MCQs in Bacteriology
1.
Neisseria meningitidis:
a.
is the commonest cause of meningitis in infants.
b.
antigen may be rapidly detected in the CSF in meningitis.
c.
blood cultures are frequently positive in meningitis.
d.
treatment of choice is chloramphenicol.
2.
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA):
a.
is usually sensitive to vancomycin.
b.
is more likely to cause deep-seated infection.
c.
is often resistant to many anti-staphylococcal antibiotics.
d.
may cause asymptomatic colonization.
e.
usually belongs to phage-type 81.
3.
Aminoglycoside antibiotics such as gentamicin:
a.
act on the bacteria cell wall.
b.
are active against staphylococci.
c.
are effective in the treatment of severe pneumococcal pneumonia.
d.
are contra-indicated in patients with renal impairment.
e.
may cause loss of visual acuity in the elderly.
4.
Heat-sensitive surgical equipment and materials may be sterilized by
treatment with:
a.
phenolic compounds.
b.
buffered glutaraldehyde fluid.
c.
ethylene oxide gas.
d.
ethanol.
e.
ionizing radiation.
5.
In bacterial endocarditis:
a.
blood cultures may be negative.
b.
staphylococci are rare causative organisms.
c.
incidence is higher in the elderly.
d.
combination therapy with a penicillin and an aminoglycoside is advised in
most cases.
e.
measurement of C-reactive protein in the serum is useful in management.
6.
The triple vaccine for prevention of bacterial infections includes
protection against:
a.
diphtheria.
b.
pneumonia.
c.
tetanus.
d.
scarlet fever.
e.
infection by haemophilus influenzae type B.
7.
Legionnaires’ disease:
a.
is easily transmitted from person to person.
b.
diagnosis is usually confirmed by serological tests.
c.
is caused by an organism that cannot be grown on bacteriological culture
media.
d.
is treated with a combination of penicillin and gentamicin.
e.
presents as lobar pneumonia.
8.
The haemolytic uraemic syndrome:
a.
is more common in children.
b.
in the majority of cases is caused by infection with verotoxin-producing
Escherichia coli.
c.
is rarely associated with haemorrhagic colitis.
d.
is caused by an infective agent that may be transmitted with food.
e.
is an indication for urgent antibiotic therapy.
9.
The following act as inhibitors of bacterial cell-wall synthesis:
a.
vancomycin
b.
penicillins
c.
sulphonamides
d.
aminoglycosides
e.
cephalosporins
10.
The following act as inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis in bacteria:
a.
polymyxins
b.
quinolones
c.
tetracyclines
d.
fusidic acid
e.
rifampicin
11.
Common causes of meningitis in the neonate include:
a.
Haemophilus influenzae
b.
coliform organisms
c.
group B streptococci
d.
Staphylococcus aureus
e.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
12.
Which of the following relate(s) to actinomycosis?
a.
cervico-facial disease is the most common presentation.
b.
limited epidemics occur in farming communities.
c.
infection is endogenous.
d.
antibiotics have no place in therapy.
e.
colonies released in pus are called ‘sulphur granules’.
13.
In salmonella food poisoning:
a.
symptoms start within 3 hours.
b.
antibiotic treatment is not indicated.
c.
infected food-handlers are the main source of contamination.
d.
diagnosis is usually confirmed by culture of suspected food.
e.
blood cultures are frequently positive.
14.
The following are frequently implicated in an acute exacerbation of
chronic bronchitis:
a.
Haemophilus influenzae
b.
Streptococcus mutans
c.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
d.
Staphylococcus aureus
e.
Moraxella catarrhalis
15.
Phage typing is a useful procedure in the investigations of outbreaks of
infection by:
a.
Neisseria meningitidis
b.
Salmonella typhi
c.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d.
Salmonella paratyphi B
e.
Campylobacter
16.
The following are recognized causes of gas gangrene in humans:
a.
Clostridium oedematiens
b.
