AP Evo & Classification

AP Evo & Classification

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Spontaneous generation has been offered as an explanation for

a.	the birth of live offspring from a mother
b.	the germination of a seed.
c.	the appearance of maggots on rotting meat.
d.	All of the above

____ 2. How did Redi test the hypothesis of spontaneous generation?

a.	He placed meat in one container and left another container empty; he then observed the containers for the appearance of maggots.
b.	He placed meat in two containers and covered one of them; he then observed the containers for the appearance of maggots.
c.	He placed meat in two containers and fly eggs in one of them; he then observed the containers for the appearance of maggots.
d.	He placed adult flies in two containers, one with meat in it and one without. He then observed the containers for the appearance of maggots.

____ 3. What did Pasteur do in his experiments on spontaneous generation that other scientists before him had not done?

a.	He boiled the broth in his flasks.
b.	He sealed his flasks.
c.	He used curve-necked flasks and left them open.
d.	He added microorganisms to the broth before he boiled it.

____ 4. The age of Earth is estimated to be

a.	2 million years.	c.	2 trillion years.
b.	2 billion years.	d.	4 billion years.

____ 5. Which of the following is not thought to have been a factor in the formation of Earth?

a.	Pieces of debris in space collided with Earth, thereby heating it.
b.	Pieces of debris in space added to the size of Earth.
c.	Earth was formed from debris that circled the sun as it formed.
d.	Earth was formed from the collision of two small stars.

____ 6. If the half-life of a radioactive isotope is 5,000 years, how much of the radioactive isotope in a specimen will be left after 10,000 years?

a.	all of it	c.	one-quarter of the original amount
b.	one-half of the original amount	d.	none of it

____ 7. The half-life of a radioisotope

a.	does not change.	c.	increases as the radioisotope ages.
b.	varies with the seasons.	d.	fluctuates.

____ 8. The age of fossils, such as those of bones, can often be determined by

a.	their magnetism.
b.	measuring the amount of a specific radioactive isotope in the fossil bones.
c.	analyzing the DNA in the bones.
d.	their developmental pattern.

____ 9. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5,730 years. How much of an initial amount of this substance would remain after 17,190 years, which is three half-lives?

a.	none	c.	one-fourth
b.	one-half	d.	one-eighth

____ 10. Isotopes are forms of the same element that differ in

a.	atomic number.	c.	number of neutrons.
b.	number of electrons.	d.	number of protons.

____ 11. Which of the following gases was thought by Oparin to be part of Earth’s early atmosphere?

a.	oxygen	c.	ammonia
b.	ozone	d.	carbon dioxide

____ 12. Oparin believed that macromolecules, such as proteins, first appeared

a.	in volcanoes.	c.	in water.
b.	in the atmosphere.	d.	on iron pyrite and clay.

____ 13. Miller and Urey did not use oxygen gas in their apparatus because oxygen

a.	is not essential to most forms of life.
b.	does not react with ammonia, methane, or hydrogen.
c.	would have led to the formation of microorganisms.
d.	was not believed to have been present in Earth’s early atmosphere.

____ 14. In their experiment, Miller and Urey produced

a.	energy.	c.	radioactive isotopes.
b.	microorganisms.	d.	amino acids.

The apparatus shown below was used by scientists in the 1950s to re-create the conditions of early Earth.

____ 15. Refer to the illustration above. Miller and Urey’s apparatus was designed to demonstrate that life on Earth might have originated from

a.	radioactive decay.	c.	extraterrestrial life.
b.	simple organic molecules.	d.	None of the above

____ 16. Refer to the illustration above. Water vapor in the reaction chamber labeled “C” was mixed with all of the following except

a.	ammonia.	c.	oxygen.
b.	hydrogen.	d.	methane.

____ 17. Refer to the illustration above. Gases were circulated through the apparatus. When the mixture reached the reaction chamber labeled “C,” an electric spark was activated so that

a.	they could be removed for analysis.
b.	extra nitrogen could be added.
c.	lightning discharge through the gases could be simulated.
d.	excess carbon monoxide could be removed.

____ 18. Experiments conducted by Miller and Urey, and by others since them, have demonstrated that molecules important for life could have been produced in Earth’s early atmosphere. These molecules include amino acids, carbohydrates, lipids, ATP, and nucleotides of DNA and RNA. Which of the following suggests how the genetic material of cells may have evolved to give instructions for the functioning and replication of cells?

a.	A spark of electricity can catalyze chemical reactions that produce proteins from DNA.
b.	Cells link amino acids together into proteins, using instructions carried in the DNA and enzymes to catalyze the reactions.
c.	RNA, like enzymes, can catalyze chemical reactions, and some RNA molecules could be self-replicating.
d.	Chains of nucleotides form when water evaporates from a solution of nucleotides.

____ 19. RNA

a.	was probably the first genetic molecule.
b.	can undergo natural selection and thus can evolve.
c.	probably evolved before DNA.
d.	All of the above

____ 20. RNA

a.	has a three-dimensional structure.	c.	can act like an enzyme.
b.	is a nucleic acid.	d.	All of the above

____ 21. RNA molecules can

a.	catalyze the synthesis of DNA.
b.	catalyze the synthesis of lipid bilayers.
c.	produce complementary copies of their own nucleotide sequence.
d.	All of the above

____ 22. Presently, scientists think that DNA

a.	evolved before RNA.
b.	evolved simultaneously with RNA.
c.	was essential for the formation of the first cells.
d.	evolved after RNA.

