Posted by Adam Covington [AdamCovington] on March 28, 1999 at 15:03:25 {qRFwJ6xIkIwV43Xu3V1wMWt/CPYT8orz2}:
In Reply to: *On Jan and Syllables posted by J.H. on March 28, 1999 at 12:52:29:
Jan,
Jan, I have already offered you the chance of sending your reply directly to Stafford. You have not given even one single argument to support your view. If you don't mind, could you just summarize the arguments from your sources or if you have your own arguments, and list them below?
Then I will send the list to Stafford, who has indeed studied Greek and Hebrew at the university level, and then we'll let you two hash it out. Why is that such a problem for you? I would think you would jump at the chance. I think not having read Stafford's book and having misunderstood what he wrote to James White is where your problem lies.
By the way, does anyone know of a printed Greek grammar that uses "ie" as a diphthong? I have checked at 13 grammars and not one of them uses "ie." And Janey quoted James Strong, who has had a great many Greek classes, who gave almost the exact same syllable division as Stafford. Why did you ignore this and the Goodwin and Goodrick quotes, Jan?
AC