
a) the
condition being tested.
b) a
sample taken through all experimental steps except the one being tested.
c) a
variable that is being deliberately varied in the experiment.
d) the
dependent variable.
_____28. Four groups of mice consume different amounts of
sweetener in their food.
The control group is the one that receives
a) 10 mg/day of sweetener.
b) 50
mg/day of sweetener.
c) no
sweetener.
d) extra
food.
e) milk
instead of water.
_____29. Which statement in Not true about
experimental design?
a) All conditions are held the same
except for the condition being tested by the experiment.
b) It is best to use genetically
identical mice to reduce the uncontrolled variables.
c) The condition being tested in an
experiment is the controlled variable.
d) The dependent variable is
observed at the end of the experiment when statistical
comparisons are made between groups.
_____30. Which of the following terms best describes the
collection of scientific
data through observation in the field, such as
observing the behavior of birds?
a) a
scientific model
b) an experiment
c) descriptive research
d) a scientific theory or
principle
e) experimental results
_____1. Which of the following elements is Not
one of the six most common in living organisms?
a) carbon
b) oxygen c) iron d)
nitrogen e) hydrogen
_____2. The are ___ naturally
occurring elements.
a) 57 b) 108
c) 95 d) 92 e) 87
_____3. Which statement is Not
true about elements?
a) An element cannot be broken down into
substances with different properties.
b) An element consists of atoms and molecules.
c) There is only one kind of atom in each type of
element.
d) All atoms of an element contain the same
number of protons.
e) Atoms of an element may contain different
numbers of neutrons.
_____4. Which term is based on the Greek root word for
"uncut" or "indivisible"?
a) atom
b) element c) molecule d)
chemical e) electron
_____5. Which statement is Not
true about subatomic particles?
a) Protons are found in the nucleus.
b) Neutrons have no electrical charge.
c) Electrons contain much less mass than
neutrons.
d) Electrons are found in orbitals
around the nucleus.
e) All electrons in an atom contain the same
amount of energy.
_____6. Which is Not
true about the electrical charges in chemistry?
a) Protons carry a positive charge.
b) In an atom, the number of protons and
neutrons must be equal.
c) An atom is neutral when the positive and
negative charges balance.
d) An ion contains one or more positive or
negative charges.
_____7. An atom's atomic number is best described as the
number of
a) protons it contains
b) neutrons it contains
c) electrons in the outermost shell
d) protons and neutrons it contains
e) protons and electrons it contains
_____8. An atom's atomic mass is best described as the mass
of
a) protons it contains
b) neutrons it contains
c) electrons in the outermost shell
d) protons and neutrons it contains
e) protons and electrons it contains
_____9. The characteristic way in which atoms of an element
react is most related to the
a) number of electrons in the outermost shell
b) number of electrons in the innermost shell
c) number of neutrons in the outermost shell
d) number of neutrons in the nucleus
e) size of the nucleus
_____10. Potential energy is best described as the
a) ability to do work
b) energy of motion of molecules
c) energy that comes from the sun
d) energy in the nucleus of an atom
e) stored energy that is available to do work
_____11. Which of the following statements is Not true about electron configurations?
a) If an atom has only one shell, it is complete
with two electrons.
b) If an atom has two or more shells, the octet
rule applies.
c) If an atom has two on more shells, the outer
shell is complete with eight electrons.
d) Atoms with more than eight electrons in the
outer shell react by gaining electrons.
e) Atoms with eight electrons in the outer shell
are not reactive at all.
_____12. An orbital is best described as
a) the electron shell closest to the nucleus.
b) the outermost
electron shell of an atom.
c) the volume of space
in which electrons are most often found.
d) the original energy
level of electrons in photosynthesis.
_____13. Which statement does Not
describe a chemical equation?
a) The products are placed to the left of the
arrow.
b) The reactants are placed to the left of the
arrow.
c) The arrow represents the direction in which
the reaction proceeds.
d) Atoms must be balanced on both sides of the
arrow.
