All India Pre PG2002 Answers compiled by Dr. N.N. Das & Dr. Aseem Khurana Please send corrections / answeres (with ref.) to - [email protected] ** your name will be acknowledged ** ANATOMY 1. A young intern was asked to cannulate greater saphanous vien. Soon after cannulation, patient complained of pain in the dorsum of foot. Most likely, he has ligated A. Saphenous nerve B. Sciatic nerve C. Sural D. Deep paroneal Ans. A Ref. 2. Complete failure of fusion of Mullerain duct is seen in A. Unicornuate B. Uterine didylpous C. Septate uterus D. Arcuate Uterus Ans. B Ref. 3. Which of the following muscle is supplied by mandibular nerve A. Tensor palati B. Stapedius C. Buccinator D. Posterior belly of diagastric Ans. A Ref. 4. Which of following is a elastic cartilage A. External auditary cartilage B. Articular C. Nasal septum D. Costal Cartilage Ans. C? Ref. 5.All of the following are site of uretric constriction, except A. Crossing of iliac artery B. At pelviuretic junction C. Ischial Spine D. At ureterovessical junction Ans. C Ref. 6. Force is transmitted from upper limb to axial skelton by A. Coracoacromial ligament B. Coracoclavicular ligament C. Coracoconoid ligamenty D. Coracohumeral Ans.B Ref. 7. Neural crest forms all except A. Dorsal root ganglion B. Sympathetic Chain C. Cauda Equina D. Adrenal Medulla Ans. C Ref. 8. True statement about gastrulation is A. Develops at4th week B. Three germs layers are defined C. Two poles are defines D. Ans. B Ref. BIOCHEMISTRY 9. Spindles in mitotic division are formed by A. B. C. Leminin D. Tubulin Ans. D Ref. 10. Entropy of living system is constant because A. They are open systems B. They are closed systems C. They are regulated by D. Exothermic /Endothermic Ans. Ref. 11. Thiaminedefeciency is detected by levels of A. Blood transketolase B. C. D. Ans. A Ref. 12. In which step of kreb cycle, Substrate level phophorylase reaction is seen A. Alpha keto glutarate to Suc. CoA B. Suc. CoA to Succinic Acid C. Fumerate to Malate D. Isocitrate to Alpha keto glutarate Ans. B Ref. 13. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for tranfer of molecules from one molecule to another A. Transferase B. Reductase C. Oxidase D. Ligase Ans. A Ref. 14. Which of the following is responsible for electron transfer in a respiratory chain A. NADP B. NADH C. FAD to FDP D. Ans. Ref. 15. Zinc is associated with which enzyme A. B. C. D. Ans. Ref. 16. Magnesium is associated with A. Superoxide dismutase B. ATPase C. D. Ans. Ref. 17. Phenylamine is not a precursor of A. Tyrosine B. Melatonin C. Epinephrine D. Thyroxine Ans. B Ref. G -426 18. All the enzymes are not protein. This statement is true because A. Co-enzymes are non-proteins B. Non-protein metallic catalysts have facilitatory actions on enzymatic reactions. C. D. Ans. Ref. PHYSIOLOGY 19. All of the following are correct about Colon, except A. Water and potassium are absorbed here B. Acidic mucous is secreted C. Goblet cells are present D. Mucocutaneous junction is found Ans. D Ref. 20. Non-shivering thermogenesis is due to A. Epinephrin release from medulla B. C. Metabolism of inter scapular brown fat D. Throxine release Ans. Ref. 21. Corneal layer of skin has elasticity due to A. Keratin B. Lycin C. Cystin kerotohyaline granules D. Histidine kerotohyaline granules Ans. B Ref. Elasticity of skin depends upon elastine which contains Lycine. Keratine is an intermidiate filament which contains Histidine and Cystine (not responsable for elasticity) HARPRE'S Biochemistry 22. Role of topomyosin A. Relaxation of muscle B. Binds with myocin C. It covers active site of myosin D. Binds to actine Ans. D Ref. PATHOLOGY 23. Which of the following is not found in primary tuberculosis A. Calicification B. Cavitation C. Caseation D. Langerhans giant cell Ans. B Ref. 24. Epitheloid cells and granular giant cells are formed by A. Eosinophil B. B cells C. Basophils D. Monocyte-macrphage Ans. D Ref. 25. Crescentric glomerulopathy is seen in A. Focal segmental GN B. Good Pasteur Syndrome C. Membranous GN D. Rapidly progressive GN Ans. D Ref. For the First time - Questions Papers of last2 years are available on CD ROM. Solved paper with references and explainatory answers for Rs.220/- only. (limited copies). All India2001 + AIIMS Nov2000 + May2001 + AIIMS Nov2001 + All India2002 - All in one CD. Price includes handling charges. Contact [email protected] 26. Papillary necrosis is not caused by A. Tuberculosis B. NSAIDs C. Sickle cell Anaemia D. Diabetes mellitus Ans. A sapd Ref. 27. All are true about PNH except A. Raised Leukocytics Alkaline Phosphatase (LAP) B. Aplastic anemia C. Thrombosis D. Ans. A Ref. 28. Which of the following is not found in polycythemia vera A. Thrombosis B. Hyperuricemia C. Thrombocytopenia D. It can change into acute leukemia Ans. C Ref. 29. In an early MI case granulation appear at A. With in1 hour B. With in1 day C. With in1 Week D. With in1 month Ans. C Ref. 30. Which of the following is not found in acute infection A. Exudation B. Raised IgG C. Granulation D. Ans. C Ref. 31. If a nerve tissue is cut, the space is filled by A. Fluid B. Blood vessels C. Regenerated nerve due to mitosis of surrounding nerve fibers D. Microglia Ans. D Ref. 32. All of the following are correct about Celiac disease, except A. Increased mucosal thickness B. Hypertrophy of mucosal crypts C. Intraepithelial lymphocyte D. Increased lymphocytes in lamina propria Ans. A Ref. H 33. Which of the following is present in intraepithelial region of intestine A. T cell B. B cell C. Basophil D. Plasma cell Ans. D? Ref. 34. All of the following is correct about NK cells and T cells A. HLA associated B. Both are active against virus infection C. Antibodies are required for their function D. Both have surface antigen Ans. B Ref. 35. IL-I, causes A. Activation of Lymphocyte B. Activation of macrophage C. Release of INF alpha D. Release of Interleukin2 Ans. A Ref. MICROBIOLOGY 36. Culture from corneal ulcer shows septate hyphae. Most likely organism is A. Aspergillosis B. Candida C. Toxoplasmosis D. Trachoma Ans. A Ref. 37. Ebstein barr virus causes all except A. Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma B. Glandular fever C. Burkitts lymphoma D. Measles Ans. D Ref. 38. Which of the following is true about bacteroids A. It causes Septic infections B. It can cause peritonitis C. It is anerobic D. It is gram positive bacilli Ans. B Ref. 39. H I V genome is A. SS RNA B. DS RNA C. SS DNA D. DS DNA Ans.A Ref. 40. False about HIV A. It is DNA virus B. C. CD4 cell count decreases at last stages D. It infects CD4 cells Ans. A Ref. 41. Staph. aureus is differenciated from staph epidermatits by A. B. White coloured colony C. It is coagulase positive D. Ans. C Ref. 42. Heat stable enterotoxin are produced by all except A. Staphylococcus B. Yersinia enterocolitis C.B. Cerous D. Cl. perfringes Ans. B Ref. Paniker 43. Which of the following is caused by Rat�s Urine A. Plague B. Brucelosis C. Leptospirosis D. Legiolenna Ans. C Ref. Paniker 44. True about Listeria are all except A. It is a gram negative bacteria B. It can cause abortion C. It may spread through soft old cheese D. It causes meningitis in neonates Ans. A Ref. 45. A bacteria can change its genetic information by all of the following methods except A. Transfer of soluble DNA across cell wall B. It incorporate host DNA C. Through Plasmid D. Through Bacteriophage Ans. B Ref. 46. DNA mutation is not detected by A. PCR B. Ligase reaction C. D. Ans. Ref. PHARMACOLOGY 47. Which one of the following is not a selective beta1 blocker A. Esmolol B. Celprolol C. Atenolol D. Acebetolol Ans. B Ref. 48. Which of the following is not a nephrotoxic drug A. Gentamycin B. Cephaloridine C. Amphotericin D. Cephaparazone Ans. D Ref. 49. Which of the combinations has least toxicity A. B. Penicillin and Sulphonamides C. D. Penicillin and amino glycosides Ans. D Ref. This paper is brough to you by www.bhamaindia.com - Dr. Manoj Bhama and Dr. Lokesh Bhama 50. About increased nephrotoxicity of gentamycin, all are true except A. Old age B. Recent administration of Gentamycin C. Penicillin + gentamycin D. It causes tubular necrosis Ans. C Ref. 51. Tientipine is A. Serotonin uptake inhibitor B. Increases norepinephrine release C.5 HT uptake enhancer D. Ans. C Ref. 52. All are true about losartine except A. Angitensin II receptor antagonist B. Dry cough is not a significant problem C. Hyperuricemia D. Ans. C Ref. 53. Gemcitabine Is used in A. Head & Neck Cancer B. Ca Lung C. Ca Pacrease D. Brain tumour Ans. C Ref. 54. Digoxine is contraindicated in A. Atrial fibrilation B. Obstructive hypertrophic cardiomypathy C. CHF D. Atrial flutter Ans. B Ref. 55. In a Log concentration graph, which of the following is a false statement about drug efficacy and potency. A. Potency of drug is more important than efficacy B. Ed50 denotes efficacy C. Higher peak mean higher efficacy D. Two drugs having same efficacy can have diff. pharmacological profile Ans. B Ref. 56. Ideal time of admission of proton (H ion) pump inhibitor in a patient of peptic ulcer is A. Just before meal B. After long fasting C. After meal D. Bed time Ans. A Ref. 57. Bhagwati, a32 year old lady is taking OCP for the last7 years. Which of the following drug ingestion may increase the chances of pregnancy in this lady A. Ampicillin B. Phenytoin C. Gresiofulvin D. Cimitidine Ans. A,B,C Ref. Most likly, B is most correct 58. Mechanism of action of sodium nitroprusside A. cGMP B. C. D. c AMP Ans. A Ref. 59. _______ is a A. Na channel opener B. C. D. K channel opener Ans. Ref. 60. Hydroxymethly starch is a A. Plasma expander B. C. D. Ans. A Ref. 61. In hyperglycemia, mechanism of release of insulin from beta cells is A. Increased cyclic ATP release B. ATP mediated K channel opening C. D. It binds with receptor and causes change in enzyme level Ans. Ref. 64. Drug that is metabolized in liver and than excreted is A. Phenytoin B. Ampicillin C. Diazepam D. Ans. C Ref. 65. Which of the following drug does not cross placenta A. Diazepam B. Carbimazole C. D. Heparin Ans. D Ref FORENSIC MEDICINE 66. Tentative cuts are seen in A. Suicidal B. Homicidal C. D. Ans. A Ref. 67. A skull has round nasal cavity with cephalic index =80. Most likely, it belongs to following race A. Aryans B. Caucasian C. Negro D. Mongol Ans. D Ref. 68. Opiat withdrawl symptom is A. Constriction of pupil B. Drowsiness C. Rhinorrhea D. Hypotension Ans. C Ref. 69. Opiat withdrawl symptom is A. Constriction of pupil B. Drowsiness C. Rhinorrhea D. Hypotension Ans. C Ref. 70. At the site of firearm entry wound, blakish staining is due to A. Friction B. Smoke C. Unburnt gun powder D. Lead oxide Ans. C Ref. Modi 71. Which of the following is true combination A. BAL Iron B. EDTA Mercury C. Pennicilamine- copper D. Desferoxemine Ans. C Ref. 72. Begum Fardeena is a drug addict and is having tactile halliculation, most like drug is A. HCN B. Morphine C. Cannabis D. Smack Ans. C Ref. (cocain was not an option???) 73. Frothy discharge from nose which increases on pressure are characteristic of death from A. Drowning B. Detergent powder C. Toothpaste poisoning D. Organophosphates Ans. A Ref. 74. A white cow, named Gauri has eaten a young linseed plant while grazing in field and has developed poisoning. The cow died before its owner Gopal, could take it to hospital. Gopal is very sorry for his cattle and want to know about the compound which is resposible for this posioning. Most likely, the compound is A. Atropin B. Hydrocyanic Acid C. Aconite D. Abrus precatorius Ans. B Modi -11 Ref. For the First time - Questions Papers of last2 years are available on CD ROM. Solved paper with references and explainatory answers for Rs.220/- only. (limited copies). All India2001 + AIIMS Nov2000 + May2001 + AIIMS Nov2001 + All India2002 - All in one CD. Price includes handling charges. Contact [email protected] 75. Which of the following gaseous compound produces no irritation but positive symptoms A. Chlorine B. Carbon mono oxide C. H2S D. SO2 Ans. B Ref. PSM 76. Cholesterol values are obtained in