Posted by Real JW [RealJW] on March 29, 1999 at 19:26:43 {7nb3mCfGvUuQi5GMZvdwRqyLiBqeog}:
In Reply to: Divine Name in New Testament posted by Rick on March 29, 1999 at 12:00:03:
IF we were to accept this argument as being correct, and IF we decided to alter our translations to insert the Tetragrammaton in the New Testament where there was a quotation from the Old Testament which had contained it in the Hebrew, then we would have to do it EVERYWHERE that this occurred - but the NW version does not!
Why, for example, does it not insert "Jehovah" into 1 Peter 2: 3, where we have
"now that you have tasted that the Lord is good." (1 Peter 2: 3 NIV)
This is an exact quotation from the Greek Septuagint version of Psalm 34: 8, the Hebrew version of which contains the Tetragrammaton -
"Taste and see that the LORD is good; blessed is the man who takes refuge in him." (Psalm 34: 8 NIV)
Why does the NW version not insert "Jehovah" in this verse of 1 Peter? Could it be that even the Watchtower concedes that this verse refers to Jesus?
Real Jehovah's Witness