_____14. Which statement is Not
true about ionic bonds?
a) One atom acts as an electron donor and another acts as an electron acceptor.
b) Electrons are completely lost or gained in
ion formation.
c) An ion has the same number of electrons as a
nonionic atom of the same element.
d) An ionic reaction occurs between positive and
negative ions.
e) A salt such as NaCl
is formed by an ionic reaction.
_____15. Which statement is Not
true about covalent bonds?
a) Covalent bonds form when an electron is
completely lost or gained from an atom.
b) A covalent molecule contains one or more
covalent bonds.
c) A single covalent bond is drawn as a line
between two atoms.
d) A pair of electrons is shared between two
atoms for each covalent bond.
e) Shared electrons allow an atom to complete
its outer electron shell in a covalent molecule.
_____16. Which statement is Not
true about polar covalent bonds?
a) Most covalent bonds are nonpolar,
with electrons shared fairly equally between the atoms.
b) Polar covalent bonds are important in the
characteristics of water.
c) Electrons are shared unequally in a polar
covalent bond.
d) The large atom in a polar bond attracts the
electron more strongly than the smaller atom.
e) The oxygen of a water molecule is
electropositive relative to the hydrogen.
_____17. Which statement is Not
true about water's properties?
a) Water molecules are cohesive, able to cling
to each other.
b) Water molecules are adhesive, able to wet
substances other than water.
c) Water is a universal solvent due to its polar
nature.
d) The temperature of water rises and falls
quickly.
e) Ice is less dense than water and floats on
its surface.
_____18. Which term is based on the Greek root word for
"water" and "fear"?
a) hydrostatic
b) homeostatic c) hydrophobic d)
hydrophilic e) hyperphobic
_____19. What happens when water ionizes?
a) Equal amounts of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions
are formed.
b) Ions are irreversibly formed.
c) Many ions are produced,
d) Anything in solution in water becomes
ionized.
e) The water changes its pH because of the ions.
_____20. Which statement is Not
true about the pH scale?
a) The scale indicates the relative
concentrations of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in a solution.
b) The scale ranges from 1 to 15.
c) pH 7 has a balanced
level of H+ and
d) Anything below pH 7 is acidic and above pH 7
is basic.
e) A change of one pH unit represents a ten-fold
increase or decrease in hydroxyl ion concentration.
_____21. If the pH of cytoplasm is approximately 7.2, the
cytoplasm is
a) very acidic b) slightly
acidic c) precisely neutral d) slightly
alkaline e) very alkaline
_____22. An atom, such as calcium, which has two electrons in
the outer shell, would most likely
a) share to acquire a complete outer shell.
b) lose these two
electrons and become a negatively charged ion.
c) lose these two
electrons and become a positively charged ion.
d) bind with carbon by
way of hydrogen bonds.
e) bind with another
calcium to satisfy its energy needs.
_____23. In which of these are the electrons shared unequally?
a) double covalent bond
b) triple covalent bond
c) hydrogen bond
d) polar covalent bond
e) ionic and covalent bonds
_____24. Acids
a) release hydrogen
ions.
c) have a pH value above 7.
b) take up hydroxide
ions and become neutral. d) increase the number of water molecules.
_____25. A pH of 10 is how many more times basic than a pH of
7?
a) 2 b)
10 c) 100 d) 1000 e)
10,000
_____26. A solution that has a concentration of H+ that is
10,000 times lower than a solution
with a pH of 6, itself has a pH of
a) 2 b)
3 c) 4 d)
10 e) 11
_____27. A solution with pH of 4 has how many more hydrogen
ions than one with a pH of 8?
a) 320 b)
4,000 c) 10,000 d)
1/4,000 e) 1/10,000
_____28. Which of the following bond types is the strongest?
a) ionic
b) covalent c) Van der
Waals d) hydrophobic e)
hydrogen
_____29. The polarity of the water molecule causes it to be
attracted to other polar molecules.
