BIOL1551 section 01, Principles of Biology I
Midterm Oct 21st, 2002
Student Number
____________________
Student Last Name
__________________
Student First Name
__________________
Before exam
·
You need #2
pencils (sharpened) and an eraser. Notify the instructor if you did not bring
pencils.
·
Seat in
alternative rows (as directed by the instructor).
·
Do not open the
question book until you are told.
·
On the computer answer sheet, write down your name (Last name, First
name) and your student number. Write down the course and section number (155101).
·
Write down your name and student number on the
front page of the question book.
During exam
·
Circle answers on
the question book and then transfer your answer to the computer sheet. (Both the question book and the computer
sheet will be collected.)
·
For each
question, make sure the circle is completely filled.
·
Erase mistake
cleanly.
·
Do not make any
other marks on the computer sheet. You
may use the question book to sketch out things.
·
Notify the instructor if you ruin your answer sheet. You
will need to reenter a new answer sheet.
·
Make sure to
answer all questions. No penalty for
wrong answers.
·
Do not leave the
classroom until you are finished.
·
The exam should
finish at 11:20 am.
After exam
·
Hand in both the
question book and the computer answer sheet.
List
ambiguous questions here _________________________________________.
MULTIPLE CHOICES. Choose the one
alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1)
If an insecticide kills 95
% of an insect population, you would expect the subsequent generations of the
insects __________. (Chapter 1, web
activity)
A) to die out due to
the drastic decrease in population size.
B) to proliferate faster than the original
generation.
C) to have the same proportion of
insecticide-resistant insects as the original generation.
D) to have a higher percentage of
insecticide-resistant insects than the original generation.
E) to have a lower
percentage of insecticide-resistant insects than the original generation.
Answer: D
2)
Multicellular eukaryotic organisms that lack cell walls are ______. (Chapter
1 and 4)
A) Domain Bacteria
B) Domain Archaea
C) Kingdom Animalia
D) Kingdom Plantae
E) Kingdom Fungi
Answer: C
3)
Which element is the
least abundant in living organisms? (Chapter 2)
A) hydrogen (H)
B) oxygen (O)
C) sodium (Na)
D) nitrogen (N)
E) carbon (C)
Answer: C
4)
The hydrogen atoms of a
water molecule are bonded to the oxygen atom by __________ bonds, whereas
neighboring water molecules are held together by __________ bonds. (Chapter 2)
A) ionic......................covalent
B) hydrogen...............polar
covalent
C) polar
covalent.......ionic
D) polar
covalent.......hydrogen
E) hydrogen...............ionic
Answer: D
0.5 point is given to those who answered C
5)
You now know that the
old cliché "oil and water don't mix" is true. Why? (Chapter 2 and 3)
A) Water is hydrophobic.
B) Water exhibits polarity and oil does not.
C) Oil exhibits polarity and water does not.
D) Oil is hydrophilic.
E) None of the above.
Answer: B
6)
Figure 1 (see the last
page) is the general structure of _________, which contain the two functional
groups __________ and ___________. (Chapter 3)
A) amino
acid ............. amino group...............carboxyl group
B) amino acid ..............amino
group ..............hydroxyl group
C) glucose ....................carbonyl
group...........hydroxyl group
D) glucose.....................amino
group...............carboxyl group
E) nucleic
acid ..............carbonyl group..........hydroxyl group
Answer: A
7)
Which of the following
carbohydrates is disaccharide? (Chapter 3)
A) glucose B) fructose C) sucrose D)
cellulose E) ribose
Answer: C
8)
The storage form of
carbohydrates in animals is __________ and in plants is __________. (Chapter 3)
A) starch . . .
glycogen
B) sucrose . . . glycogen
C) glycogen . . . cellulose
D) glycogen . . . starch
E) cellulose . . . glycogen
Answer: D
0.5 point is given to those who answered C.
9)
A diet high in animal
products may increase the risk for heart disease. This is because ____________.
(Chapter
3)
A) most animal fats are unsaturated.
B) most animal fats are hydrogenated oils.
C) most animal products
contain high levels of phospholipids.
D) most animal fats are saturated.
E) most animal products contain high levels of
anabolic steroids.
Answer: D
10) Amino acids can be distinguished from one another by
__________. (Chapter 3)
A) the chemical
properties of their R groups.
B) the type of bond between the R group and the
rest of the amino acid molecule.
C) the chemical properties of their amino and
carboxyl groups.
D) the number of R groups found on the amino
acid molecules.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: A
11) The tertiary structure of a polypeptide refers to ____________.
(Chapter 3)
A) its size.
B) its amino acid sequence.
C) the presence of pleated sheets.
D) the overall three-dimensional structure.
E) the number of R
groups it contains.