a group of people after giving some drug. This is a type of A. Paired t test B. Unpaired t test C. Fiescher�s test D. Chi square test Ans. A Ref. 77. Acute flaccid paralysis in which age group is to be reported A. 0-5 years B. 0-10 years C. 0-15 years D. 0-3 years Ans. C Ghai Ref. 78. A group of people with60 kg weight have mean intake of protein =40mg (+-10%) have normal distribution with standard deviation. Recommended protein intake for this group is A.40 mg B.60 mg C.70 mg D.50 mg Ans. B/C Ref. 79. In a group of100 people with normal distribution of data, the mean age weight was70 Kg. The number of person showing weight less than70 Kg will be A.25 B.50 C.75 D.100 Ans. B Ref. 80. All of the following are causes of postneonatal death in India except A. Diarrhea B. Tetanus C. Respiratory infection D. Malnutrition Ans. B Ref. 81. Metabolic acidosis associated with following A. Incressed urinary K+ lose B. Decresed urinary K+ lose C. Biphasic pattern D. ? Ans. A Ref. H15th chapter = metabolic acidosis 82. Which of the following vaccine is Contraindicated in Pregnancy A. Rubella B. OPV C. TT D. Diptheria Ans. A Ref. OPV is a live vaccine but rubella is strongly contraindicated. 83. Infectivity of chicken pox last A. Till last scab fall offs B.3 days after appearance of rash C.6 days after appearance of rash D. As long as fever last Ans. C Ref. Park116 84. Carriers are associated with transmision of disease in all except A. Typhoid B. Cholera C. Measels D. Ans. C Ref. 85. In a hostle campus, a boy named Xevior developed meningococcal meningitis.3 days later, another boy named Khiroth developed fever and neck rigidity. On investigation, Xevior was found to be infected with menningococci group B and Khiroth was found to be infected with menningococci group C virus. Which of the following step has no role A. Prophylatic antibiotics to all contacts of Xevior and Khiroth B. Vaccination to all student who came in contact with Xevior C. Vaccination to all student who came in contact with Khiroth D. Treat both with Ceftriaxone Ans. B Ref. 86. Drug A is effective in95% children and adults. Drug B is efective in47 % of children and90 % of adults. Cost of Drug A is twice the cost ofB. Dr. Lokesh give drug A to both, children and adults. Dr. Manoj treat children with drug A and adults with drugB. If patients are not cured with drug B, Dr. Manoj treat them with DrugA. Ignoring the cost of drug which of the following is false statement A. Treatment given by Dr Manoj is cost effective B. Treament given by Dr. Lokesh is cost effective C. Patients of Dr. Manoj have higher chances of being cured earlier D. Ans. B Ref. 87. True regarding pertusis vaccine is A.95% of vaccinated are protected B. Erythromycin should be given to contacts C. Neuroparalytic complications are seen in1:50000 D. Leucocytosis is diagnostic. Ans. B (vaccine is70-90% efficient) Ref. 88. Calcute the odd�s ratio Diseased< > Undiseased< > Positive< > 30< > 20 Negative 20 30 A. 0.44 B.1.5 C. 0.8 D.2.25 Ans. D Ref. 89. In a study conducted among ten thousand men,6000 men were given carotene out of which60 men developed the disease. Out of remaining 4000, who were not given carotene,40 men developed the disease. Which of the following statement is true about the study A. Carotene increases chances of carcinoma B. Carotene does not increase chances of carcinoma C. Carotene decreases chance of carcinoma D. Data is insufficient Ans. B Ref. 90. Biological oxygen demand denots contamination with A. Bacteria B. Organic matter C. D. Ans. B Ref. 91. Asbestosis causes all except A. Mesothelioma B. Calcified pleural plaque C. Pnemoconiosis D. Alveolar damage Ans. D Ref. 92. Pnemoconiasis is caused by all except A. Silica B. Coal dust C. SO2 D. Tobacco Ans. D Ref. 93. Sentinal survillance is done to detect A. Incidence of disease B. Total number of cases C. D. Ans. B Ref. 94. If cofficient of variance is1.1, it shows A. Strong association B. Negative association C. Wrong calculation D. Some association Ans. C Ref. 96. Double Elisa test was performed on a population. This is result in A. Increased Specificity and Positive Predictive Value (PPV) B. Increased sensitivity and increased PPV C. Increased sensitivity and Negative predictive Value (NPV) D. Increased specificity and increased NPV Ans. D Ref. 97. Pulses and cereals are given together in a balanced diet because A. Pulses lack lycin and cereals lack threonin B. Pulse are rich in methionine and cereals lack methionine C. Pulses lack methionine and cereals lack lysin D. Pulses have essential amino acids and cereals have non-essential amino acids Ans. C Ref. 98. Best graph for demonstration of relationship between ages and weight A. Bar Diagram B. Histogram C. Scatter D. Pie diagram Ans. Ref. 99. Iron and Folic acid supplementation is a type of A. Specific protection B. Health promotion C. Health education D. Primordial protection Ans. A Ref. 100. Vitamin B12 and Folic acid causes macrocytic anemia thorugh A. B. C. Inhibit DNA synthesis D. Ans. Ref. This paper is brough to you by www.bhamaindia.com - Dr. Manoj Bhama and Dr. Lokesh Bhama Please send corrections / answeres (with ref.) to - [email protected] ** your name will be acknowledged ** PAEDIATRICS 101. A2 year old child present with fever (38.5 C) and respiration rate50 per minute without chest retraction. He is suffering from A. Very sever pnemonia B. Severe pnemonia C. Pnemonia D. Simple fever Ans. C Ref. 102. A child with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis will have A. Hyperchlorimic acidosis with aciduria B. Hypochlorimic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria C. Hypochlorimic acidosis with paradoxical alkalosis D. Normochloric Acidurea Ans. B Ref. 103. A neonate presents with acute obstruction with multiple fluid levels. Diagnosis is A. Pyloric Stenosis B. Duodenal atresia C. Ileal atresia D. Lazz�s band Ans. C/B Ref. 104. A child with high fever and coryza for last3 days developed maculopapular erythmatous rashed with lasted48 hours, leaving behind