Clostridium sporogenes
c.
Clostridium septicum
d.
Clostridium histolyticum
e.
Clostridium perfringens
17.
The antistreptolysin O titre is raised in infections caused by:
a.
Enterococcus faecalis
b.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
c.
Streptococcus pyogenes
d.
Streptococcus bovis
e.
Streptococcus mutans
18.
Organic materials interfere markedly with the bactericidal actions of:
a.
ethylene oxide
b.
glutaraldehyde
c.
hypochlorites
d.
gamma irradiation
e.
formalin vapor
19.
Lyme disease:
a.
is spread by rat fleas.
b.
is a multi-system disorder.
c.
is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, a spirochaete.
d.
is diagnosed by serological tests.
20.
The following antimicrobial drugs are effective against penicillinase-producing
staphylococci:
a.
ampicillin or amoxycillin
b.
phenoxymethypenicillin
c.
imipenem
d.
augmentin
e.
cloxacillin
21.
Reiter’s syndrome is:
a.
comprised of arthritis, conjunctivitis and urethritis.
b.
associated with patchy pneumonia.
c.
confirmed by the VDRL test.
d.
more common in persons who are HLA B8 positive.
e.
associated with Salmonella infection.
22.
Yaws:
a.
is a sexually-transmitted disease.
b.
is treated effectively with penicillin.
c.
may be transmitted from mother to fetus.
d.
produce changes in CSF.
e.
diagnosis is confirmed by treponemal (syphilis) serology.
23.
Blood cultures are usually positive in cases of:
a.
meningococcal meningitis.
b.
bacillary dysentery
c.
primary syphilis
d.
typhoid fever
e.
rheumatic fever
24.
Organisms that are important in causing infective endocarditis include:
a.
Streptococcus sanguis
b.
Staphylococcus aureus
c.
Bacteroides fragilis
d.
Klebsiella pneumoniae
e.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
25.
Hyaluronidase production is important in the pathogenicity of:
a.
Clostridium perfringens
b.
Streptococcus pyogenes
c.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
d.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
e.
Shigella sonnei.
26.
The following spirochaetes produce disease in man:
a.
Borrelia recurrentis
b.
Borrelia vincenti
c.
Treponema pertenne
d.
Leptospira canicola
e.
Borrelia burgdorferi
27.
Acute rheumatic fever:
a.
a complication of infection of the throat by Streptococcus pyogenes.
b.
an indication for long-term penicillin prophylaxis.
c.
rare in developed countries.
d.
prevented by vaccination in childhood.
e.
characterized by infective arthritis.
28.
Coxiella burneii:
a.
is a cause of infective endocarditis.
b.
causes pneumonia in neonates.
c.
is the cause of Q fever.
d.
causes lymphogranuloma venereum.
e.
transmission is by insect vectors.
29.
Trachoma:
a.
is caused by Mycoplasma.
b.
is caused by Chlamydia.
c.
is common in wet, humid climates.
d.
infection often involves the retina.
e.
is treated with penicillin.
30.
Following infection with Streptococcus pyogenes, antibody titres may be
raised to:
a.
streptolysin O
b.
hyaluronic acid
c.
hyaluronidase
d.
DNAse B
e.
streptolysin S
31.
Exotoxins:
a.
are released during the deaths of bacteria.
b.
are polypeptide molecules.
c.
can be inactivated by heat.
d.
are mainly secreted by Gram-positive bacteria.
e.
are rendered non-antigenic by treatment with formalin.
32.
Endotoxins:
a.
may be secreted by Gram-positive bacteria.
b.
can be rendered non-toxic by heating to 56 degrees.
c.
activate the complement system.
d.
are powerful inducers of antitoxic antibodies.
e.
are lipopolysaccharide molecules of which lipid A is the principal toxic
factor.
33.
The following organisms possess capsules:
a.
Haemophilus influenzae
b.