This property is referred to as
a) adhesion b)
cohesion c) surface tension
d) specific heat e) hydrogen bonding
_____30. During a chemical reaction, the loss of an electron
from an atom or molecule is termed
a) reduction b) cellular
respiration c) kinetics
d) oxidation e) metabolism
_____31. Which of the following best explains surface tension?
a) Hydrogen of one water molecule are attracted to the hydrogens of
another water molecule.
b) Oxygen of one molecule is attracted to hydrogens of the same molecule.
c) Hydrogen of one water molecule is attracted
to the oxygen of another water molecule.
d) Water molecules increase the buoyancy of each
other.
e) Water molecules have a high heat of
evaporation.
_____32. Water can move from the roots of the trees to their
uppermost branches, and basilisk lizards can run
on water for brief periods of time because of
surface tension. Surface tension is the property of water caused by
a) attraction of a hydrogen atom of one water
molecule to the oxygen of another water molecule.
b) attraction of an
oxygen molecule of water to one or more hydrogen atoms of another water
molecule.
c) short lived hydrogen
bonds between water molecules.
d) cohesion
e) All of the above.
_____1. Which of the following is Not
one of the four most common elements found in living organisms?
a) hydrogen
b) oxygen c) carbon d)
sulfur d) nitrogen
_____2. Organic molecules are those that contain at least
a)
carbon
c) carbon and oxygen
b) carbon and
hydrogen
d) carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen
_____3. What term is used for molecules that have identical
molecular formulas but the atoms
in each molecule are arranged differently?
a) isotopes
b) isomer c) homomolecules
d) organic e) balanced
_____4. Which is Not an isomer of
the other three?
a) glucose
b) ribose c) fructose d) galactose
_____5. A polysaccharide is a polymer made up of which kind
of monomers?
a) simple sugars
b) amino acids
c) nucleotides
d) alternating sugar and phosphate groups
e) fatty acids and glycerol
_____6. A lipid is a polymer made up of which kind of
monomers?
glucose or modified glucose molecules
a) amino
acids
c) nucleotides
b) alternating sugar and phosphate
groups d)
fatty acids and glycerol
_____7. A dehydration synthesis reaction is also known as
a) a condensation reaction
b) a hydrolysis reaction
c) an isomeric reaction
d) an energy releasing reaction
e) monomer formation
_____8. Which pair are both structural carbohydrate
molecules?
a) starch and glycogen
b) starch and cellulose
c) glycogen and cellulose
d) cellulose and chitin
e) glycogen and chitin
_____9. Which carbohydrate is found in the cell walls of
plants?
a) starch
b) chitin c) cellulose d)
glycogen e) glycerol
_____10. Which carbohydrate is used in the liver for energy
storage?
a) starch
b) chitin c) cellulose d)
glycogen e) glycerol
_____11. Which carbohydrate is found in the exoskeleton of
insects and crabs?
a) starch
b) chitin c) cellulose d)
glycogen e) glycerol
_____12. Which lipid does Not
contain at least some subunits similar to those in the others?
a) steroids
b) neutral fats c) waxes d) phospholipids
_____13. Which of the following lipids form a bilayer between two watery regions, such
as the plasma membrane of a cell?
a) steroids
b) neutral fats c) waxes d) phospholipids
_____14. Cholesterol belongs to which of the following groups?
a) steroids
b) neutral fats c) waxes d) phospholipids
_____15. If an animal needed to store energy for long term
use, but not be encumbered
with the weight of extra tissue, which is the
best molecule for storage?
a) fructose and glucose
in the form of honey
b) high calorie fat molecules
c) complex cellulose molecules
d) starch
e) glycogen with extensive side branches of
glucose
_____16. A protein is a polymer made up of which kind of
monomers?
a) glucose and modified glucose molecules
b) amino acids
c) nucleotides
d) alternating sugar and phosphate groups
e) fatty acids and glycerol
_____17. A peptide bond is found in which type of biological
molecule?
a) carbohydrate
b) lipid c) nucleic acid d) protein
_____18. The alpha helix and beta sheet are found at which
level of protein organization?
a) primary
structure b) secondary structure c)
tertiary structure d) quaternary structure
_____19. A nucleic acid is a polymer made up of which kind of
monomers?
a) amino acids
b) nucleotides
c) glucose or modified glucose molecules
d) alternating sugar and phosphate groups
e) fatty acids and glycerol
_____20. Which of these statements is Not
true about DNA?
a) It is the genetic material of the cell.
b) It forms a double helix.
c) Adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs
with cytosine.
d) It contains the sugar ribose.
e) The sugar and phosphate groups form the
backbone of the molecule.