no pigmentation A. Measles B. Fifth disease C. Typhoid D. Roseola infantum Ans. D Ref. 105. Which of the following would cause concern about development of a12 week child A. If don�t voccalise B. If don�t babble C. If neck holding at90 is absent D. If don�t change ring from one hand to other if given in hand Ans. A Ref. NOT "C", Ahuja (psyciatry) 106. Guddu, neonate, present with seizures and skin rashes. On blood examination hyperammonimea and lactic acidosis were found. Likely diasgnosis is A. Organic aciduria B. Mitochondrial enencephaly with lactic acidosis C. D. Ans. B Ref. 107. A8 year old girl presents with recurrent urinary tract infectoin. On micturating cysto urthrogram, Bilateral vesicouterine reflex of grade IV was found. Bladder is normal. Most effective treatment will be A. B. IV antibiotics C. Ureterinc reimplantation D. Join left urter with right ureter Ans. C Ref. 108. A two old girl has weight of6.7 Kg. She suffered an attack of diarrhrea. If skin in picnhed, her skin goes back in seconds. Which of the following is true about her A. Severe dehydration B. Mild Dehydration C. Moderate dehydration D. No comment can be made on these data Ans. D Ref. 109. Which of the following is false about hyaline membrane disease A. It occurs when delivery occurs before34 weeks B. Diabetes mellitus is a predisposing factor C. Cyanosis D.100% oxygen is the treatment Ans. D Ref. 110. Most common cause of neonatal liver disease is A. Hemachromatosis B. Alpha-1-antitryption defeciency C. Cystic fibrosis D. Glycogen Storage disease Ans. Ref. 111. A down syndrome girl has21/21 translocation of chromosomes. Her father is carrier of balanced translocation. Risk of down syndrome in next pregnancy is A.100% B.50% C.25% D. 0% Ans. A Ref. MEDICINE 112. Sudden development of rewspiratory distress and wheeze on right side with decreased respiratory movement. X-ray shows more opacity on right side. A. Foreign body aspiration B. Massive pleural effusion C. Pnemonia D. Ans. A Ref. 113. A child present with sudden onset of stridor with decrased respiratory sounds on left side and X ray show hyperinflation on right side. Most likely diagnosis is A. Emphysema B. FB aspiration C. Pnemonia D. Massive pnemothorax Ans. B Ref. 114. Which of the following is feature of lobulated pleural effusion A. Obtuse angle with mediastinum/chest wall B. Anti razor sharp border C. D. Ans. Ref. 115. In cases of acute poisoning requiring gastric lavage, endotraheal intubation is mandatory because A. To prevent aspiration B. To relieve respiratory distress C. D. Ans. Ref. 116. Medullary cystic kidney disease is best diagnosed by A. Radionuclide scanning B. Biopsy C. USG D. IVP Ans. C/D Ref. H-1601 117. A8 year old patient presents with fever, sore throat and lymphadenopathty. On examination no hepatosplenomegaly was found. Peripheral blood film shows20% atypical lymphocytes. Likely diagnosis is A. CLL B. Infectious mononucleosis C. ALL D. CML Ans. B Ref. 118. For the diagnosis of brain death all of the following are required except A. Absent deep tendon reflex B. C. Complete apnea D. Heart do not response to Atopine Ans. D Ref. 119. Which of the following is aaociated with HLA A. Type I B. Type II C. Fibrocalcific DM D. MODY Ans. A Ref. H-1836 120. True about Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura A. Increased APTT B. Increased AT C. Increased BT D. Increased CT Ans. A Ref. If C option was TTP ? 121. True about HSP A. Thrombocytopenia B. Increased tendency of infection C. Intracranial hemorrhage D. Melana Ans. D Ref. 122. Renal osteodystrophy can be differentiated from nutritional and genetically Vit D dependent rickets by A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypophosphatemia D. Hyperphosphaetemia Ans. D? Ref. 123. Which of the following is not found in pheochromocytoma A. Paroxymal hypertension B. Postural hypotension C. Headache D. Ans. D Ref. 124. Sareef has undergone semen analysis. Sperm count is15 million/ml.60% of sperms are motile and60% show normal morphology. Diagnosis is A. Azoospermia B. Oligospermia C. Testicular atrophy D. Normal recults Ans. B Ref. 125. SI unit of Blood Pressure is A. mmHg B. pKa C. D. Ans. C Ref. For the First time - Questions Papers of last2 years are available on CD ROM. Solved paper with references and explainatory answers for Rs.220/- only. (limited copies). All India2001 + AIIMS Nov2000 + May2001 + AIIMS Nov2001 + All India2002 - All in one CD. Price includes handling charges. Contact [email protected] 126. All of the following are charscteristc of Myxoma except A. Hypertention B. Fever C. D. Ans. Ref. 127. All of the following are Autosomal dominant condition except A. B. Hereditary Spherocytosis C. Sickel cell anemia D. Glucose6 PD def Ans. D Ref. 128. Best diagnostic tool for Invasive amoebiasis is A. B. Haem agglutination C. ELISA D. Ans. C Ref. 129. Pankaj comes for blood donation but he is having HbsAg and HbeAg positive, and serum transaminase level is normal, what would be the next line of management A. Treat with interferone B. HBV DNA estimaion C. Liver biosy D. Observation Ans. A Ref. 130. Abdul, present to causalty6 hr after snake bite, he is having pain and local swelling less than2 inches with no systemic symptomand bleeding. Next line of mangement A. B. Start polyvalent AVS C. Stop antivenom D. Obseravation Ans. D Ref. 131. Annu,24 yr, positive for HIV is pregnant. ART given before dilivary would reduce chances of perinatal transmission by A.35 % B.50 % C.65% D.100 % Ans. B Ref. H1858 132. All of the following are correct about Thromboangitis obliterance except A. Caudication B. Reynold�s phenomenon C. Absent poplitial pulse D. Migratory superficial thrombophelibitis Ans.C H-1436 Ref. 133. Which of the following have hypergastrinemia with decrease acid output A. Peptic ulcer disease B. ZES C. D. Pernicious Anemia Ans. D Ref. 134. Topically applied floride causes A. Deposition of hydroxy apatite B. Inhibition of plaque causeing bacteria C. D. Ans. Ref. 135. Which of the following is transmitted