Cryptosporidium spp
c.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
d.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
e.
Klebsiella pneumoniae
34.
The following are classified as ‘viridans streptococci’:
a.
Enterococcus faecalis
b.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
c.
Streptococcus bovis
d.
Streptococcus milior
e.
Streptococcus agalactiae
35.
The diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis is aided by:
a.
colonoscopic biopsy of lesions.
b.
positive blood culture for Clostridium difficile.
c.
raised antibody levels in blood to Clostridium difficile.
d.
isolation of Clostridium difficile from the stool.
e.
detection of Clostridium difficile toxin in the stool.
36.
Blood culture is commonly positive in the following infections:
a.
staphylococcal osteomyelitis.
b.
salmonella food poisoning.
c.
pneumococcal pneumonia.
d.
listeriosis
e.
actinomycosis.
37.
The more common bacteria causing serious lobar pneumonia following
infection with influenza viruses are:
a.
Streptococcus pyogenes
b.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
c.
Moraxella catarrhalis
d.
Staphylococcus aureus
e.
Haemophilus influenzae
38.
Erythromycin or tetracyclines are first-line antibiotics in the treatment
of infections caused by:
a.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b.
Chlamydia psittaci
c.
Haemophilus influenzae
d.
Legionella pneumophila
e.
Streptococcus pyogenes
39.
Mycoplasmas:
a.
are resistant to penicillin.
b.
are often present as commensals.
c.
can be grown on laboratory media.
d.
have a cell wall.
e.
are susceptible to erythromycin.
40.
Endotoxin can produce:
a.
circulatory collapse.
b.
leukopenia.
c.
disseminated intravascular coagulation.
d.
fever.
e.
granulomas.
41.
Zoonoses transmitted by unpasteurized milk include:
a.
brucellosis
b.
leptospirosis
c.
Q fever
d.
listeriosis
e.
shigellosis
42.
Gram-negative bacilli include:
a.
Salmonella
b.
Klebsiella
c.
Listeria
d.
Corynebacterium
e.
Campylobacter
43.
Gram-positive bacterial genera include:
a.
Brucella
b.
Lactobacillus
c.
Bacteroides
d.
Neisseria
e.
Yersinia
44.
Bacteria associated with food poisoning are:
a.
Helicobacter pylori
b.
Clostridium perfringens
c.
Streptococcus pyogenes
d.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e.
Bacillus cereus
45.
Motility is a feature of:
a.
Proteus spp
b.
Clostridium perfringens
c.
Staphylococcus aureus
d.
Clostridum tetani
e.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
46.
Production of exotoxin is an important factor in the pathogenicity of:
a.
Escherichia coli
b.
Klebsiella spp
c.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
e.
Vibrio cholerae
47.
Pseudomembranous colitis:
a.
is caused by Clostridium novyi.
b.
is mediated by an exotoxin.
c.
is common in children.
d.
can result from hospital cross-infection.
e.
cannot be treated with antibiotics.
48.
Pneumococcal vaccine:
a.
should be administered on an annual basis.
b.
is made from cell wall antigen from several serotypes.
c.
is given intradermally.
d.
is particularly important for persons who had splenectomy.
e.
is ineffective in the elderly.
49.
Coagulase-negative staphylococci:
a.
produce extracellular slime which is a virulence factor.
b.
are commensals on the skin.
c.
are an important cause of infection associated with indwelling prosthetic
devices.
d.
produce an enzyme which lyses DNA.
e.
include Staphylococcus saprophyticus, a common cause of urinary tract
infection.
50.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
a.
frequently causes lung infection in patients with cystic fibrosis.
b.
is naturally resistant to many antibiotics.
c.
produces exotoxins which contribute to virulence.
d.
frequently causes septicaemia in patients with AIDS.
e.
is not sensitive to beta-lactam antibiotics.
51.