_____21. Which statement is true about RNA?
a) It contains adenine paired to thymine.
b) One of the bases from DNA is replaced by uracil.
c) It contains the sugar deoxyribose.
d) Its nucleotides contain twice as many
phosphate groups as DNA's nucleotides.
e) It is a double stranded molecule.
_____22. Which of these is Not
a characteristic of carbon?
a) forms four covalent
bonds
b) bonds with itself
c) is sometimes ionic
d) forms long chains
e) sometimes shares two pairs of electrons with
another atom
_____23. The difference between one amino acid and another is
found in the
a) amino group b) carboxyl
group c) R group d) peptide
bond e) carbon atoms
_____24. The shape of a polypeptide is
a) maintain by bonding between parts of the
polypeptide
b) important to its function
c) ultimately dependent upon the primary
structure
d) necessary to its function
e) All of these are correct.
_____25. Nucleotides
a) contain a sugar, a nitrogen containing base,
and a phosphate molecule
b) are the monomers for fats and polysaccharides
c) joined together by covalent bonding between
bases
d) are present in both DNA and RNA
e) Both a and d are correct.
_____26. ATP
a) is an amino acid
b) has a helical structure
c) is a high energy molecule that can break down
to ADP and phosphate
d) provides enzymes for metabolism
e) is most energetic when in the ADP state
_____27. Which of the following is Not
associated with carbohydrates?
a) amylase
b) cellulose c) pepsin d)
chitin e) insulin
_____28. The union of glycerol and fatty acids to form fat is
an example of what kind of reaction?
a) endergonic
reaction b) exergonic
reaction c) dehydration reaction d) hydrolysis
reaction e) redox reaction
_____29. Which of the following is Not
a compound composed of glucose?
a) chitin
b) glycogen c) starch d) glucagon e) cellulose
_____30. A disaccharide is
a) A complex protein
found in plants.
b A basic building block of life.
c) The group to which glucose belongs.
d) A sugar consisting of two monosaccharides.
e) A sugar in its simplest form.
_____31. When identical chemical groups are bonded to
different atoms in two molecules, such as
glucose and galactose,
these are examples of
a) monosaccharides
b) polymers c) monomers d) structural
isomers e) steroisomers
_____32. During a chemical reaction, the loss of an electron
from an atom or molecule is termed
a) reduction b) cellular
respiration c) kinetics d)
oxidation e) metabolism
_____33. Of the following functional chemical groups, which is
the only one that contains nitrogen?
a) carboxyl
b) amino c) methyl d) hydroxyl
e) sulfhydryl
_____34. Adenine, a nitrogen base, is found in all of the
following Except
a) RNA b)
DNA c) ATP d) cAMP
e) amino acids
_____35. A reaction that breaks down compounds by the addition
of water is known as a
a) hydrolysis reaction b)
dehydration reaction c) endergonic
reaction d) exergonic
reaction e) redox reaction
_____36. Which of the following is Not
a lipid?
a) steroids
b) fats c) phospholipids d)
glycogen e) cholesterol
_____37. A compound contains a COOH group. What functional
group is that?
a) amino
group b) carbonyl group c) carboxyl
group d) hydroxyl group e) phosphate group
_____38. Polymers of sugars are called
a) proteins b)
polysaccharides c) fats and oils d) nucleic
acids e) polypeptides
_____39. Large molecules that are composed of repeating units
of small molecules are called
a) monomers b)
polymers c) repeaters d)
macrophages e) polycarbonates
_____40. Polymers of amino acids are called
a) starches b)
polysaccharides c) fats and oils d) nucleic
acids e) polypeptides
_____41. The characteristic that is shared by all organic
molecules is that they
a) have sulfur.
b) have a ring
structure.
c) are derived from
crude oil.
d) are manufactured in
organic chemistry laboratories.
e) are made of chains
of carbon atoms.