by blood transfusion A. Parvovirus18 B. Dengue fever C. CMV D. Hepatitis G Ans. Dengue is not tranmitted H738. Ref. 136. Apo48 and Apo100 are different from each other on the basis of A. Genetic composition B. RNA spilicing C. D. Ans. Ref. 137. Rheumatic factor estimation is important in a case of arthritis because A. Rh +ve cases have poor prognosis B. Rh -ve excludes diagnosis of rheumatic arthritis C. Rh factor is specific for rheumatic arthritis D. It is important incase of juvenile arthritis Ans. A Ref. 138. Which of the following is not found in conn�s syndrome A. Hypokalimia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypertention D. Oedema Ans. D (escape phenomenon) Ref. 139. TSH infusion test is used to detect A. LH B. ACTH C. FSH D. GH reserve Ans. B Ref. 140. Hypoglycemia is not seen in A. Hypo pituitarism B. C. D. Acromegaly Ans. D Ref. 141. Which of the following is not associated with steroid intake A. Hypertrophy of muscles B. Peptic Ulcer C. Suppresion of pituitory-adreno axis D. Osteoporasis Ans. A Ref. 142. Anion Gap is increased in A. Diabetes Mellitus B. C. D. Ans. Ref. 143. Anion Gap is normal in A. DKA B. Antifreeze ?? B. C.Shock D.Chronic renal failure Ans. Ref. 144. Acute decrease in serum calcium conc. results in A. Chronotopic and ionotopic effect on heart and teeth B. Release of parathyroid and thyroid hormones C. Irritability and easy excitability D. Osteoporosis of bones Ans. Ref. 145. All of the following are trnsmitted genetically excpet / Pheochromocytoma is associated with all except A. Vonrecklin housen sysndrome B. Marfan sydrome C. Tuberosclerosis D. Von hipple lindu syndrome Ans. B Ref. 146. Hypokalemia causes all except A. Muscle wasting B. C. D. Ans. Ref. 148. A child died to acute rheumatic fever. Which of the following will not be seen in heart A. Rupture of papillary muscle B. Fibrinus pericarditis C. Ascoff�s nodule D. Mc callum�s patch Ans. A? Ref. 149. False about dorsal horn cell disease A. B. C. D. Ans. Ref. 150. Chandresh, a30-year-old man presents with hypertention, claudication and h/o stroke. On investigation, noching on lower border of anterior rib was found. Most likely diagnosis is A. VSD B. Superior-Vecal obstruction C. Coarctation of aorta D. Benign hypertension Ans. C Ref. This paper is brough to you by www.bhamaindia.com - Dr. Manoj Bhama and Dr. Lokesh Bhama 151. Sodium130, K =1.9, HCO3 =19, fluid given is A. B. C. MgSO4 D. Hypertonic saline Ans. Ref. 152. Nafisa, a53 year old lady had blood sugar =600, Na = 122. She was treated and present blood sugar level is100. What will be the next step A. Sodium level will automatically come to normal B. Saline has to be infused C.3% saline D. Ans. Ref. 153. Birju developed sudden resp distress during central venous catheterisation. Most likly cause is A. Septicemia B. Injury C. Pneumothorax D. Ans. Ref. 154. Original syndrome described by Zollinger and Ellison is A. Hypergastrenimia with non beta cell tumour B. Hypergastrenemia with beta cell tumour C. D. Ans. A Ref. 155. CMV occurs in AIDS if CD4 count fall below A.50 B.100 C.150 D.200 Ans. A Ref. 156. Budhia, a52 year old man comes with history of blood loss. His BP is80/60. PT, CT, APTT increased and there is thrombocytopenia. Which of the following is best IV solution for him A. Frozen plasma B. IV Saline C. Colloid D. Ans. A Ref. 157. Globi cells in lepromatous leprosy are consist of A. B. Foam cells with fat globules C. Foam cells with lysozomes D. Macrophage cell laden with acid fast bacilli Ans. D Ref. 158. Which of the following is true about baby of a diabetic mother A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Polycythemia D. Ans. A Ref. 159. Renal venous thrombosis is associated with A. Diabetes mellitus B. Minimal change disease C. Glomerulopathy D. Membranous GN Ans. D? Ref. 160. Urine of a gout patient is to be preserved to detect gouty crystals. Best solution is preserve is urine is A. Alcohol B. Formaldehyde C. Acetic Acid D. Ans. A Ref. 161. Most common cause of congenital cardiac anamoly is A. Autosomal dominent B. Autosomal recessive C. X Linked D. Multifactorial Ans. D Ref. 162. Not true about Jugular venous pressure A. c wave denotes atrial contraction B. a wave denote ventricular contraction C. D. v-y = rapid decent in Ans. Ref. 163. True statement is A. cannon wave denoted complete heart block B. C. Superior venacaval obstruction result in increase in JVP and exaggerated pulsation D. Ans. Ref. 164. Which is the best investigation tool for15th day of typhoid fever A. Blood culture B. Stool culture C. Urine culture D. Widal test Ans. A? bone marrow is best and widal and blood culter are equally positive on15th day. Widal may be non specific. 165. Granulocytic hepatitis is not caused by A. Candida B. Metastatic carcinoma C. D. Halothan Ans. Ref. 166. Bilateral peri-hilar alveolitis with wheeze�.. is found in A. Extrinsic alveolitis B. C. D. Sarcoidosis Ans. Ref. MISCELANEOUS 167. Superior external pudendal artery is a branch of A. Internal Iliac artery B. External iliac artery C. Pudendal artery D. Femoral artery Ans. D Ref. 168. Barbiturates are contraindicated in A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Anxiety C. D. Ans. A Ref. 169. Intestinal biopsy from a46 year old patient shows numerous bacteria. Most likly cause is A. Celeic disease B. Whipple's disease C. D. Ans. B Ref. 170. All of the following are true regarding case control study except A. Relative risk can be calculated B. Less expensive C. Suitable for rare diseases D. Backward study Ans. Ref. 171. True statement regarding Direct standardization is A. Age specific rates are required B. Age specific rates are not required C. It is a type of cae control study D. Two populations with diff. age groups are compared Ans. B Ref. 172. Webers test is done by A. Putting the tuning fork on patient's forehead and occluding external auditory canal B. Comparing bone conduction of patient with that of examiner C. Putting tunig form first on mastoid and than on forehaed D. Putting