____ 23. The first macromolecules on Earth were

a.	probably composed of DNA.	c.	probably composed of RNA.
b.	proteins.	d.	forms of ATP.

____ 24. Scientists think that the first cells resembled modern

a.	animal cells.	c.	archaebacteria.
b.	mitochondria.	d.	chloroplasts.

____ 25. Scientists have inferred that the first cells were

a.	prokaryotic and autotrophic.	c.	eukaryotic and autotrophic.
b.	prokaryotic and heterotrophic.	d.	eukaryotic and heterotrophic.

____ 26. Which of the following is a true difference between photosynthetic organisms and chemosynthetic organisms?

a.	They differ in the source of energy they use to produce organic molecules.
b.	They differ in the source of carbon they use to produce organic molecules.
c.	Photosynthetic organisms are found on Earth today, while chemosynthetic organisms are no longer found on Earth.
d.	Photosynthetic organisms are eukaryotic, while chemosynthetic organisms are prokaryotic.

____ 27. The surface of Earth is protected from damaging ultraviolet light by

a.	oxygen.	c.	hydrogen.
b.	ozone.	d.	nitrogen.

____ 28. Which of the following is thought to have been an important early function of aerobic respiration?

a.	It enabled some early organisms to live on land.
b.	It consumed oxygen that could destroy chemicals in early organisms.
c.	It protected early organisms from ultraviolet radiation, which damages DNA.
d.	All of the above

____ 29. Many scientists think that early aerobic prokaryotes invaded larger cells and eventually gave rise to

a.	chloroplasts.	c.	mitochondria.
b.	DNA.	d.	ribosomes.

____ 30. Which of the following are examples of fossils?

a.	shells or old bones
b.	any traces of dead organisms
c.	footprints of human ancestors, insects trapped in tree sap, and animals buried in tar
d.	All of the above

____ 31. Animal fossils may form when

a.	an animal is buried by sediment.
b.	burial takes place on the ocean floor, in swamps, in mud, or in tar pits.
c.	the tissue is replaced by harder minerals.
d.	All of the above

____ 32. Darwin conducted much of his research on

a.	the Samoan Islands.	c.	the Hawaiian Islands.
b.	Manhattan Island.	d.	the Galapagos Islands.

____ 33. The finches that Darwin studied differed in the shape of their beaks. According to Darwin, the finches probably

a.	all had a common ancestor.
b.	had been created by design that way.
c.	were descended from similar birds in Africa.
d.	ate the same diet.

____ 34. Darwin thought that the plants and animals of the Galapagos Islands were similar to those of the nearby coast of South America because

a.	their ancestors had migrated from South America to the Galapagos Islands.
b.	they had all been created by God to match their habitat.
c.	the island organisms had the same nucleotide sequences in their DNA as the mainland organisms.
d.	he found fossils proving that the animals and plants had common ancestors.

____ 35. The process by which a population becomes better suited to its environment is known as

a.	accommodation.	c.	adaptation.
b.	variation.	d.	selection.

____ 36. In order to fit into their habitat, the Galapagos finches had

a.	not changed.	c.	evolved.
b.	been created as superior birds.	d.	All of the above

____ 37. According to Darwin, evolution occurs

a.	by chance.
b.	during half-life periods of 5,715 years.
c.	because of natural selection.
d.	rapidly.

____ 38. Organisms well suited to their environment

a.	reproduce more successfully than those less suited to the same environment.
b.	are always larger than organisms less suited to that environment.
c.	always live longer than organisms less suited to that environment.
d.	need less food than organisms less suited to that environment.

____ 39. When Darwin published his theory of evolution, he included all of the following ideas except

a.	the idea that species change slowly over time.
b.	the idea that some organisms reproduce at a greater rate than others.
c.	Mendel’s ideas about genetics.
d.	the idea that some organisms become less suited to their environment than others.

____ 40. The major idea that Darwin presented in his book The Origin of Species was that

a.	species changed over time and never competed with each other.
b.	animals changed, but plants remained the same.
c.	giraffes and peppered moths changed constantly.
d.	species changed over time by natural selection.

____ 41. Natural selection is the process by which

a.	the age of selected fossils is calculated.
b.	organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce more successfully than less well-adapted organisms in the same environment.
c.	acquired traits are passed on from one generation to the next.
d.	All of the above

____ 42. Natural selection could not occur without

a.	genetic variation in species.	c.	competition for unlimited resources.
b.	environmental changes.	d.	gradual warming of the Earth.

____ 43. Populations of the same species living in different places

a.	do not vary.
b.	always show balancing selection.
c.	have a half-life in relation to the size of the population.
d.	become increasingly different as each becomes adapted to its own environment.

____ 44. Scarcity of resources and a growing population are most likely to result in

a.	homology.	c.	competition.
b.	protective coloration.	d.	convergent evolution.

____ 45. Since natural resources are limited, all organisms

a.	must migrate to new habitats.	c.	display vestigial structures.
b.	must compete for resources.	d.	have a species half-life.

____ 46. Refer to the illustration above. An analysis of DNA from these organisms would indicate that

a.	they have identical DNA.
b.	they all have gill pouches.
c.	their nucleotide sequences show many similarities.
d.	they all have the same number of chromosomes.

