MCQs in Virology
1. Influenza A virus:
a. Only 3 serotypes of haemagglutinin occur among strains isolated from brain disease.
b. Virus replication is confined to host cell cytoplasm.
c. Prophylactic amantadine may prevent infection.
d. Vaccination provides 95% protection for up to 5 years.
e. The viral genome is negative sense RNA and segmented.
2. All enveloped negative sense RNA viruses:
a. Emerge only by lysis of the host cell.
b. Helical symmetry
c. Segmented genomes
d. Susceptible to ether and other organic solvents
e. Cause hemagglutination of chick-erythrocytes.
3. Laboratory diagnosis of congenital infection is achieved by demonstrating specific antibody:
a. in IgM in maternal serum.
b. in IgG with rising titres in maternal serum.
c. in IgG in baby's serum.
d. in IgM in baby's serum
e. in IgG with falling titres in baby's serum
4. Respiratory syncytial virus is:
a. detectable in cell culture by haemadsorption.
b. serotyped by neutralization tests with specific antisera.
c. detectable in cells in nasopharyngeal aspirates by immunofluorescence.
d. a cause of fusion of infected cells in vitro.
e. stable at room temperature.
5. Adenovirus infections are the usual causes of:
a. epidemic febrile pharyngoconjunctivitis.
b. Bernholm disease
c. haemorrhagic cystitis
d. haemolytic crises in sickle cell anemia.
e. erythema infection.
6. Herpes simplex virus:
a. herpes simplex virus infection rarely recurs in a host with high HSV antibody titre.
b. H.simplex encephalitis is confined by culture of HSV from biopsy of temporal lobe.
c. H.simplex virus is most likely to be isolated from the urine of a patient with herpes progenitalis.
d. Topical acyclovir alleviates the local symptoms of primary genital herpes reducing the amount &
duration of viral shedding.
e. the causative agent of exanthem subitum is human herpes.
7. Varicella-Zoster:
a.
b. Shingles occurs in some adults who had chicken pox as children & is caused by a member of the
pox virus family.
c. CMV can be transmitted transplacentally, causing stillbirths & birth defects.
d. EBV & CMB are both associated with atypical lymphocytosis.
e. In infectious mononucleosis, heterophile antibodies are usually present in EBV infection as well as in
CMV infection.
8. Vaccination against measles:
a. is performed with a live attenuated viral vaccine.
b. produces good responses with lasting immunity in children 6-12 months of age.
c. eradicates the disease once 80% of the target population receives the vaccine.
d. may temporarily depress T cell-mediated immunity.
e. is given to pregnant women to protect their babies in the first 6 months of life.
9. Rabies exposure:
a. is excluded if the biting animal remains well after observation for 10 days.
b. in the recent past must be evident from bit wounds or from the patient's history.
c. from contact with bats should be considered in cases of ascending paralysis.
d. if it occurred more than 90 days ago, cannot result from the disease.
e. from wild animals may be preventable in some countries by use of baits containing an oral vaccine.
10. Viruses particularly associated with haemorrhagic fever:
a. junin virus
b. dengue virus
c. lymphocytes chorimeningitis fever
d. monkey pox virus
e. ebola virus
11. Virus morphology under EM is diagnostic of:
a. diarhoeal disease due to adenovirus types 40 & 41.
b. hepatitis A
c. orf
d. parainfluenza virus infection
e. molluscum contagiosum
12. HIV-1 gp120:
a. is a product of the pol gene.
b. has a membrane fusion function
c. is an endonuclease enzyme
d. binds to the T helper cell CD4+ receptor
e. is non-antigenic
13. Effective against CMV retinitis:
a. Ribavirin
b. Acyclovir
c. Amantadine
d. Trifluoridine
e. Ganciclovir
14. Enterovirus:
a. are the most frequent cause of aseptic meningitis.
b. occur most commonly in the feces of young children.
c. are acid-labile.
d. are sensitive to treatment with ether.
e. have negative sense RNA genomes.
15. Lab findings on CSF consistent with viral meningitis:
a. leukocytes 2000 per mm3 mainly polymorphs.
b. protein 0.4g/L, glucose 70% of blood glucose level.
c. protein < 4g/, glucose 10% of blood glucose level.
d. leukocytes 200 per mm3 mainly mononuclear cells.
e. leukocytes 400 per mm3 mainly polymorphs.