tuning fork on patient vertex and asking him in which ear he hears better Ans.D Ref. 173. In case of raised intraocular pressure, tonography is used for A. B. C. D. Ans. Ref. 174. True statement about disc prolapse is ??? A. B. C. D. Ans. Ref. 175. In a patient under anaesthesia, Helium is given with oxygen becuase A. It releaves pain B. C. It helps in better delivery of oxygen D. Ans. Ref. 176. All of the following are true about congenital rubella syndrome except A. Cardiac anamolies B. Deafness C. Eye involvement D. ASD Ans. D Ref. 177. Drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder A. B. C. Clomipremine D. Ans. C Ref. PSYCHIATRY 178. A chronic alcoholic has left drinking alcohol since3 days. He has developed �� Most likely cause is A. Koroskoff psychosis B. Delerium tremens C. D. Ans. Ref. 179. Delusion is not seen in A. Depression B. Delirium C. Schizophrenia D. Mania Ans. A Ref. 180. Visual and auditory hallucinations are characteristically seen in A. Organic brain lesion B. C. D. Ans. Ref. 181. A child create nuisense everywhere. He is so naughty that his activities disturb all other children in the class. He cannot stay at one place. Most likely diagnosis is A. Attention deficient hyperkinetic disorder B. Autism C. D. Ans. Ref. 182. Prakashchandra,42 year old man has complain non progressive headache since many weeks. He has visited several neurosurgeons saying that he has brain tumour. Clinical examination and laboratory investigations are negative. He is not ready to accept the reports. His psychological is being done. He is probably suffering from A. Hypochoandriasis B. Somatization C. Somatiform disorder D. Ans. A Ref. 183. Pooja, a27 year old female eating voraciously and taking luxative and than eating more and more again and again. Most likly diagnosis is A. Bulemia nervosa B. B C. Anorexia nervosa D. Ans. a Ref. 184. A45 year old lady has typical �.. movement of hands and �.. She cannot recall any of the events. Most likely diagnosis is A. Dissociation disorder B. Conversion disorder C. Temporal lobe epilepsy D. Fugue Ans. Ref. 185. All of the following are true about visual hallucination A. Depends upon will of observer B. Seen against vivid background C. D. It is percepted without stimulus Ans. Ref. SKIN / VD 186. Genital Elephentitis is seen in A. Chancroid B. Syphilis C. LGV D. Ans. C Ref. 187. Wickhems stria are seen in A. Psoriasis B. C. D. Lichen planus Ans. D Ref. 188. Rameshwar lal was receiving steroids for psoriasis. He has developed fever and pustules all over his body after stopping steroids. Most likely cause is A. Drug eruption B. Pustular psoriasis C. Septicemia D. Ans. B Ref. 189. Scaly lesions on chest with -- distribution. Most likely cause is A. Pitriasis versicolr B. Pitriasis Alba C. Psoriasis D. Pitriasis rosea Ans. D Ref. 190. In fungal infection of nail antifungal drugs are given for A.3 weeks B.6 weeks C.3 month D.6 month Ans. Ref. 191. Drug not given in Pitriasis versicolor A. Gresiofulvin B. Ketoconazole C. Selenium D. Clotimazole Ans. A Ref. 192. Which of the following is not a STD A. Chlaymidia B. Molluscum contagiosus C. E. granulosus D. Streptococcus B Ans. C Ref. SURGERY 193. A46-year-old man comes for some problems. He has been operated for varicose veins at age of21. Dye was injected and it was freely flowing from thigh to foot. -- saphenous vlave is found to be patent. Most effective treatment for this patient is A. B. C. D. Ans. Ref. 194. Begum nazeer, presents with amenorrhea and galactorrhea. She has two issues, having age of5 and6 years respectively. On investigation, serum prolactin level is raised and empty sella turcica was found. She is most likely suffering from A. Prolactinoma B. C. D. Sheehan syndrome Ans. A Ref. 195. Sentinal LN biopsy is done for A. Ca Breast B. Ca thyroid C. Retropharyngeal Ca D. Lung Cancer Ans. A Ref. Bailey -767 196. ACTH production by a pituitary tumour can be diffrentiated from ectopic ACTH production by A. Dexamethasone suppression test B. Petrosal sinus sampling of blood C. Serum ACTH levels D. CT scan Ans. B Ref. H.,15th ed.2093 197. Which of the following is a true statement A. CT scan can differentiate adrenal adenoma from adrenal hyperplasia B. MRI scan can differentiate adrenal adenoma from adrenal hyperplasia C. MRI is better to CT in differentiating pitutary cause of cushing syndrome D. Ans. C Ref. 198. False statement about kidney is A. Kidney is a site of portal anastomosis B. Renal artery gives5 branches before entering hylum C. Segmental supply is end arterial supply D. Annular veins arise from surface Ans. A Ref. 199. Narender presents with � tuft of hairs at back. Most likely diagnosis is A. Sinus dermoid B. Phylum terminale C. Caudal regression syndrome D. Ans. Ref. This paper is brought to you by Bhamaindia.com Please send corrections / answeres (with ref.) to - [email protected] ** your name will be acknowledged ** 200. Ganpatrai, a70 year old man suffered suffered45% burn and scalds, which resulted in blister formation.2-4 blisters have ruptured. All of the following can be done except A. Silver sulphadiagine ointment + no dressing B. Light daily change of dressing C. Hetrotrophic skin transplantation + sutures to keep it in position + no dressing D. Local antibiotics + no dressing Ans. Ref. 201. Pindborg Tumour A. B. C. D. Ans. Melody khao, khud jaan jao Ref. 202. Diaphragmatic hernia does not occur through A. Venacaval opening B. C. D. Ans. Ref. 203. A26 year old girl suffered burn on lateral surface of arm. A. B. C. D. Ans. Ref. 204. Sareef, a56 year old patient has painful external hemorrhoids. These pain sensations are carried by A. Pudendal Nerve B. S2,3,4 C. Hypogastric Nerves D. Splanchnic nerves Ans. Ref. 205. Transection at C7 level will result in all except A. Hypotension B. No effect on respiration C. Absent tendon reflex D. Ans. A Ref. 206. A patient with head injury has developed hypotension. The most likely region to be involved is A. Upper cervical B. Lower cervical C. Thoracic D. Lumber Ans. A/B? Ref. 