____ 47. Refer to the illustration above. The similarity of these structures suggests that the organisms

a.	share a common ancestor.	c.	evolved slowly.
b.	all grow at different rates.	d.	live for a long time.

____ 48. Refer to the illustration above. The bones labeled “A” are known as

a.	vestigial structures.	c.	homologous structures.
b.	sequential structures.	d.	fossil structures.

____ 49. Which of the following is a vestigial structure?

a.	the human tailbone	c.	flower color
b.	the bill of a finch	d.	fossil cast

____ 50. Homologous structures in organisms suggest that the organisms

a.	share a common ancestor.	c.	have a skeletal structure.
b.	must have lived at different times.	d.	are now extinct.

____ 51. Structures that no longer serve an important function are called

a.	inorganic.	c.	fossilized.
b.	mutated.	d.	vestigial.

____ 52. The beak of a bird and the beak of a giant squid evolved independently and serve the same function. The beaks are

a.	convergent structures.	c.	analogous structures.
b.	homologous structures.	d.	hybrid structures.

____ 53. vestigial structures : macroevolution ::

a.	homologous structures : common ancestry
b.	common ancestry : fossils
c.	common ancestry : rock
d.	homologous structures : unrelated species

____ 54. The occurrence of the same blood protein in a group of species provides evidence that these species

a.	evolved in the same habitat.
b.	evolved in different habitats.
c.	descended from a common ancestor.
d.	descended from different ancestors.

____ 55. Evidence for evolution includes all of the following except

a.	acquired characteristics.
b.	similarities and differences in proteins and DNA sequences between organisms.
c.	the fossil record.
d.	homologous structures.

____ 56. The theory of evolution predicts that

a.	closely related species will show similarities in nucleotide sequences.
b.	if species have changed over time, their genes should have changed.
c.	closely related species will show similarities in amino acid sequences.
d.	All of the above

____ 57. Cytochrome c is a protein that is involved in cellular respiration in all eukaryotic organisms. Human cytochrome c contains 104 amino acids. The following table compares cytochrome c from a number of other organisms with human cytochrome c.

Organism	Number of cytochrome c amino acids different from humans
Chimpanzees	0
Chickens	18
Dogs	13
Rattlesnakes	20
Rhesus monkeys	1
Yeasts	56

Which of the following is not a valid conclusion that can be drawn from these data?

a.	Chimpanzees are more closely related to humans than rhesus monkeys are.
b.	The cytochrome c of chimpanzees differs from that of rhesus monkeys by only one amino acid.
c.	Dogs are more closely related to humans than chickens are.
d.	The proteins produced by chimpanzees and humans are identical to each other. Therefore these organisms differ in characteristics that aren’t determined by proteins.

____ 58. The accumulation of differences between species or populations is called

a.	gradualism.	c.	divergent evolution.
b.	adaptation.	d.	cumulative differentiation.

____ 59. The process by which two or more species change in response to each other is called

a.	compromise.	c.	coevolution.
b.	parasitism.	d.	ecology.

____ 60. Over millions of years, plants and their pollinators have

a.	coevolved.	c.	become parasites.
b.	crossbred.	d.	become competitive.

A Comparison of Dolphins and Sharks

____ 61. Refer to the illustration above. While the shark and dolphin are similar in appearance, they evolved independently. This is an example of

a.	cladistics.	c.	convergent evolution.
b.	phenetics.	d.	divergent evolution.

____ 62. Refer to the illustration above. A shark’s skeleton is made of cartilage while a dolphin’s skeleton is made of bone. This is one reason the two organisms are placed in different

a.	kingdoms.	c.	subphyla.
b.	phyla.	d.	classes.

____ 63. Refer to the illustration above. Because both organisms in the diagram are vertebrates, they are classified in the same

a.	phylum.	c.	order.
b.	genus.	d.	class.

____ 64. A biologist analyzes the DNA sequences in three different primates. The biologist finds that primates “A“ and “B” have almost exactly the same DNA sequences. The DNA sequences in primate “C” are significantly different from those of primate “A” and primate “B”. This information allows the biologist to infer that

a.	primates “A” and “B” are more closely related to each other than either is to primate “C.”
b.	all three primates appeared on Earth at about the same time.
c.	either primate “A” or primate “B” must be a direct ancestor of primate “C.”
d.	primate “C” must have been the ancestor of both primate “A” and “B.”

____ 65. Which of the following describes a population?

a.	dogs and cats living in Austin, Texas
b.	four species of fish living in a pond
c.	dogwood trees in Middletown, Connecticut
d.	roses and tulips in a garden

____ 66. Variation in genotype is caused by

a.	mutations only.
b.	recombination of genes as a result of sexual reproduction.
c.	phenotypes changing more quickly than genotypes.
d.	None of the above

____ 67. Cystic fibrosis is a disease caused by a recessive allele. The disease occurs in about 1 out of every 2000 North American Caucasians. Approximately how many North American Caucasians out of 1000 will be carriers, heterozygous for the cystic fibrosis allele?

a.	4.3	c.	43
b.	8.6	d.	86

____ 68. The number of individuals with a particular phenotype divided by the total number of individuals in the population is the

a.	genotype frequency.	c.	Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
b.	phenotype frequency.	d.	allele frequency.