Answer: D
12) If one
strand of DNA has the sequence TATACTGC, what is the nucleotide sequence of the
complementary strand? (Chapter 3)
A) TATACTGC
B) UAUACUGC
C) AUAUGACG
D) CGCGTCAT
E) ATATGACG
Answer: E
13) Which one of the following is the proper matching of a
polymer and the monomer it is made from? (Chapter 3)
A) nucleic acid ...............sugar
B) triglyceride ................steroid
C) protein .......................amino
acid
D) polysaccharide
..........starch
E) wax
............................fat
Answer: C
14)
Epithelial cells in
small intestine prevent contents of intestine from leaking into the surrounding
tissues. The cell junctions that would
facilitate this are ________. (Chapter 4)
A) tight
junctions
B) anchoring
junctions
C) communicating
junctions
D) plasmodesmata
E) extracellular
matrix
Answer: A
15) Which one of the following is NOT a component of the
endomembrane system? (Chapter 4)
A) chloroplast B) Golgi apparatus C) nuclear envelope
D) lysosomes E)
smooth ER
Answer: A
16) The cell shown in Figure 2 (see the last page) is
___________ because it contains a nucleus and does not have _________. (Chapter
4)
A) a bacterial
cell..............mitochondria
B) an animal
cell...............lysosomes
C) an animal
cell...............chloroplasts
D) a plant
cell....................mitochondria
E) a plant
cell.....................central vacuoles
Answer: C
0.5 point is given to those who answered B or E.
17) Identify the structure shown in Figure 3 (see the last
page). (Chapter 4)
A) nucleus B) rough ER C) smooth ER
D) mitochondrion E) Golgi apparatus
Answer: E
18) The two main functions of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (rough
ER) are the production of ________. (Chapter 4)
A) mitochondria and
proteins that are to be secreted by the cell.
B) chromatin and mitochondria.
C) more membrane and proteins to be secreted by
the cell.
D) hydrogen peroxide
and lipids secreted by the cell.
E) ribosomes and steroid hormones.
Answer: C
19) Which of the following choices best describes the route of a
secretary protein from its production to its exit from the cell? (Chapter 4)
A) rough ER, mitochondria,
transport vesicles, cell membrane
B) nucleous,
transport vesicles, Golgi apparatus, central vacuoles, cell membrane
C) rough ER, transport vesicles, smooth ER, ribosomes,
cell membrane
D) rough ER, transport vesicles, Golgi
apparatus, transport vesicles, cell membrane
E) smooth ER, lysosomes, transport vesicles,
cell membrane
Answer: D
20) Which of the following statements does NOT describe
similarities between chloroplasts and mitochondria? Choose E if all of the statements are
correct. (Chapter 4)
A) They are surrounded by double membranes.
B) They contain electron transport chains.
C) They contain DNA.
D) They share similarities to prokaryotic cells.
E) All of the above statements are correct.
Answer: E
This question was rejected as a ‘bad question’ from a statistical
analysis. Instead of eliminating the
question, I decided to keep it as a “bonus” question. This way, those who answered correctly get
rewarded while those who didn’t don’t lose any point. By the way, 40 % of you answered correctly in
this question.
21) The cells which
produce lipids contain a lot of _________. (Chapter 4)
A) nuclei
B) lysosomes
C) peroxisomes
D) smooth ERs
E) ribosomes
Answer: D
22) Heating inactivates enzymes by ________. (Chapter 3 and 5)
A) causing enzyme molecules
to stick together.
B) breaking the covalent bonds that hold the
molecule together.
C) removing phosphate groups from the enzyme.
D) changing the enzyme's three-dimensional
shape.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
23)
What is the most likely optimal temperature for human
enzymes? (Chapter 5)
A)
7 oC
B)
17 oC
C)
27 oC
D)
37 oC
E)
47 oC
Answer: D
24) Phospholipid molecules in a membrane are arranged with their __________
on the exterior and _________ on their interior. (Chapter 5)
A) hydrophilic tail
................ hydrophobic head
B) hydrophilic head............... hydrophobic
tail
C) nonpolar tail ..................... polar
head
D) hydrophobic tail................ hydrophilic
head
E) hydrophobic head.............. hydrophilic tail
Answer: B
25) Which of the followings most accurately describe enzymes?
A) Enzymes are mainly made of carbohydrates.
B) Since an enzyme binds to its substrate at the
enzyme’s active site, the shape of the enzyme is altered irreversibly after
each reaction.
C) Most enzymes facilitate chemical reactions by
coupling them with the hydrolysis of ATP
D) The shapes of enzymes can be
altered any ways without affecting their catalytic activities
E) Enzymes
facilitate chemical reactions by lowering the energy of the activation (EA)
Answer: E
26) ATP can be
used as cell’s energy currency because __________. (Chapter 5)
A) the formation of ATP
is an exergonic (energy generating) reaction
B) exergonic
(energy generating) reaction can be fueled by coupling them with the synthesis of
ATP from ADP
C) endergonic
(energy requiring) reactions can be fueled by coupling them with the synthesis
of ATP from ADP.
D) endergonic
(energy requiring) reactions can be fueled by coupling them with the hydrolysis
of ATP.
E) ATP lowers the energy of
activation (EA), thereby facilitating chemical reactions.
Answer: D
27) If the volume of an animal cell increases when it is placed
in an aqueous solution, that solution is said to be __________ to the
cell. Plant cells may be __________ in
this solution. (Chapter 5)
A) hypotonic ...............turgid
B) hypertonic ...............turgid
C) isotonic ...................flaccid
D) hypotonic ............... lysing
E) hypertonic............... lysing
Answer: A
0.5 point is
given to those who answered B or D.