207. Narendra age35, had injury tempal region of head, admitted to hospital and gained coma immediately. Next line of management would be A. MRI B. CT sacn C. X-ray Skull D. Cranitomy Ans. B Ref. 208. A female underwent throidectomy and removal of a parathyroid adenoma5 years back. She is recovering from MI (6 weeks back) and have atrial fibrillation. Her serum calcium level is13. Treatment of choice is A. Radioactive compound B. Surgery C. D. Ans. Ref. 209. Thyroid storm is not found treatment with A. Thyroid Surgey B. Acute infection C. Radio iodine D. Thyroid Ans. C Ref. 210. A patient with thyroid nodule has enlarged neck LN on same side. On needle aspiration, amyloid stroma is found. Diagnosis is A. Medullary carcinoma B. Follicular carcinoma C. Lymphoma D. Toxic Goiter Ans. A Ref. 211. A patient with thyroid nodule has enlarged neck LN on same side. On needle aspiration, amyloid stroma is found. Treatment of choice is A. Total thyroidectomy + radical neck dissection B. Lobular throidectomy with removal of isthmus C. Lobular throidectomy, removal of isthmus and radical neck dissection D. Lobectomy + removal of involved lymph node Ans. A Ref. 212. False about De Querain throiditis A. Autoimmune thyroiditis B. Painful C. Recover spontaneously D. Viral etiology Ans. A H-2074 Ref. 213. A patient Nafis presents with enlarged thyroid.5 years back, her mother died of carcinoma thyroid. Next investigation to be done is A. Serum T3 T4 TSH B. ACTH and cortisol estimation C. Urinary D. Urinary VMA and HIAA Ans. D Ref. 214. Bone marrow metastasis in a child is most commonly associated with A. Rhabhdomyocytoma B. Wilm�s tumour C. Neuroblastoma D. Renal cell carcinoma Ans. C Ref. 215. Microcalcification in kedney is found in A. B. Wilm�s tumour C. D. Ans. B Ref. 216. A patient had surgery for colon cancer. He has developed a2cm solitary metastatic nodule in liver. TOC is A. Chemotherapy B. Radiotherapy C. Resection D. Ans. C Ref. 217. Prophylatic Radiotherapy in CNS is given in all of the following except A. ALL B. NHL C. Hodgkins Lymphoma D. Ans. D Ref. 218. Radiotherpy is TOC in A. Meduloblastoma B. Oligodendroma C. Astrocytoma D. Glioblastoma multiformis Ans. A Ref. 219. A patient with chronic duodenal ulcer will likely to have obstruction at A. Antrum B. Pylorus C. Duodenum D. Ans. Ref. 220. A boy underwent splenectomy after traumatic rupture of spleen, abter3 days he presents with pain in left lower chest and upper abdomen, CXR shows atelaectasis in left lower lung flat plate abdomen is showing non specific gas accumulation in intestine and fluid level in left upper region. Most likely diagnosis is A. Pancreatitis B. Subphernic abscess C. D. Ans. B Ref. 221. All of the following are associated with ulcerative colitis except A. Sclerosing cholengitis B. Pancreatitis C. Ankylosong spondilitis D. Uveitis Ans. B Ref. H14th,1614 222. Pleural effution is drained at A.5th ICS midclavicular line B.7th ICS MAL (Mid axxilary line) C.10th ICS lateral to vertebral body D.2nd ICS in midclavicular line (MCL) 223. Mukundlal age35, is suffering from achlasia cardia, which of the treatment modality used would have maximum recurrenc rate A. Pneumatic dilation B. Botulinum toxin C. Endoscopic surgery D. Myemotomy Ans. B Ref. 224. Cork sckrew apperarance of oesophagus is seen in A. AC B. Oesophagia dysmotility C. Ca Oesophagus D. Candida Ans. B Ref. 225. Which of the following surgical procedure is having lowest recurrence rate in peptic ulcer diease A. Highly selective vagotomy B. Vagotomy and antrectomy C. Vagotomy with pyeloroplasty D. Billroth II Ans. B Ref. 226. Predisposing factor of gastric carcinoma is A. Duedenal Ulcer B.Intestinal metaplasia type III C. D. Blood group O Ans. B Ref. 227. Most premalignant condition is A. Leukoplakia B. Erythroplakia C. Dysplasia D. Ans.B Ref. 228. Anita24 yr, pregnant lady is having thyrotoxic goitre, all of the following are treatment modalites except A. Anti thyroid drugs B. Surgery at2nd trimester C. D.131 Iodine Ans. D Ref. 229. Toti18 yr old lady presents with nonpitting oedema in right leg, which of the following is cause A. B. C. D. Hypoplasia of lymphatics Ans. Ref. 230. Pappu2 yr old child underwent thymectomy. What would be seen A. Increased IgM B. Decresed perifollicular cell in lymphnode C. Incresed ��� in intestinal lymphnodes. D. Ans. Ref. 231. Which of the following are correct about Barret Oesophagus A. Columnar tranformation in lower oesophagus B. Squamous transformation in lower oesophagus C. Columnar transformation in Upper oesophagus D. Ans. A Ref. 232. True Adenocarcinoma is common in A. Barret oesophagus B. C. D. Ans. A Ref. 233. Most common salivary gland tumour A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Warthims tumour C. D. Ans. A Ref. 234. Most common causee of intusseception in neonate A. Meckel�s diverticulum B. C. Polyposis D. Infection Ans. D Ref. Bailey1067 235. A70 Kg man faced a burn injury4 weeks back. At that time his weight was90 Kg. Since4 week, he is on IV fluids and has not taken anything from mouth except antacids. His stool examination reveals melana. He has right-sided inguinal hernia which is reducible. He also has history of duodenal ulcer. His wound is healing but showing eschar formation. His lower extremicities show flexion contractions of joints. Next line of management will be A. IV alimentation to let him regain his weight B. Surgery for inguinal hernia C. Surgery for eschar and nothing by mouth D. Ans. A? Ref. ORTHOPAEDICS 236. Carpul tunnel syndrome is caused by palsy of A. Ulner nerve B. Median nerve C. Radial nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve Ans. B Ref. 237. Frature neck of humerus is most likely to injure which nerve A. Radial B. Ulner C. Axillary D. Medial Ans. C Ref. 238. fractue of lateral condyl of femur is most likely to result in A. Genu valgum B. Genu varus C. Genu D. Ans. Ref. 239. Patellar tendon is ligated in POP cast in which fracture A. Tibia B. Fibula C. Medial condyl D. Patella Ans. A Ref. 240. Supracondylar