In whooping cough:
a.
flucloxacillin is effective in treatment.
b.
infection is spread by asymptomatic carriers.
c.
diagnosis is confirmed by isolating the organism from throat.
d.
a full course of vaccination gives long-lasting immunity.
e.
infection before the age of 3 months is rare because of protection
afforded by maternal antibodies.
52.
Enterococcus faecalis:
a.
is a cause of infective endocarditis.
b.
is included in the common term ‘viridans streptococci’.
c.
possesses Lancefield group D carbohydrate antigen.
d.
is highly susceptible to penicillin.
e.
is associated with a form of food poisoning.
53.
Bacteria responsible for community-acquired pneumonia:
a.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
b.
Legionella pneumophila
c.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
e.
Chlamydia trachomatis
54.
In diphtheria:
a.
the pathogenesis is mediated by exotoxin.
b.
the primary site of infection is always the throat.
c.
immunization
is very effective in prevention.
d.
blood culture is usually positive.
55.
The following are causes of food- or water-borne infection:
a.
Bacillus cereus
b.
Yersinia enterocolitis
c.
Giardia lambia
d.
Clostridium difficile
e.
Listeria monocytogenes
56.
Features of childhood meningococcal meningitis include:
a.
raised glucose level in the CSF.
b.
lowered protein level in the CSF.
c.
raised polymorphonuclear cell count in the CSF.
d.
septicaemia
e.
a good response to treatment with aminoglycoside antibiotics.
57.
Infective endocarditis:
a.
affects only damaged heart valves.
b.
is rarely caused by enterococci.
c.
can usually be confirmed by blood culture.
d.
may be caused by viruses.
e.
may follow valve replacement.
58.
Myocarditis may be caused by:
a.
Staphylococcus aureus
b.
enteroviruses
c.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d.
Streptococcus pyogenes
e.
Toxoplasma gondii
59.
Acute osteomyelitis:
a.
is usually caused by haematogenous spread.
b.
is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
c.
is often associated with Haemophilus influenzae in children.
d.
frequently affects more than one bone.
e.
often yields positive blood cultures.
60.
Antibiotics contraindicated in pregnancy include:
a.
aminoglycosides
b.
cephalosporins
c.
tetracyclins
d.
chloramphenicol
e.
phenoxymethyl penicillin
61.
In salmonella food poisoning:
a.
diagnosis is usually made by culturing faeces from infected persons.
b.
Salmonella enteritidis is a common etiological agent.
c.
antibiotic treatment is not usually indicated.
d.
poultry is the commonest form of infection.
e.
symptoms begin with 4-6 hours of eating contaminated food.
62.
In Campylobacter infection:
a.
person-to-person spread is common in outbreaks.
b.
poultry is a common source.
c.
antibiotic treatment is usually not indicated.
d.
the causative organism can be grown on MacConkey agar.
e.
watery diarrhea is a common presentation.
63.
Lyme disease:
a.
principally affects the skin and joints.
b.
may result from infection with many species of the genus Borrelia.
c.
is transmitted by fleas living on wild mammals.
d.
diagnosis is by blood culture using special media.
e.
is not improved by antibiotic therapy.
64.
Leptospirosis:
a.
may be acquired from cattle.
b.
is often diagnosed by positive blood cultures.
c.
cannot be prevented by vaccination in man.
d.
diagnosis is confirmed by detecting serum antibodies.
e.
is usually a self-limiting disease.
65.
Bacterial pathogens that may be carried asymptomatically in the upper
respiratory tract include:
a.
Bordetella pertussis.
b.
Neisseria meningitidis.
c.
Haemophilus influenzae type B.
d.
group A haemolytic streptococci.
e.
Moraxella catarrhalis.
66.
In human tuberculosis:
a.
Mycobacterium bovis may cause pulmonary disease.
b.
a killed vaccine is used to prevent disease.
c.
modern antibiotic treatment usually includes an aminoglycoside agent.
d.
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare is a common cause in patients with
AIDS.
e.
immunity is mainly due to humoral antibodies.