_____42. The small repeating units of large molecules are
called
a) monomers b)
polymers c) repeaters d)
macrophages e) polycarbonates
_____43. Polymers of nucleotides are called
a) starches b)
polysaccharides c) fats and oils d) nucleic
acids e) polypeptides
_____44. An example of a polypeptide is
a) table sugar b)
protein c) olive oil d)
cellulose e) corn starch
_____45. The most predominant component of biological
membranes are
a) lipids b)
sugars c) nucleic acids d)
starches e) oils
_____46. The biological functions of molecules are determined
by their
a) shapes
b) charge distributions
c) ability to interact with water
d) structures
e) All of the above.
_____47. Standard, small groupings of atoms on molecules that
help to determine its properties are called
a) competent sites b)
functional groups c) portals d)
interfaces e) remainder groups
_____48. Organic acids are characterized by which functional
group
a) amino b)
carboxyl c) hydroxyl d) keto
e) aldenhyde
_____49. The most important biological properties of a
molecule depend on its interactions with
a) proteins b) sugars
c) water d) membranes e) DNA
_____50. Molecules that contain both amino and carboxyl groups
are
a) sugars b) amino
acids c) nucleotides d)
starches e) lipids
_____51. Molecules that each consists of a nitrogen-containing
aromatic ring compound, a sugar,
and a molecule of phosphoric acid are
a) sugars b) amino
acids c) nucleotides d)
starches e) lipids
_____52. When all the bonds between the carbons of a
hydrocarbon are single bonds, and it contains
the maximum number of hydrogen atoms it is said
to be
a) saturated b)
complimented c) polycarbonated
d) impregnated e) unsaturated
_____53. The most important simple sugar in almost all living
organisms is
a) sucrose b)
glucose c) fructose d)
starch e) cellulose
_____54. Choose the one item from the following lists is Not one of the parts of a nucleotide.
a) ribose
b) deoxyribose c)
lipid d) nitrogenous base e) phosphate
_____55. The are a total of ____
naturally occurring amino acids in cells.
a) 4 b) 5 c)
8 d) 10 e) 20
_____56. The biological role of a protein depends on
a) its sequence of amino acids
b) the pattern of folding of the amino acids
c) other protein molecules with which it is
associated
d) its three-dimensional shape
e) All of the above.
_____57. The amino acid sequence of protein is the level of
protein structure called the ____ structure.
a) primary
b) sequential c) secondary d)
quaternary e) tertiary
_____58. The three-dimensional arrangement of the polypeptide
chains that compose the protein is the
level of protein structure called the _____
structure.
a) primary
b) sequential c) secondary d)
quaternary e) tertiary
_____59. The three-dimensional folding of an entire
polypeptide chain is the level of protein
structure called the ____ structure.
a) primary
b) sequential c) secondary d)
quaternary e) tertiary
_____60. The fitting together of two or more folded amino acid
chains is the level of protein
structure called the ____ structure.
a) primary
b) sequential c) secondary d)
quaternary e) tertiary
_____61. A chain of amino acids that is wound into a single,
coiled strand is an example of a
secondary protein structure called a(n)
a) isomeric coil b) collagen
helix c) alpha helix d) helicoid
cyme e) beta sheet
_____62. An amino acid chain that forms a zig-zap
pattern is an example of a secondary
protein structure called a(n)
a) isomeric coil b) collagen
helix c) alpha helix d) helicoid
cyme e) beta sheet
_____1. Which form of energy is Not
correctly associated with an example?
a) kinetic energy : fat
molecules
b) kinetic energy : movement of muscles
c) chemical energy : glucose
d) potential energy : water held behind a dam
e) potential energy : ATP
_____2. Which Best describes the first law of
thermodynamics?
a) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it
can change into matter.
b) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it
can change from one energy form to another.
c) Energy can be created from matter or used to
produce matter.
d) Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever
an energy transfer occurs.
e) Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in
changing energy from one useful form to another.