28) People with hypercholesterolemia carry fewer LDL receptors on
the cell surface than healthy individuals.
Cholesterol containing particles accumulate in their blood vessels
because __________. (Chapter 5)
A)
they cannot produce enough HDL.
B)
they do not exercise enough.
C)
they require diet rich in saturated fat.
D)
they cannot breakdown saturated fat in their body.
E)
the intake of LDL particles to the cell is much
slower.
Answer: E
29) The act of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is _________.
(Chapter 5)
A) diffusion. B) pinocytosis. C) phagocytosis.
D) osmosis. E)
receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Answer: C
30)
The concentration of calcium in a cell is 0.3%. The
concentration of calcium in the surrounding fluid is 0.1%. How could the cell
obtain more calcium? (Chapter 5)
A)
passive transport B)
active transport C) diffusion
D)
exocytosis E) osmosis
Answer: B
31) Which of the followings is a proper matching of a cellular
process and its location? (Chapters 4, 6 and 7)
A)
the
Calvin cycle ............................... matrix of mitochondria
B)
electron
transport chains................... cristae of mitochondria
C)
protein
synthesis .............................. lysosome
D)
the
Krebs cycle................................. grana of
chloroplasts
E)
light
reactions .................................. cytoplasmic fluid
Answer: B
32)
In cellular respiration, chemical energy in glucose is
released by _________ reactions. This
energy is used for __________ reactions of generating ATP. During this process, about __________ % of
chemical energy in glucose is converted into ATP (Hint: Estimate the chemical
energy output assuming that the chemical energy of ATP is about 1 % of that of
glucose.) (Chapter 6)
A)
endergonic ............exergonic
...............5
B)
endergonic........... exergonic ..............40
C)
endergonic
............exergonic .......... 100
D)
exergonic ..............endergonic ....... ..40
E)
exergonic
............. endergonic..............5
Answer: D
0.5 point is given to those who answered B
or E
33) During the
reaction 6CO2 + 6H2O ® C6H12O6 + 6O2,
carbon dioxide is __________ to make glucose and water is ___________ to give
out oxygen. This process occurs in
___________. (Chapter 4, 6 and 7)
A)
reduced
...........oxidized............chloroplasts
B)
reduced
...........oxidized............mitochondria
C)
oxidized ..........reduced
............chloroplasts
D)
oxidized
..........reduced ............mitochondria
E)
oxidized
..........reduced ............cytoplasmic fluid
Answer: A
0.5 point is given to those who answered B
or C.
34) In cellular respiration, oxygen (O2) is consumed during
_____. In photosynthesis, oxygen is produced during ______. (Chapters 6 and 7)
A)
glycolysis...........................the
light reaction
B)
the
Krebs cycle ..................the Calvin cycle
C)
electron
transfer chains......the light reaction
D)
electron
transfer chains......the Calvin cycle
E)
the
Krebs cycle .................the light reaction
Answer: C
0.5 point is given to those who answered A, D or E.
35) A glucose
molecule is completely broken down in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, but these
two processes yield only a few ATPs. Where is the rest of the chemical energy
that the cell obtains from the glucose molecule? (Chapter 6)
A)
in pyruvic acid
B)
in NADH and FADH2
C)
in ADP
D)
in the carbon
dioxide molecules released by the processes
E)
in the oxygen
used in the electron transport chains
Answer: B
36) Which of the following processes produces the most NADHs? (Chapter 6)
A) alcoholic
fermentation
B) lactic acid fermentation
C) glycolysis
D) the Krebs cycle
E) electron
transport chains and chemiosmosis
Answer: D
37) Which of the following processes produce the most ATPs? (Chapter 6)
A) alcoholic fermentation
B) lactic acid fermentation
C) glycolysis
D) the Krebs cycle
E) electron transport chains and
chemiosmosis
Answer: E
38) When muscle tissues were functioning anaerobically (without
oxygen), they accumulate ___________. (Chapter 6)
A)
ATP
B)
glucose
C)
lactic
acid
D)
ethanol
E)
carbon
dioxide
Answer: C
39) During chemiosmosis in cellular respiration, ATP synthase
generates ATP from ADP. The energy needed for this reaction comes from _____. (Chapter 6)
A)
concentration
gradient of sodium ions (Na+)
B)
energy
released during glycolysis
C)
the
fermentation of pyruvic acid to form lactic acid
D)
the
movement of hydrogen ions (H+) from the intermembrane space to the
mitochondrial matrix
E)
energy
released during the Krebs cycle
Answer: D
40) The process
of breaking down glucose to pyruvic acid is called ____________. In this process, ATP is generated via
_____________. (Chapter 6)
A)
fermentation...........chemiosmosis
B)
glycolysis...............chemiosmosis
C)
glycolysis
..............substrate-level phosphorylation
D)
the Krebs cycle......substrate-level
phosphorylation
E)
fermentation...........substrate-level
phosphorylation
Answer: C
0.5 point is given to those who answered B, D or E.