16. Disease attributed to prions which resist chemical & physical treatments that are capable of destroying nucleic acids:
a. progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy.
b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
c. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy.
d. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
e. Scrapies in sheep.
17. Clinical manifestations of HIV seroconversion:
a. dementia
b. pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
c. no symptoms
d. infectious mononucleosis-like disease
e. aseptic meningitis
18. Possible means of diagnosis of congenital HIV infection in neonate born to an infected mother is:
a. test for anti-p24 antibody in infant blood.
b. attempt virus isolation from infant's peripheral blood leukocytes.
c. test for delayed hypersensitivity reactions.
d. attempt detection of viral genome by polymerase chain reactions.
e. test infant's serum by Western Blot.
19. Of Rotaviruses:
a. serogroups C & E are associated with human diarrhoeal disease.
b. the capsid is double-layered.
c. the genome is single stranded DNA.
20. The following hepatitis viruses are RNA viruses:
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. HDV
e. EBV
21. True for anti-oncogenes:
a. cause tumors directly.
b. copies from both chromosomes deleted in some tumors.
c. prevents some cancers.
d. the RB gene is located on specific chromosomes.
e. are deleted in all cancers.
22. Direct and non-direct transforming RNA tumor viruses differ in:
a. incubation period before tumor arises.
b. the presence of v-onc.
c. nucleic acid content.
d. the efficiency of tumor causation.
e. the ability to infect target cells.
23. The majority of hepatitis B infections:
a. resolve spontaneously.
b. are asymptomatic or subclinical.
c. results in a chronic carrier state.
d. results in cirrhosis and hepatocarcinoma.
e. can be prevented by active immunization.
24. Dengue virus:
a. comprise of 4 serotypes.
b. do not share common antigens with Japanese encephalitis virus.
c. can multiply in mononuclear phagocytes.
d. can be isolated from the blood of patients.
e. are transmitted to man by the bite of infected Aedes mosquito.
25. The clinical criteria for diagnosis of dengue haemorrhagic fever include the following:
a. petechial rash.
b. muscular and joint pains.
c. thrombocytopenia.
d. abdominal pain.
e. splenomegaly.
26. The triple vaccine for the prevention of virus infections includes protection against:
a. rabies virus
b. polio virus
c. hepatitis virus
d. mumps virus
e. rubella virus.
27. Rotavirus infections:
a. are rare in adults.
b. are diagnosed by stool culture.
c. do not require specific antibody therapy.
d. can be reliably prevented by immunization.
e. can be easily spread from person to person.
28. The following have oncogenic properties in humans:
a. hepatitis B virus
b. parpova viruses.
c. enteroviruses.
d. rabies virus
e. rubella virus.
29. In a suspected case of poliomyelitis, the most important specimens to be taken for the isolation of the
virus are:
a. feces
b. throat swab
c. blood
d. cerebrospinal fluid
e. urine
30. The following are at high risk of HIV infection:
a. haemophiliacs in the UK under the age of 5.
b. homosexual males who are promiscuous.
c. heterosexual IV drug addicts.
d. babies of HIV-positive fathers and HIV-negative mothers.
e. babies of HIV-positive mothers and HIV-negative fathers.
31. Atypical lymphocytosis may be a feature of:
a. Epstein-Barr virus infection.
b. influenza B infection.
c. rubella
d. toxoplasmosis
e. cytomegalovirus infection.
32. The following may cause latent infections:
a. cytomegalovirus
b. Bordetella pertussis
c. herpes simplex virus
d. Clostridium tetani
e. varicella-zoster virus
33. Immunization against hepatitis B infection will also protect against infection by the following viruses:
a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis C
c. hepatitis D
d. hepatitis E
e. HTLV I and II
34. Hepatitis C virus:
a. is responsible for chronic liver disease in 50% of those infected.
b. causes jaundice in a minority of infected persons.
c. produces only mild symptoms.
d. is an aetiological agent in hepatocellcular carcinoma.
e. is transmitted by arthropod vectors.