_____3. Which Best describes the second law of
thermodynamics?
a) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it
can change into matter.
b) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it
can change from one energy form to another.
c) Energy can be created from matter or used to
produce matter.
d) Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever
an energy transfer occurs.
e) Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in
changing energy from one useful form to another.
_____4. Which of the following is consistent with the laws of
physics governing energy?
a) When a liter of gasoline is burned in a car
engine, 100% of its energy goes into moving the car along the road.
b) You eat a "quarter pounder"
hamburger and assemble exactly a quarter pound of additional
body weight on your
body.
c) Eventually sunlight that is absorbed on the
earth returns to space as dispersed heat.
d) A calorie of sunlight becomes a calorie of
plant tissue that, eaten by you, becomes a
calorie of heat lost in
muscle "power".
e) Chemical bonds are a case of converting
energy to matter; breaking bonds converts matter to energy.
_____5. All of the biochemical pathways in a cell constitute
a) coupling reactions
b) free energy
c) endergonic
reactions only
d) exergonic reactions
only
e) metabolism
_____6. Endergonic reactions
a) are always coupling reactions
b) have a negative change in free energy and
occur spontaneously
c) can only occur if there is an input of energy
d) have products with less free energy than the
reactants.
e) All of the above are correct.
_____7. Which of these statements is Not
a consequence of the second law of thermodynamics?
a) While the total amount of energy is
unchanged, the energy lost as heat is no longer useful to the cell in doing
work.
b) Reactions that occur spontaneously are those
that increase the amount of useful energy in a system.
c) The amount of disorder in the universe is always
increasing.
d) To maintain organization of a cell, a
continual input of energy is required.
_____8. Coupling occurs when the energy by an exergonic reaction is
a) used to drive another exergonic
reaction.
b) used to drive an endergonic reaction.
c) lost as nonusable heat to the environment.
d) used to decrease the
entropy of the universe.
e) All of the above are correct.
_____9. The subunits from which ATP is made are
a) ADP and phosphate
b) FAD and NAD+
c) FAD and NADPH
d) ADP and FAD
e) ADP and NAD+
_____10. ATP is considered to be
a) an enzyme used widely in all kinds of cells.
b) a molecule that
carries a great deal of chemical energy in a chemical bond.
c) a coenzyme used to
inhibit or activate different enzymes.
d) the precursor of a
high energy membrane bounded protein.
_____11. ATP is considered a high energy compound because
under cellular conditions 7.3 kcal per mole of energy
is released when a bond is broken between
a) the base adenine and the sugar ribose.
b) the adenosine and
the phosphate groups.
c) the adenosine diphosphate and the third phosphate.
d) the base adenine and
the phosphate groups.
e) All of the above bonds release energy as ATP
is completely broken down.
_____12. Which of the following is characteristic of enzymes?
a) They lower the energy of activation of a
reaction by binding the substrate.
b) They raise the energy of activation of a
reaction by binding the substrate.
c) They lower the amount of energy present in
the substrate.
_____13. An enzyme is generally named by adding ____ to the
end of the name of the _____.
a) "-ose". cell in which it is found
b) "-ase". cell in which it is found
c) "-ose". substrate
d) "-ase". substrate
e) "-ase". coenzyme
_____14. Which statement describes the currently accepted
theory of how an enzyme and its substrate fit together?
a) As the product is released, the enzyme breaks
down.
b) The enzyme is like a key that fits into the
substrate, which is like a lock.
c) The active site is permanently changed by its
interaction with the substrate.
d) As the substrate binds to the enzyme, the
shape of the enzyme site changes to accommodate the reaction.