____ 69. RR : homozygous dominant ::

a.	Rr : heterozygous	c.	Yy : homozygous
b.	rr : heterozygous recessive	d.	yy : heterozygous dominant

____ 70. recessive allele frequency : 0.02 ::

a.	dominant allele frequency : 0.01	c.	dominant allele frequency : 0.98
b.	dominant allele frequency : 0.04	d.	dominant allele frequency : 1.0

____ 71. Actual proportions of homozygotes and heterozygotes can differ from Hardy-Weinberg predictions because of

a.	the occurrence of mutations.
b.	nonrandom mating among individuals.
c.	genetic drift within the population.
d.	All of the above

____ 72. Which of the following conditions is required for Hardy-Weinberg genetic equilibrium?

a.	No mutations occur.
b.	The population is infinitely large.
c.	Individuals neither leave nor enter the population.
d.	All of the above are required.

____ 73. Natural selection acts

a.	on heterozygous genotypes.	c.	on phenotypes that are expressed.
b.	only on recessive alleles.	d.	on all mutations.

____ 74. The movement of alleles into or out of a population due to migration is called

a.	mutation.	c.	nonrandom mating.
b.	gene flow.	d.	natural selection.

____ 75. Which of the following conditions can cause evolution to take place?

a.	genetic drift	c.	nonrandom mating
b.	migration	d.	All of the above

____ 76. Gene flow describes the

a.	movement of genes from one generation to the next.
b.	movement of genes from one population to another.
c.	exchange of genes during recombination.
d.	movement of genes within a population because of interbreeding.

____ 77. nonrandom mating : increasing proportion of homozygotes ::

a.	migration of individuals : gene flow
b.	mutation : major change in allele frequencies
c.	Hardy-Weinberg equation : natural selection
d.	inbreeding : frequency of alleles

____ 78. What type of population is most susceptible to loss of genetic variability as a result of genetic drift?

a.	large populations	c.	small populations
b.	medium-sized populations	d.	populations that fluctuate in size

____ 79. A change in the frequency of a particular gene in one direction in a population is called

a.	directional selection.	c.	chromosome drift.
b.	acquired variation.	d.	stabilizing selection.

____ 80. The type of selection that may eliminate intermediate phenotypes is

a.	direction selection.	c.	polygenic selection.
b.	disruptive selection.	d.	stabilizing selection.

____ 81. Directional selection tends to eliminate

a.	both extremes in a range of phenotypes.
b.	one extreme in a range of phenotypes.
c.	intermediate phenotypes.
d.	None of the above; it causes new phenotypes to form.

____ 82. The large, brightly colored tail feathers of the male peacock are valuable to him because

a.	they warn off potential predators.
b.	they warn off potential competitors for mates.
c.	they attract potential mates.
d.	they attract people who provide them with food.

____ 83. The major limitation to the morphological concept of species is that

a.	there may be a great deal of phenotypic variability in a species.
b.	organisms that actually can interbreed may have very different physical characteristics.
c.	it does not consider whether individuals of a species can mate and produce viable offspring.
d.	All of the above

____ 84. Speciation can occur as a result of geographic isolation because

a.	members of a species can no longer find mates.
b.	populations that live in different environments may be exposed to different selection pressures.
c.	the biological concept of species defines noninterbreeding individuals as members of different species.
d.	All of the above

____ 85. Which of the following is an example of postzygotic isolation?

a.	A mating call is not recognized by a potential mate.
b.	Mating times of potential mates differ.
c.	Offspring of two individuals of two interbreeding species die early.
d.	None of the above

____ 86. The hypothesis that evolution occurs at a slow, constant rate is known as

a.	gradualism.	c.	natural selection.
b.	slow motion.	d.	adaptation.

____ 87. The hypothesis that evolution occurs at an irregular rate through geologic time is known as

a.	directional evolution.	c.	punctuated equilibrium.
b.	directional equilibrium.	d.	punctuated evolution.

____ 88. Which of the following is not a form of prezygotic isolation?

a.	different months of flowering of two wildflower species
b.	species-specific recognition proteins on the surfaces of egg and sperm cells
c.	different courtship rituals of different species
d.	the formation of a sterile hybrid between two species

____ 89. Examination of some hominid fossils and their surroundings can reveal the fossil organism’s

a.	diet.	c.	brain size.
b.	age.	d.	All of the above

____ 90. The first primates probably resembled modern

a.	humans.	c.	gorillas.
b.	prosimians.	d.	chimpanzees.

____ 91. Two distinctive features of all primates are

a.	depth perception and grasping hands.
b.	grasping hands and feet.
c.	depth perception and S-shaped spines.
d.	opposable thumbs and S-shaped spines.

____ 92. Anthropoid primates are different from prosimians in that they

a.	have opposable thumbs and large brains.
b.	live in trees.
c.	have binocular vision.
d.	only come out at night.

____ 93. Because DNA sequences in humans and chimpanzees are very similar,

a.	humans must have evolved from chimpanzees.
b.	chimpanzees must have single-stranded DNA.
c.	humans and chimpanzees probably shared a recent a common ancestor.
d.	humans and chimpanzees are the same species.

The diagram below illustrates the evolutionary relationship between apes and humans.

____ 94. Refer to the illustration above. According to the diagram, gorillas evolved

a.	about 7 million years ago.
b.	more than 10 million years ago.
c.	about the same time as orangutans did.
d.	after chimpanzees did.