67.
Staphylococcus aureus has a well-established association with:
a.
toxic epidermal necrolysis.
b.
cholecystitis.
c.
toxic shock syndrome.
d.
acute osteomyelitis.
e.
food poisoning.
68.
In typhoid fever:
a.
more than one species of salmonella may be implicated.
b.
less than 10% of treated patients will become chronic carriers.
c.
the carrier state may be eradicated by prolonged antibiotic therapy.
d.
the causative agent is a non-lactose fermenting Gram-negative bacillus.
e.
prevention may be achieved by a live oral vaccine.
69.
Food poisoning may be caused by ingestion of food containing preformed
exotoxins produced by:
a.
Bacillus cereus.
b.
Listeria monocytogenes.
c.
Salmonella enteritidis.
d.
Clostridium difficile.
e.
Staphylococcus aureus.
70.
Killed whole organisms are used as vaccines in the prevention of:
a.
tuberculosis.
b.
whooping cough.
c.
typhoid.
d.
mumps.
e.
tetanus.
71.
Streptococcus pneumoniae:
a.
is a common aetiological agent in meningitis.
b.
is invariably sensitive to penicillin.
c.
infections can be prevented by vaccination.
d.
on Gram staining appears as Gram-positive cocci in clumps.
e.
has a characteristic polysaccharide capsule.
72.
Numerous fecal leukocytes, indicative of inflammatory diarrhea, are
detectable in infections due to:
a.
Salmonella enteritidis.
b.
Camplyobacter spp.
c.
Staphylococcus aureus.
d.
Vibrio cholerae.
e.
Shigella dysenteriae.
73.
The following human pathogens are zoonoses involving cattle:
a.
Leptospira spp.
b.
Actinomyces spp.
c.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
d.
Shigella spp.
e.
Brucella abortus.
74.
Clostridium difficile:
a.
may be occasionally found as part of the commensal flora of the gut.
b.
produces two separate exotoxins.
c.
toxin, when detected in the stool sample, is pathognomonic of
pseudomembranous colitis.
d.
is an obligate anaerobe.
e.
causes outbreaks of nosocomail infection.
75.
Escherichia coli:
a.
is the most numerous commensal organism in the gut.
b.
is nearly always sensitive to ampicillin.
c.
is the most frequent aetiological agent in urinary tract infection.
d.
produces bright pink colonies on MacConkey agar.
e.
is an important cause of meningitis in neonates.
76.
The following are aminoglycoside antibiotics:
a.
amikacin.
b.
streptomycin.
c.
clindamycin.
d.
gentamicin.
e.
vancomycin.
77.
In pyrogenic liver abscesses:
a.
jaundice is a common presenting feature.
b.
Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen.
c.
colonic pathology is often associated.
d.
blood cultures are often positive.
e.
prolonged antibiotics without drainage of pus is often curative.
78.
Impetigo in childhood:
a.
is due to streptococcal infection.
b.
may be associated with acute glomerulonephritis.
c.
is a contagious disease.
d.
usually presents as a rapidly-spreading erythematous rash.
e.
is best treated with topical antibiotics.
79.
In the toxic shock syndrome:
a.
the source of infection is usually contaminated tampons.
b.
the source of toxins is Staphylococcus aureus.
c.
early antibiotic treatment leads to rapid resolution of symptoms.
d.
the rash is often vesicular.
e.
phage typing is useful in confirming the diagnosis.
80.
Adequate CSF levels of the following antimicrobial agents are achievable
in bacterial meningitis:
a.
gentamicin.
b.
ampicillin.
c.
streptomycin.
d.
rifampicin.
e.
chloramphenicol.
81.
Antigen detection in body fluids is useful in the diagnosis of infection
due to:
a.
group B streptococci.
b.
Haemophilus influenzae type B.
c.
coagulase-negative staphylococci.
d.
Listeria monocytogenes.
e.
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
82.