_____15. Which statement is Not
true about the effects of various conditions on the activity of an enzyme?
a) Higher temperatures generally increase the
activity of an enzyme up to a point.
b) Above a certain range of temperatures, the
protein of an enzyme is denatured.
c) A change in pH can cause an enzyme to be
inactivated.
d) An enzyme's activity is generally reduced by
an increase in substrate concentration.
e) When sufficient substrate is available, the
active site will nearly always by occupied.
_____16. Which statement is Not
true about enzyme inhibition?
a) In competitive inhibition, the
inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme.
b) In noncompetitive inhibition, the inhibitor
binds to the allosteric site of the substrate.
c) In irreversible inhibition, a poison binds to
the enzyme so that it can never work again.
d) Most inhibitors act in a reversible fashion.
e) All of the above statements are true.
_____17. Which is most closely associated with negative
feedback?
a) As you turn on a faucet, more water flows out
of it.
b) As the sun rises, a morning glory opens its
flowers.
c) As the temperature falls in a house, the
heater comes on.
d) As you study biology more thoroughly, you
learn more about it.
_____18. A coenzyme is
a) an ionic cofactor that interacts with an
enzyme to allow it to work.
b) a protein cofactor
that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work.
c) a nonprotein organic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme
to allow it to work.
d) an ionic cofactor
that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it.
e) a protein cofactor
that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it.
_____19. A substance that is Not
a coenzyme is
a) ATP b)
NAD+ c) NADPH d) FAD
_____20. Solar energy is stored in which molecule during
photosynthesis?
a) FAD b)
ATP c) NADPH d) Both B and C are correct.
_____21. Which organelles contain functioning ATP synthetase complexes in their membranes?
a) Golgi complexes and lysosomes
b) mitochondria and chloroplasts
c) endoplasmic reticulum and vesicles
d) vacuoles and vesicles
e) mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum
_____22. Which term is derived from the Greek root words
meaning "chemical push"?
a) allosteric
b) coenzyme c) vitamin d)
enzyme e) chemiosmosis
_____23. What establishes the electrochemical gradient across
a membrane to provide energy for ATP production?
a) The chloroplast's electron transport system
provides the ions.
b) Hydrogen ions naturally collect on the
outside of the organelle membrane.
c) Hydrogen ions are pumped across the membrane
by carrier proteins.
d) All of the above establish the
electrochemical gradient.
_____24. Consider this reaction. A + B 
C + D +
energy.
a) This reaction is exergonic.
b) An enzyme could still speed the reaction.
c) ATP is not needed to make the reaction go.
d) A and B are reactants; C and D are products.
e) All of these are correct.
_____25. The active site of an enzyme
a) is similar to that of any other enzyme.
b) is the part of the
enzyme where its substrate can fit.
c) can be used over and
over again.
d) is not affected by
environmental factors like pH and temperature.
e) Both B and C are correct.
_____26. If you wanted to increase the of product per unit
time of an enzymatic reaction, do Not increase
a) the amount of substrate
b) the amount of enzyme
c) the temperature somewhat
d) the pH
e) All of these are correct.
_____27. An allosteric site on an
enzyme is
a) the same as the active site.
b) nonprotein
in nature.
c) where ATP attaches
and gives up its energy.
d) often involved in
feedback inhibition.
e) All of these are correct.
_____28. During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide
a) is oxidized to oxygen.
b) is reduced to
glucose.
c) gives up water to the
environment.
d) is a coenzyme of
oxidation-reduction.
e) All of these are correct.
_____29. Electron transport systems
a) are found in both mitochondria and
chloroplasts.
b) release energy as
electrons are transferred.
c) are involved in the
production of ATP.
d) are located in a
membrane.
e) All of these are correct.
_____30. The difference between NAD+ and NADP+ is that
a) only NAD production requires niacin in the
diet.
b) one is an organic
molecule and the other is inorganic because it contains phosphate.
c) one carries
electrons to the electron transport system and the other carries them to
synthetic reactions.
d) one is involved in
cellular respiration and the other is involved in photosynthesis.
e) Both C and D are correct.