35. Hepatitis A virus infection:
a. has an incubation period of 3-5 days.
b. can be transmitted by sexual intercourse.
c. is a common precursor of chronic liver disease.
d. confers long-lasting immunity.
e. can be prevented by the use of killed vaccines.
36. A raised titre of anti-HBs in the blood:
a. signified previous hepatitis B infection.
b. is produced after hepatitis B vaccination.
c. indicates immunity to hepatitis B infection.
d. occurs during the incubation period of hepatitis B infection.
e. indicates active hepatitis B infection.
37. Reliable diagnosis of the following virus infections may be made in the laboratory within 24 hours of
receiving the appropriate specimen:
a. respiratory syncytial virus.
b. rotavirus.
c. herpes simplex virus.
d. Epstein-Barr virus.
e. cytomegalovirus
38. The herpes group of viruses include:
a. varicella-zoster virus.
b. papilloma virus
c. rabies virus
d. Epstein-Barr virus
e. cytomegalovirus
39. Zoonoses of viral aetiology include:
a. lassa fever
b. Q fever
c. chlamydial infection
d. orf
e. lymphocytic choriomeningitis
40. Viruses associated with the production of vesicular lesions:
a. respiratory syncytial virus
b. herpes simplex
c. coxsackie A
d. papova
e. hepatits E
41. Genial herpes infection:
a. may be caused by herpes simplex virus type 1.
b. is not caused by herpes simplex virus type 2.
c. is always symptomatic.
d. can be responsible for pre-term delivery.
e. may produce spontaneous abortion.
42. The following are examples of DNA viruses:
a. herpes simplex virus
b. papilloma virus
c. influenza viruses
d. enteroviruses
e. Epstein-Barr virus.
43. The following virus infections are transmitted by the faeco-oral route:
a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis B
c. hepatitis C
d. hepatitis D
e. hepatitis E
44. The following are true of immunization:
a. a full course of hepatitis B vaccination gives protection for only 1-2 years.
b. oral polio vaccine is not advised for patients with AIDS.
c. anti-tetanus immunoglobulin and tetanus toxoid can be given at the same time for prevention of
tetanus.
d. eradication of rubella is most effectively achieved by giving the vaccine to girls at secondary
school entry.
e. the oral typhoid vaccine is at least as effective as the parenteral vaccine.
45. Poliomyelitis:
a. is caused by an enterovirus.
b. is diagnosed by a four-fold rise in neutralizing antibody.
c. may be spread by both faecal-oral and respiratory routes.
d. may be associated with aseptic meningitis.
e. killed vaccine is no longer of any value in prevention.
46. The following are examples of 'prion' diseases:
a. infections polyneuritis (Guillain-Barre syndrome)
b. Creutzfelt-Jakob disease
c. Burkitt's lymphoma
d. kuru
e. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
47. Viruses that can cause sexually transmitted diseases include:
a. echovirus
b. herpes simplex virus
c. parpova
d. hepatitis A
e. hepatitis B
48. Complications of measles include:
a. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
b. bacterial pneumonia
c. epididymo-orchitis
d. haemorrhagic skin rashes
e. congenital abnormalities
49. In influenza:
a. the causative viruses can be grown in tissue culture.
b. the vaccine includes all the common antigenic types.
c. a rapid diagnosis can be made by direct immuno-fluorescent tests.
d. treatment with amantidine is effective.
e. pneumococcal pneumonia is a common complication.
50. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy:
a. is caused by an agent that is killed by pasteurization.
b. can be prevented by vaccination of cattle.
c. has been shown to be transmitted to humans by eating infected beef.
d. is spread among cattle by contaminated feed.
e. is caused by an agent related to RNA viruses.
51. Rabies:
a. produces a fatal spongiform encephalopathy.
b. the main reservoir of infection in Europe is in unvaccinated dogs.
c. may spread from person to person by close contact.
d. is prevented by the use of a live vaccine.
e. has been eradicated in the UK.
52. Acute gastroenteritis commonly accompanies infection with the following:
a. herpes simplex virus
b. echoviruses
c. hepatitis A virus
d. rotavirus
e. coxsackie virus
53. The common cold syndrome may be caused by:
a. cytomegalovirus
b. adenovirus
c. parainfluenza virus
d. rotavirus
e. respiratory syncytial virus
54. In hepatitis A infections:
a. virus is excreted in significant amounts only after jaundice appears.
b. chronic carriage occurs in around 30% of cases.
c. spread is mainly by contaminated food and water.
d. prevention is by a live vaccine.
e. diagnosis is usually confirmed by serology.