Typing of bacteria for epidemiological purposes can be done by the
following methods:
a.
plasmid analysis.
b.
serology.
c.
phage typing.
d.
animal inoculation.
e.
bacteriocine production.
83.
The following infections may be diagnosed with assurance by examination
of a Gram film of appropriate samples:
a.
whooping cough.
b.
diphtheria.
c.
gonococcal urethritis.
d.
tuberculosis.
e.
thrush.
84.
Chlamydia trachomatis:
a.
is an obligate intracellular organism.
b.
is the most common cause of sexually-transmitted disease in developed
countries.
c.
is the cause of lymphogranuloma venereum.
d.
is sensitive to erythromycin.
e.
can cause pneumonia in infants.
85.
Pasteurella multocida:
a.
is a Gram-negative oxidase-positive bacteria.
b.
is associated with animal bites.
c.
may cause rapidly progressing cellulitis and septicaemia.
d.
is sensitive to penicillin.
e.
infection is prevented by immunization which is recommended for
veterinary workers.
86.
The following are common causes of urinary tract infections in General
Practice:
a.
Enterococcus faecalis.
b.
Staphylococcus aureus.
c.
Proteus mirabilis.
d.
Escherichia coli.
e.
Kelbsiella spp.
87.
Bacterial ribosomes:
a.
can be visualized by light microscopy.
b.
are associated with messenger RNA.
c.
determine the sequence of amino acids in bacterial proteins.
d.
are the site of action for aminoglycoside antibiotics.
e.
are absent in obligate anaerobes.
88.
Primary peritonitis:
a.
has a predilection for patients with ascites.
b.
is often due to Streptococcus pneumoniae.
c.
is more common than secondary peritonitis.
d.
reveals foul-smelling pus upon laparotomy.
e.
is an indication for treatment with penicillin.
89.
Antibiotic prophylaxis for colonic surgery:
a.
has been shown to be of clear benefit.
b.
should ideally be started 3 days before surgery.
c.
should always include metronidazole.
d.
depends on achieving adequate levels of antibiotics in the bowel lumen.
e.
is directed mainly at the prevention of tetanus and gas gangrene.
90.
Adverse reactions to oral penicillin include:
a.
epilepsy.
b.
cholestatic jaundice.
c.
type 1 hypersensitivity (anaphylaxis).
d.
diarrhoea.
e.
macular rash if taken when suffering from infectious mononucleosis.
91.
Monitoring of blood levels of the antibiotic is routinely indicated
during treatment with:
a.
cephalosporins.
b.
vancomycin.
c.
chloramphenicol.
d.
gentamicin.
e.
acyclovir.
92.
Klebsiella pneumoniae:
a.
is a common cause of lobar pneumonia.
b.
is usually sensitive to ampicillin.
c.
is a capulsate organism.
d.
often forms part of the commensal flora of the gut.
e.
causes nosocomial urinary tract infections.
93.
Lung abscess:
a.
may occur as a complication of pneumococcal lobar pneumonia.
b.
often requires surgical drainage in addition to antibiotics.
c.
when multiple, usually indicates staphylococcal sepsis.
d.
requires multiple antibiotic therapy.
e.
is more common in patients with chronic obstructive alveolar disease.
94.
Sore throat with fever:
a.
is due to Streptococcus pyogenes in most cases.
b.
should always be treated with penicillin or erythromycin.
c.
when recurrent is an indication for tonsillectomy.
d.
may be rapidly diagnosed by detection of raised anti-streptolysin O titre
in the serum.
e.
is classically associated with acute glomerulonephritis.
95.
Rifampicin is useful in the management of the following conditions:
a.
pneumococcal meningitis.
b.
tuberculos meningitis.
c.
Legionnaires’ disease.
d.
atypical mycobacterial infections.
96.