____ 95. Refer to the illustration above. According to the diagram,

a.	humans evolved from gibbons.
b.	humans evolved from chimpanzees.
c.	humans and chimpanzees share a common ancestor.
d.	humans evolved long before chimpanzees did.

Skeletons of two Primates

____ 96. Refer to the illustration above. The bone labeled “A” on both primates is the

a.	pelvis.	c.	fibula.
b.	femur.	d.	spine.

____ 97. Refer to the illustration above. Diagram “2” shows the skeleton of a

a.	chimpanzee.	c.	prosimian.
b.	gorilla.	d.	hominid.

____ 98. Refer to the illustration above. By examining the skeletons in the diagram, scientists would conclude that only the primate labeled “2”

a.	could walk upright on two legs.	c.	had opposable big toes.
b.	had opposable thumbs.	d.	All of the above

____ 99. Chimpanzees are different from humans in that they

a.	have long hair and walk on four legs.
b.	have identical skeletons but smaller brains.
c.	have very different DNA from that of humans.
d.	All of the above

The diagrams below represent jaws from two kinds of primates.

1 2

____ 100. Refer to the illustration above. The teeth labeled “A” in the diagram are

a.	molars.	c.	canines.
b.	premolars.	d.	incisors.

____ 101. Refer to the illustration above. Diagram “2” is probably the jaw of a

a.	chimpanzee.	c.	prosimian.
b.	gorilla.	d.	hominid.

____ 102. Language

a.	is unique to humans.	c.	is typical of the anthropoids.
b.	is not present in monkeys.	d.	is found in all animals.

____ 103. Which of the following characteristics is most easily inferred from the measurement of a fossil skull’s cranial capacity?

a.	intelligence	c.	cultural development
b.	brain size	d.	evolutionary position

____ 104. Lucy’s skeleton revealed that she was bipedal. This means that she

a.	walked using all four limbs.	c.	walked on two legs.
b.	lived in trees.	d.	crawled along the jungle floor.

____ 105. All australopithecine fossils have been found in

a.	South America.	c.	Australia.
b.	Africa.	d.	Asia.

____ 106. Which of the following hominids is probably an ancestor of modern humans?

a.	Australopithecus afarensis	c.	Australopithecus robustus
b.	Australopithecus africanus	d.	All of the above

____ 107. The human evolutionary tree is best represented by

a.	a single trunk with no side branches.
b.	one major trunk and one side branch.
c.	many parallel branches.
d.	All of the above

____ 108. An examination of australopithecine fossils indicates that australopithecines

a.	were shorter than modern humans.	c.	had relatively small brains.
b.	were bipedal.	d.	All of the above

____ 109. A fossil organism discovered in 1995 which may or may not have been bipedal is

a.	Australopithecus anamensis.	c.	Australopithecus africanus.
b.	Australopithecus afarensis.	d.	Ardipithecus ramidus.

____ 110. The first member of the genus Homo was

a.	Homo sapiens.	c.	Homo habilis.
b.	Homo erectus.	d.	Homo hominid.

____ 111. Homo erectus

a.	had a large brain.	c.	was larger than Homo habilis.
b.	walked erect.	d.	All of the above

____ 112. Hunting large animals, use of fire, and living in caves are associated with

a.	H. habilis.	c.	A. robustus.
b.	A. africanus.	d.	H. erectus.

____ 113. When comparing Homo habilis and Homo erectus, we find that

a.	Homo habilis was taller and walked upright.
b.	Homo habilis had a larger brain.
c.	Homo erectus was taller and walked upright.
d.	Homo erectus built houses and grew crops.

____ 114. orangutan : ape ::

a.	Homo erectus : hominid	c.	monkey : ape
b.	Australopithecus : Homo	d.	hominid : ape

____ 115. Neanderthals probably evolved from

a.	H. habilis.	c.	H. erectus.
b.	A. africanus.	d.	A. boisei.

____ 116. Modern Homo sapiens appeared in Africa about

a.	10 million years ago.	c.	100,000 years ago.
b.	1 million years ago.	d.	10,000 years ago.

____ 117. The Neanderthals are noted for

a.	having heavily-built bodies.
b.	using several tools to scrape animal hides.
c.	having a larger brain size than modern humans.
d.	All of the above

____ 118. Modern humans are most closely related to

a.	A. boisei.	c.	A. africanus.
b.	Neanderthals.	d.	Homo habilis.

____ 119. The hypothesis that Homo sapiens evolved in Africa is supported by the finding that

a.	Homo sapiens have different numbers of chromosomes.
b.	most human mitochondria have very similar genes.
c.	only modern Africans have mitochondrial DNA.
d.	human mitochondrial DNA shows millions of years of accumulated mutations.

____ 120. The science of classifying living things is called

a.	identification.	c.	taxonomy.
b.	classification.	d.	speciation.

____ 121. Taxonomy is defined as the science of

a.	classifying plants according to their uses in agricultural experiments.
b.	studying ribosomal RNA sequencing techniques.
c.	grouping organisms according to their charateristics and evoluntionary history.
d.	studying reproductive mechanisms and gene flow.

____ 122. As we move through the biological hierarchy from the kingdom to species level, organisms

a.	vary more and more.
b.	are less and less related to each other.
c.	become more similar in appearance.
d.	always are members of the same order.