55. Viral hepatitis may be caused by:
a. coxsackie virus
b. cytomegalovirus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. herpes simplex virus
e. polio virus
56. Mumps:
a. can be prevented by a live vaccine.
b. diagnosis can be confirmed by complement-fixation tests for serum antibodies.
c. is caused by a paramyxovirus.
d. may be complicated by oophoritis.
e. most commonly affects the submandibular salivary glands.
57. Children with the following conditions should not be given the MMR vaccine:
a. congenital heart disease
b. a history of anaphylaxis
c. a history of convulsions
d. cystic fibrosis
e. Down's syndrome.
58. Hepatitis B:
a. is a DNA virus.
b. produces chronic hepatitis in 5-10% of cases.
c. infection has a shorter incubation than hepatitis A.
d. is sexually transmitted.
e. infection is prevented by the use of a sub-unit vaccine.
59. Viruses causing vesicular rashes are:
a. herpes simplex
b. measles
c. rubella
d. varicella-zoster
e. Epstein-Barr
60. Herpes simplex virus is associated with:
a. encephalitis.
b. keratoconjunctivitis
c. whitlow
d. acute stomatitis
e. primary atypical pneumonia.
61. Enveloped DNA viruses include:
a. varicella-zoster
b. rhinovirus
c. cytomegalovirus
d. Epstein-Barr virus
e. rubella virus
62. Non-enveloped DNA viruses include:
a. hepatitis B
b. adenovirus
c. papilloma
d. mumps
e. rotavirus
63. RNA viruses include:
a. herpes simplex type I
b. rabies
c. hepatitis A
d. measles
e. respiratory syncytial virus
64. Agents that interfere with viral multiplication include:
a. amphoteriein B
b. amantadine
c. metronidazole
d. zidovudine
e. ribavirin
65. Varicella zoster virus:
a. causes a vesicular rash
b. grows quickly in tissue culture enabling early specific diagnosis.
c. is a cause of severe pneumonia.
d. is not sensitive to any available antiviral agents.
e. commonly causes latent infections.
66. The following can be used for skin disinfection:
a. quaternary ammonium compounds.
b. phenol
c. glutaraldehyde
d. alcoholic solution of chlorhexidine
e. povidone-iodine solution
67. Respiratory syncytial virus:
a. is an orthomyxovirus
b. causes bronchiolitis in infants.
c. does not produce long lasting immunity.
d. may cause severe illness in the elderly.
e. infection can be diagnosed rapidly by immunofluorescence.
68. Treatment with acyclovir:
a. is effective in infections with varicella-zoster virus.
b. if started early results in eradication of infection.
c. is contra-indicated in pregnancy.
d. selectively inhibits viral DNA-polymerase activity in infected cells.
e. when given for long periods is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.
69. In HIV infections:
a. monitoring of the number of T4 cells is a useful guide to the onset of AIDS.
b. numbers of T8 cells increase as disease develops.
c. the virus is found in monocyte-macrophage cells.
d. the HIV virus is not present in plasma.
e. there is activation of B cells.
70. HIV is reliably inactivated by:
a. the autoclave.
b. the hot-air oven
c. chlorhexidine
d. glutaraldehyde
e. hypochlorites
71. Gamma irradiation can be used to sterilize:
a. glassware.
b. saline for injection
c. disposable needles and syringes.
d. latex catheters
e. opening theatre linen
72. Factors affecting the performance of a disinfectant are:
a. pH
b. temperature
c. number of organisms present
d. concentration of disinfectant
e. type of organisms
73. Plantar warts:
a. are caused by papillomaviruses.
b. infect subcutaneous cells in the soles of the feet.
c. elicits strong cell-mediated immunity.
d. may lead to epithelial neoplasms.
e. are caused by a virus which can be grown on epithelial cultures.
74. Viruses associated with conjunctivitis include:
a. herpes simplex
b. adenovirus
c. varicella-zoster
d. rubella
e. influenza A