Antibiotics appropriate for ‘blind’ therapy of urinary tract
infections in general practice include:
a.
trimethoprim.
b.
erythromycin.
c.
co-amoxyclav (augmentin).
d.
oral cephalosporins.
e.
chloramphenicol.
97.
In myobacterial infection of the genito-urinary tract:
a.
the renal pelvis is most commonly affected.
b.
nephrectomy is usually necessary in addition to antituberculous
chemotherapy.
c.
the demonstration of acid-fast bacilli in an early morning sample of
urine is usually diagnostic.
d.
sterile pyuria is a consistent finding.
e.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the species most commonly involved.
98.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae:
a.
is a Gram-negative diplococcus.
b.
is reliably sensitive to penicillin.
c.
may cause systemic infection.
d.
often presents with a genital chancre.
e.
can be serotyped for epidemiological purposes.
99.
Organisms associated with intra-cerebral abscesses:
a.
Neisseria meningitidis.
b.
Entamoeba histolytica.
c.
Streptococcus milleri.
d.
Peptostreptococcus anaerobius.
e.
Actinomycetes israeli.
100.
Organisms associated with acute infective colitis include:
a.
rotavirus.
b.
Salmonella typhi.
c.
Clostridium difficile.
d.
Shigella dysenteriae.
e.
Entamoeba coli.
101.
Enteric fever may be caused by:
a.
Enterococcus faecalis.
b.
Salmonella typhi.
c.
Giardia lamblia.
d.
Salmonella paratyphi A.
e.
Salmonella enteritidis.
102.
If isolated from a patient, the following are associated with active
infection:
a.
Staphylococcus aureus.
b.
cytomegalovirus.
c.
Bordetella pertussis.
d.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
e.
Shigella sonnei.
103.
Streptococcus pyogenes:
a.
can be isolated from the throat swab of some ‘normal’ individual.
b.
is a facultative anaerobe.
c.
is a urinary tract pathogen.
d.
may develop resistance to penicillin during prolonged treatment.
e.
infections are often treated with aminoglycoside.
104.
Phage typing is used in epidemiological studies to discriminate among:
a.
staphylococci.
b.
streptococci.
c.
salmonellae.
d.
mycobacteria.
e.
gonoococci.
105.
Bacterial spores:
a.
are killed by a temperature of 120C for 20 minutes.
b.
can be stained by Gram’s method.
c.
multiply in adverse environments.
d.
are resistant to antibiotics.
e.
are formed mainly by Gram-positive bacilli.
106.
DNA may be transferred naturally amongst bacteria by:
a.
recombination.
b.
transduction.
c.
conjugation.
d.
transcription.
e.
mutation.
107.
Bacterial plasmids:
a.
are extrachromosomal genetic elements.
b.
may code for virulence factors.
c.
can be separated by electrophoretic techniques.
d.
may be transmissible amongst different species of bacteria.
e.
may be used to characterize bacterial stains.
108.
Bacteria that may cause infections characterized by skin rash include:
a.
Borrelia burgdorferi.
b.
Salmonella typhi.
c.
group A streptococcus.
d.
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
e.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
109.
Slaughterhouse workers have a higher than average likelihood of exposure
to the following:
a.
Coxiella burneti.
b.
Salmonella typhi.
c.
Brucella spp.
d.
Campylobacter spp.
e.
Streptococcus sui.
110.
Infection with Vibrio cholerae:
a.
is best prevented by vaccination.
b.
produces severe inflammation of the small bowel.
c.
is usually treated with oral or parenteral antibiotics.
d.
is transmitted with drinking water and food.
e.
elicits long-lasting immunity in the gut.
111.
Helicobacter pylori:
a.
rarely infects people in developed countries.
b.
is transmitted with food or drinking water.
c.
may be identified by its production of urease.
d.
is associated with duodenal ulcers.
e.
infection can be controlled by long-term antibiotics.
112.