____ 123. A mushroom is difficult to classify in Linnaeus’s two-kingdom classification system because

a.	it has another common name, the toadstool.
b.	it doesn’t seem to fit into either category.
c.	mushrooms had not yet evolved in Linnaeus's time.
d.	All of the above

____ 124. Which of the following was not a consideration for Carolus Linnaeus when he developed his system of nomenclature of organisms?

a.	It should include detailed descriptions of an organism in its name.
b.	It should assign each organism a unique name.
c.	It should assign names using a language that can be recognized worldwide.
d.	It should enable scientists to classify organisms according to their presumed evolutionary relationships to other organisms.

____ 125. Which of the following scientists developed the system of classifying organisms by assigning them a genus and species name?

a.	Leakey	c.	Darwin
b.	Aristotle	d.	Linnaeus

____ 126. The organism Quercus phellos is a member of the genus

a.	Plantae.	c.	Quercus.
b.	phellos.	d.	Protista.

____ 127. Poison ivy is also known as Rhus toxicodendron. Its species identifier is

a.	poison.	c.	ivy.
b.	Rhus.	d.	toxicodendron.

____ 128. The red maple is also known as Acer rubrum. Its scientific name is

a.	red maple.	c.	rubrum.
b.	Acer.	d.	Acer rubrum.

____ 129. The scientific name of an organism

a.	varies according to the native language of scientists.
b.	is the same for scientists all over the world.
c.	may refer to more than one species.
d.	may have more than one genus name.

____ 130. Scientists don’t use the common names of organisms because

a.	an organism may have more than one common name.
b.	common names are too ambiguous.
c.	an organism rarely has the same name in different languages.
d.	All of the above

____ 131. An organism can have

a.	one genus name and one species identifier.
b.	one genus name and two species identifiers.
c.	two scientific names if it is found on different continents.
d.	two genus names but only one species identifier.

____ 132. Scientific names are written in what language?

a.	English	c.	Arabic
b.	Greek	d.	Latin

____ 133. Two organisms in the same class but different orders will

a.	be in different kingdoms.	c.	be in the same phylum.
b.	have the same genus name.	d.	be members of the same species.

____ 134. Organisms in different genera

a.	may share the second word of their scientific names.
b.	may be in the same family.
c.	may be in different orders.
d.	All of the above

____ 135. Two organisms in the same order but different families may

a.	be more similar than two organisms in different classes.
b.	be in the same class.
c.	have the same species identifier.
d.	All of the above

____ 136. Kingdoms are divided into phyla, and a phylum is divided into

a.	families.	c.	orders.
b.	classes.	d.	genera.

____ 137. The correct order of the biological hierarchy from kingdom to species is

a.	kingdom, class, family, order, phylum, genus, species.
b.	kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus, species.
c.	kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species.
d.	kingdom, class, order, phylum, family, genus, species.

____ 138. The lowest hierarchy level in biological classification is the

a.	genus.	c.	family.
b.	species.	d.	order.

____ 139. Which of the following is the least inclusive classification group?

a.	class	c.	phylum
b.	genus	d.	species

____ 140. Quercus rubra : Quercus phellos ::

a.	Anolis carolinensis : Parus carolinensis
b.	Erithacus rubicula : Turdus migratoria
c.	Aphis pomi : Aphis gossypii
d.	carp : goldfish

____ 141. class : family ::

a.	order : phylum	c.	species : genus
b.	genus : class	d.	phylum : order

____ 142. Today, biologists classify organisms by their

a.	physical similarities.	c.	behavioral similarities.
b.	chemical similarities.	d.	All of the above

____ 143. Phylogenetic trees depict

a.	known evolutionary relationships between organisms.
b.	presumed evolutionary relationships based on morphological evidence.
c.	only living organisms.
d.	presumed evolutionary relationships based on a variety of types of evidence.

____ 144. The organism at the base of a phylogenetic tree is

a.	the oldest living organism among those depicted in the tree.
b.	the common ancestor of all the organisms depicted in the tree.
c.	the modern form of the common ancestor of all the organisms depicted in the tree.
d.	the simplest organisms among those depicted in the tree.

____ 145. The DNA sequences of two species of sharks would

a.	be more similar than the DNA sequences of a shark and a dolphin.
b.	show no discernible differences.
c.	be very close to the DNA sequences of a dolphin.
d.	indicate how the sharks evolved.

____ 146. Which of the following types of characteristics is used in systematic taxonomy to organize organisms?

a.	patterns of embryological development
b.	morphology
c.	amino acid sequences of proteins
d.	All of the above

____ 147. If an early arthropod and early vertebrate embryo are split,

a.	both halves of both organisms will become whole, twin organisms.
b.	both halves of both organisms will die.
c.	both halves of the arthropod embryo will become whole, twin organisms, while both halves of the vertebrate embryo will die.
d.	both halves of the arthropod embryo will die, while both halves of the vertebrate embryo will become whole, twin organisms.

____ 148. analogous characters : convergent evolution ::

a.	two members of the same genus : same species
b.	cladogram : evolutionary relationships
c.	common names : universal identification
d.	cladograms : exact, direct information

____ 149. Refer to the illustration above. A branching diagram like the one shown is called a

a.	phenetic tree.	c.	family tree.
b.	cladogram.	d.	homology.

____ 150. Refer to the illustration above. Each unique character, such as dry skin, that is used to assign an organism to a group is known as a(n)

a.	special character.	c.	derived character.
b.	analogous character.	d.	homologous character.