_____31. Chemiosmosis is dependent
upon
a) the diffusion of water across a
differentially permeable membrane.
b) an outside supply of
phosphate and other chemicals.
c) the establishment of
an electrochemical hydrogen ion gradient.
d) the ability of ADP
to join with phosphate even in the absence of a supply of energy.
e) All of these are correct.
_____32. A student conducts an experiment to test the
efficiency of a certain enzyme. Which of the
following protocols would probably Not result in a change in the enzyme's
efficiency?
a) Bringing the temperature of the experimental
setup from 20 degrees C to 50 degrees C.
b) Adding an acidic solution to the setup.
c) Adding more substrate but not enzyme.
d) Placing the substrate and enzyme in a
container with double the capacity.
e) Adding enzyme but not substrate.
_____33. A reaction that includes energy as one of its
reactants is called a(n)
a) exergonic
reaction b) hydrolysis reaction c) endergonic
reaction d) redox reaction e)
dehydration reaction
_____34. Which of the following statements about enzymes is
Not True?
a) Competitive inhibitors act away from the
active site.
b) Allosteric
inhibitors act away from the active site.
c) Allosteric
inhibitors can change the size of the active site.
d) Competitive inhibitors usually resemble the
substrate.
e) Noncompetitive inhibitors are allosteric inhibitors.
_____35. In noncompetitive inhibition, the allosteric inhibitor
a) attaches to the active site, preventing the substrate from attaching
there.
b) attaches to the
substrate, preventing it from attaching to the active site.
c) changes the pH of
the environment, thus preventing enzyme-substrate complex formation.
d) causes the
substrates to polymerize, preventing individual enzyme-substrate attachment.
e) attaches to the
enzyme at a site away from the active site, altering the shape of the enzyme.
_____36. Which of the following statements is Not True about
all enzymes?
a) are proteins.
b) lower the activation
energy of reactions.
c) operate at the same
optimum pH.
d) can be identified
because their names end in - ase.
e) require a coenzyme
to work effectively.
_____37. In an endergonic reaction,
the products of a reaction contain
a) more energy than the reactants, and energy is
released.
b) more energy than the
reactants, and energy must be supplied.
c) less energy than the
reactants, and energy is released.
d) less energy than the
reactants, and energy must be supplied.
e) the same amount of
energy than the reactants, but due to the presence of an enzyme, energy is
released.
_____38. _____ energy is stored
energy.
a) kinetic
b) heated c) nuclear d)
potential e) None of the above.
_____39. ____ energy is the energy of
moving objects.
a) kinetic
b) heated c) nuclear d)
potential e) None of the above.
_____40. The energy in a system available for doing work is
known as
a) usable energy b) free
energy c) unusable energy d) heat e)
total energy
_____41. Enzymes do what to chemical reactions?
a) slow them down
b) speed them up
c) break them into individual chemicals
d) replace certain chemicals in the reaction
e) None of the above.
_____42. Physicists have defined a formal measure of disorder,
called
a) randomness b)
displacement c) entropy d)
disorganization e) None of the above.
_____43. The minimum amount of energy needed for a process to
occur is called the
a) minimal energy theory b) process
energy c) kinetic energy d) activation
energy e) None of the above.
_____44. If an organism's enzymes lose their activity, they
are said to be
a) stable b)
denatured c) unstable d)
motionless e) All of the above.
_____45. Enzymes accelerate specific chemical reactions by
binding to the reacting molecules, which are called
a) substrates b)
catalysts c) enzymatic buffers d) molecular
plastids e) None of the above.
_____46. An inhibitor that changes the overall shape and
chemistry of an enzyme is known as a(n)
a) allosteric
inhibitor b) competitive inhibitor c) steric inhibitor d) noncompetitive
inhibitor e) None of the above.
_____47. Which of the following will least affect the
effectiveness of an enzyme?
a) Temperature b) pH c)
Concentration of substrate d) Concentration of enzyme
e) Original activation energy of system