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulre:
a.
is a member of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex.
b.
causes cervical lymphadenopathy in children.
c.
causes disseminated infections in the elderly.
d.
produces pigmented, relatively rapidly-growing colonies on culture.
e.
is the commonest opportunistic bacterial pathogen in patients with AIDS.
113.
Organisms associated with atypical pneumonia are:
a.
Haemophilus influenzae.
b.
Chlamydia psittaci.
c.
Mycoplasma hominis.
d.
Chlamydia pneumoniae.
e.
influenza viruses.
114.
In a young adult presenting with acute meningitis:
a.
treatment should be delayed until a CSF sample is obtained so that an
aetiological diagnosis can be established.
b.
blood cultures are unlikely to be helpful.
c.
antigen detection tests may be positive even after antibiotic treatment.
d.
a predominantly lymphocytic CSF cell-count excludes bacterial meningitis.
e.
erythromycin is the drug of choice in patients who are allergic to
penicillin.
115.
Infection of closed CSF shunts installed for the relief of hydrocephalus:
a.
presents with swinging pyrexia.
b.
is mostly due to skin organisms such as Staphylococcus epidermidis or
S.diphtheroids.
c.
may be diagnosed by positive blood cultures.
d.
results in nephritis due to haematogenous spread of infection to the
kidneys.
e.
can often be successfully eradicated with intra-ventricular
administration of antibiotics.
116.
In anaerobic vaginosis:
a.
numerous pus cells are seen on microscopy.
b.
culture often yields Gardnerella vaginalis.
c.
symptoms are relieved by measures to reduce the acidity of the vaginal
secretions.
d.
treatment with metronidazole is effective.
e.
infection is often sexually transmitted.
117.
Bacteria commonly causing sepsis in burns include:
a.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
b.
Clostridium perfringens.
c.
Staphylococcus aureus.
d.
Bacteroides melaninogenicus.
e.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
118.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is associated with:
a.
pyogenic arthritis.
b.
brain abscess.
c.
primary peritonitis.
d.
empyema.
e.
pyelonephritis.
119.
b-lactam
antibiotics with activity against Pseudomonas spp include:
a.
azlocillin.
b.
flucloxacillin.
c.
cefuroxime.
d.
ceftazidime.
e.
ciprofloxacin.
120.
The following is/are true of tuberculosis:
a.
the majority of new cases in western countries are among immigrants.
b.
immunity is mainly cell-mediated.
c.
infection in childhood leaves long-lasting immunity.
d.
in pulmonary disease the lung bases are most affected.
e.
laboratory culture and sensitivity tests may take several weeks to
complete.
121.
Diseases associated with Clostridium perfringens include:
a.
pseudomembranous colitis.
b.
necrotising enterocolitis.
c.
gas gangrene.
d.
food poisoning.
e.
necrotising fasciitis.
122.
Direct immunofluorescence tests on sputum smears are helpful in the rapid
diagnosis of infections with:
a.
Legionella pneumophila.
b.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
c.
respiratory syncytial virus.
d.
Pneumocystis carinii.
e.
Bordetella pertussis.
123.
Urinary tract infection in pregnancy:
a.
needs to be treated even if asymptomatic.
b.
may be treated with quinolone antibiotics.
c.
is often due to uncommon organisms such as Pseudomonas spp.
d.
is more likely to include pyelonephritis.
e.
is more likely to relapse after treatment.
124.
The following antimicrobial agents are rapidly absorbed and systemically
effective after oral administration:
a.
metronidazole.
b.
vancomycin.
c.
acyclovir.
d.
neomycin.
e.
amphotericin B.
125.
Infections due to Shigella spp:
a.
often presents as severe watery diarrhea.
b.
blood culture is often positive.
c.
are not preventable by vaccination.
d.
may require antibiotic therapy in severe cases.
126.
Pathogens which cause cervical lymphadenopathy in children includes:
a.
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare.
b.
rubella virus.
c.
Staphylococcus aureus.
d.
mumps virus.
e.
Haemophilus influenzae type B.