____ 151. Nearly all single-celled eukaryotes that are either heterotrophic or photosynthetic belong to the kingdom

a.	Animalia.	c.	Plantae.
b.	Fungi.	d.	Protista.

____ 152. Most multicellular, nucleated autotrophs that carry on photosynthesis belong to the kingdom

a.	Animalia.	c.	Fungi.
b.	Eubacteria.	d.	Plantae.

____ 153. Multicellular, nucleated heterotrophs that always obtain food by absorbing nutrients from the environment belong to the kingdom

a.	Animalia.	c.	Fungi.
b.	Eubacteria.	d.	Plantae.

Phylogenetic Tree of the Six Kingdoms

____ 154. Refer to the illustration above. The kingdom represented in box “C” is

a.	Archaebacteria.	c.	Eubacteria.
b.	Protista.	d.	Fungi.

____ 155. Refer to the illustration above. The kingdom represented in box “B” is

a.	Archaebacteria.	c.	Eubacteria.
b.	Protista.	d.	Fungi.

____ 156. Refer to the illustration above. The kingdom represented in box “A” is

a.	Archaebacteria.	c.	Eubacteria.
b.	Protista.	d.	Fungi.

____ 157. An organism that breaks down organic matter, which it then absorbs, is in the kingdom

a.	Fungi.	c.	Animalia.
b.	Plantae.	d.	Protista.

____ 158. Archaebacteria can be distinguished from eubacteria because of differences in their

a.	cell walls.	c.	gene architecture.
b.	cell membranes.	d.	All of the above

____ 159. Simple, non-nucleated organisms that use hydrogen to produce methane are in the kingdom

a.	Archaebacteria.	c.	Protista.
b.	Eubacteria.	d.	Fungi.

____ 160. The catchall kingdom is kingdom

a.	Protista.	c.	Animalia.
b.	Plantae.	d.	Fungi.

____ 161. The three-domain system of classification is based on ____ evidence.

a.	embryological	c.	molecular
b.	fossil	d.	morphological

____ 162. The three domain system of classification is based on similarities and differences in ____ evidence. The six-kingdom system is based on similarities and differences in ____ evidence.

a.	DNA; DNA, fossil, embryological, and morphological
b.	molecular structure; embryological, fossil, morphological, and molecular structure
c.	ribosomal RNA; embryological, fossil, morphological, and a variety of molecular
d.	morphological; embryological, fossil, morphological, and a variety of molecular

Problem

163. For each of the characteristics named below, describe how it might provide a selective advantage for males possessing the characteristic. Write your answers in the space below.

a. larger than average antlers on a deer

b. a more elaborate than average nest built by a bower bird

c. the ability of an insect to remove another insect’s sperm packet from the reproductive tract of a female

164. You are a biologist accompanying some other scientists on an expedition in a region that has not been studied intensively. In your explorations, you come across a colony of small vertebrates that do not look familiar to you. After conducting electronic searches of worldwide data bases, you arrive at the tentative conclusion that this organism has never been observed before. Now your job is to determine what kind of vertebrate it is by identifying its closest relatives. Identify three types of data that you would collect and describe how you would use these data to draw your conclusions. Write your answer in the space below.

165. You are given three organisms that all have wings. You are asked to determine how closely related these organisms are to each other. Because you have only simple laboratory facilities, you cannot analyze the DNA of these organisms. You also do not have embryos of your organisms to study.

a. Select from among the following list of characteristics those that you would use in order to determine how closely related your organisms are. Circle your answers, or write them on a separate piece of paper.

Presence or absence of a backbone

Presence or absence of the ability to fly

Presence or absence of feathers

Presence or absence of limbs or appendages

Presence or absence of mammary glands

Presence or absence of scales

Presence or absence of a tail

Presence or absence of teeth or a jaw

Write your answers to the following in the space below or on a separate sheet of paper.

b. Consider now that you have collected the following data on your organisms: Organism A does not have a backbone, is able to fly, does not have feathers, has limbs or appendages, does not have mammary glands, does not have scales, does not have a tail, and does have a jaw. Organism B has a backbone, is able to fly, does not have feathers, has limbs or appendages, does have mammary glands, does not have scales, does have a tail, and does have teeth and a jaw. Organism C has a backbone, is able to fly, does have feathers, has limbs or appendages, does not have mammary glands, has some scales, has a tail, and has teeth and a jaw. Which two of these three organisms are most closely related to each other?

c. What types of animals are your organisms? Make your best estimate based on the information you have gathered and what you know about different types of animals.

d. For each of the three organisms, identify the phylum and class to which they belong.

e. s the presence of wings on all three of these animals an example of convergent or divergent evolution?

166. The following table presents data on some characteristics found in vertebrates. A “+” indicates that an organism has a particular characteristic and a “–” indicates that an organism does not have a particular characteristic.

Characteristics

Organism	Jaws	Limbs	Hair	Lungs	Tail
Lamprey	–	–	–	–	+
Turtle	+	+	–	+	+
Cat	+	+	+	+	+
Gorilla	+	+	+	+	+
Lungfish	+	–	–	+	+
Trout	+	–	–	–	+
Human	+	+	+	+	–

Using these data, construct a cladogram illustrating the evolutionary relationships among these organisms. Each branch point should indicate a common ancestor. Write in the name of the shared derived character that is common to all organisms above each branching point. A shared derived character can be the absence of a structure common to organisms below that point on the tree. Write your answer in the space below.

AP Evo & Classification

Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: C

2. ANS: B

3. ANS: C

4. ANS: D

5. ANS: D

6. ANS: C

7. ANS: A

8. ANS: B

9. ANS: D

10. ANS: C

11. ANS: C

12. ANS: C

13. ANS: D

14. ANS: D

15. ANS: B

16. ANS: C

17. ANS: C

18. ANS: C

19. ANS: D

20. ANS: D

21. ANS: C

22. ANS: D

23. ANS: C

24. ANS: A

25. ANS: B

26. ANS: A

27. ANS: B

28. ANS: B

29. ANS: C

30. ANS: D

31. ANS: D

32. ANS: D

33. ANS: A

34. ANS: A

35. ANS: C

36. ANS: C

37. ANS: C

38. ANS: A

39. ANS: C

40. ANS: D

41. ANS: B

42. ANS: A

43. ANS: D

44. ANS: C

45. ANS: B

46. ANS: C

47. ANS: A

48. ANS: C

49. ANS: A

50. ANS: A

51. ANS: D

52. ANS: C

53. ANS: A

(are evidence of)

54. ANS: C

55. ANS: A

56. ANS: D

57. ANS: D

58. ANS: C

59. ANS: C

60. ANS: A

61. ANS: C

62. ANS: D

63. ANS: A

64. ANS: A

65. ANS: C

66. ANS: B

67. ANS: C

68. ANS: B

69. ANS: A

(is the allele symbol for)

70. ANS: C

(equals)

71. ANS: D

72. ANS: D

73. ANS: C

74. ANS: B

75. ANS: D

76. ANS: B

77. ANS: A

(results in)

78. ANS: C

79. ANS: A

80. ANS: B

81. ANS: B

82. ANS: C

83. ANS: D

84. ANS: B

85. ANS: C

86. ANS: A

87. ANS: C

88. ANS: D

89. ANS: D

90. ANS: B

91. ANS: A

92. ANS: A

93. ANS: C

94. ANS: A

95. ANS: C

96. ANS: A

97. ANS: D

98. ANS: A

99. ANS: A

100. ANS: C

101. ANS: D

102. ANS: A

103. ANS: B

104. ANS: C

105. ANS: B

106. ANS: A

107. ANS: B

108. ANS: D

109. ANS: D

110. ANS: C

111. ANS: D

112. ANS: D

113. ANS: C

114. ANS: A

(is a type of)

115. ANS: C

116. ANS: C

117. ANS: D

118. ANS: B

119. ANS: B

120. ANS: C

121. ANS: C

122. ANS: C

123. ANS: B

124. ANS: D

125. ANS: D

126. ANS: C

127. ANS: D

128. ANS: D

129. ANS: B

130. ANS: D

131. ANS: A

132. ANS: D

133. ANS: C

134. ANS: D

135. ANS: D

136. ANS: B

137. ANS: C

138. ANS: B

139. ANS: D

140. ANS: C

(is in the same genus as)

141. ANS: D

(is related to)

142. ANS: D

143. ANS: D

144. ANS: B

145. ANS: A

146. ANS: D

147. ANS: D

148. ANS: B

(represents)

149. ANS: B

150. ANS: C

151. ANS: D

152. ANS: D

153. ANS: C

154. ANS: B

155. ANS: C

156. ANS: D

157. ANS: A

158. ANS: D

159. ANS: A

160. ANS: A

161. ANS: C

162. ANS: C

PROBLEM

163. ANS:

a. A male deer with larger than average antlers would be more likely to win battles with other males, sending the other males away or killing them. Thus, a deer with larger antlers would be more likely to mate with a female deer and produce offspring.

b. A bower bird that builds a more elaborate nest than other bower birds is more likely to attract the attention of a female. Thus, he is also more likely to mate with a female bower bird and produce offspring.

c. A male insect that could remove another male’s sperm packet from a female’s body could then mate with the female himself. Thus, this insect would be more likely to produce offspring than males that don’t have this ability.

164. ANS:

1) Analysis of anatomical structures and comparison of these to similar structures of other vertebrates. For example, the bones composing the forelimb of your organism could be compared to the forelimbs of other vertebrates. Those vertebrates having the greatest number of similar (homologous) anatomical structures to those of your organism could be presumed to be its closest relatives.

2) Analysis of the DNA and/or a protein and comparison of this material to that of other vertebrates. For example, DNA hybridization studies could be conducted with your organism and other vertebrates. Those vertebrates having the fewest differences in sequences of DNA and/or proteins from your organism could be presumed to be its closest relatives.

3) Analysis of embryonic development and comparison of structures present at different stages and the pattern of development with the structures and patterns of other vertebrates. For example, a comparison could be made between the persistence of a particular trait until late in embryonic development and the persistence of the same trait in the embryos of other vertebrates.

165. ANS:

a. Presence or absence of a backbone

Presence or absence of feathers

Presence or absence of mammary glands

b. “B” and “C”

c. “A” is an insect, “B” is a flying mammal such as a bat or a flying squirrel, and “C” is a bird.

d. Organism “A:” Phylum Arthropoda, Class Insecta

Organism “B:” Phylum Chordata, Class Mammalia

Organism “C:” Phylum Chordata, Class Aves

e. Convergent evolution

166. ANS:

Students’ cladograms should look something like the one depicted below. The positions of the gorilla and the human are also correct if they are placed in opposite positions.