fracture of humerus is liest likely to result in injury of A. Radial nerve B. Ulner nerve C. Median nerve D. Ans. B Ref. 241. Expansile, lytic lesion in metaphysis of femur with falffy calcification is most likely a cause of A. Osteosarcome B. Chondeosarcoma C. Fibrous dysplasia D. Ans. B? Ref. 242. A young man has met a motor bike accident. On examination, posterior dislocation of thigh is found. It is result in following disability A. Extension, adduction and external rotation B. Flexion, abduction and internal rotation C. Flexion, internal rotation and adduction D. Flexion, external rotation and abduction Ans. C Ref. 243. Sumitra, a33 year old lady has faced a side injury, resulting in fracture of shaft of femur. On second day, she developed tachypnea and pain in chest. Most likely, this is due to A. Pulmonary thromboembolism B. Fat embolism C. MI D. Shock Ans. B Ref. 244. In inversion injury of foot, all of the following are found except A. Lateral malleolar fracture B.5th metacarpal fracture C. Planter brevis tendon sprain D. Sprain of digiti minimi brevis Ans. Ref. 245. Loss of sensation of lateral side of leg results due to A. B. C. D. Ans. Ref. 246. A boy present with recuurent fracture and anemia. X-ray shows increased density of bones. Most likely diagnosis is A. Osteomalacia B. Osteopetrosis C. Osteoporasis D. Hisiocytosis X Ans. B Ref. 247. A labour Gopal Sharma age45, present to medicine OPD with sudden back pain radiating to left leg, with inability to lift great toa. Best management would be A. B. C. Conservative for1 week, if weakness in great toe persist do Laminectomy and dissectecmy D. Fusion L4 and L5 vertebrae Ans. Ref. 248. Most common cause of osteomylitis is A. Staphylococcal aureus B. St. Viridens C. Pnemococcus D. St. bovis Ans. A Ref. 249.In a fed state which of the following reaction does not occure A. Acetyl CoA to acetoacetate B. C. D. Ans. Ref. OPTHALMOLOGY 250. A patient of congestive glaucoma took some drug. This resulted in blepheroconjunctivitis. Most likely drug is A. Pilocarpine B. Timolol C. D. Ans. B Ref. Tripathi152 251. Veritcally dilated pupil. Most likely diagnosis is A. Open angle glaucoma B. Acute anterior uveitis C. Closed angle glaucoma D. Ans. C Ref. 252. A young doctor has been asked to exclude open and glaucoma. This can be done best by testing A. Depth of the chamber (anterior) B. Angle of the chamber C. Cupping of the disc D. Pupillary reflex Ans. C Ref. Nima152 253. Visual field is minimum is which direction A. Superior B. Nasal (medial) C. Inferior D. Temporal (lateral) Ans. A . Ref. Nima64 254. Occulomotor nerve do not supply A. Medial Rectus B. Superior pal C. Lateral Rectus D. Inferior Rectus Ans. C Ref. 255. One can see different colours by combination of three colours - red, blue and green. If his eyes are week to see a particular colour, intensity of that particular colour is to be increased so that he can see all the colours. If some one�s eye is week to see red colour, this defect is called A. Deutroanopia B. Protanopia C. tri anopia D. tetra anopia Ans. B Ref. 256. Ramavtar, a42 year old man has problem is reading at near distant. He is prescribed +1.5 lens for near vision. When he looks down, his spects slides down on his nose. This will cause his near vision to A. Decrease B. Distort C. Increase D. Not affected Ans. A Ref. 257. Ramesh has complains of poor vision. After maximum correction of1.5 power in left and4.5 poor in right eye, his vision is3/6 in left and5/6 in right eye. Most likely diagnosis is A. Occipetal lobe lesion B. Amblyopia C. D. Ans. B Ref. 258. Macula (fovea centalis) has maximum number of cones for which colours A. Red and Blue B. Red and Green C. Blue and yellow D. Green and blue Ans. B Ref.A.K.Khurana page no.300, Acquired colour blindness (P.S.Bhattacharya) 259. Wernicks hemianopia is seen in lesion of A. Optic chiasma B. Genuculate ganglia C. Optic nerve D. Optic tract Ans. D Ref. 260. Drug of choice for anterior uveitis with raised intraocular pressure A. Pilocarpine B. Lansprot C. Phospholine iodide D. Depivefrine Ans. C Ref. (Dr. P.S. Bhattacharya). 261. Epiphora means A. Flow of excessive tear due to obstruction at punctum B. Inversion on eye lashes due to infection C. D. Ans. A Ref. ENT 262. A47 year old person has buccal mucosa cancer which has invaded the superios surface of mandible. He is edentulous. All of the following can be treatment regime for him except A. Segmental mandibulectomy B. Mandibulectomy C. lateral half D. Radiotherapy Ans. Ref. 263. Glottic carcinoma, stage T1 N 0 M 0, can be treated by A. External Beam Radiotherapy B. Brachytherapy C. Chemotherapy D. Surgery Ans. A? Ref. 264. Truck driver with coryaza and sneezing. Treatment of choice A. Promethazine B. Phenylephrine C. D. Citrezine Ans. Ref. 265. Which of the following is not a sensory supply palate A. Hypoglossal nerve B. Facial C. Vagus D. Maxillary Ans. A Ref. 266. Most common cause of ASOM in children A. Streptococcus Pneumonai B. H. Inf. C. St. viridens D. Staphylocossus aureus Ans. A Ref. 267. A9 month old infant present with hoarseness. On laryngoscopy, a red mass is seen in subglottic region. All of the following can be given to him except A. Micrlarngoscopic resection B. Steroids C. Radiotherapy D. Endotracheal intubation Ans. Ref. 268. False statement about Ramsay Hunt syndrome A. Viral etiology B. VII nerve most commonly involved C. May involve VIII nerve D. Spontaneously recovered cases have excellent prognoses Ans. D Ref. 269. Fistula test is positive in all except A. Dear ear B. Fenestration operation C. Hypermotile foot plate D. Fistula Ans. A Ref. 270. Treatment of karotosis of larynx consist of all except A. Vocal cord striping B. Partial laryngectomy C. Radiotherapy D. Microscopic Surgery Ans. B Ref. 271. Tympanotomy is performed on posteroinferior quadrant of tympanic membrane A. Because this area is relativly less vascular B. To prevent injury to mid ear bones C. Because this area is easily approachable D. To prevent chorda tympani nerve Ans. Ref. GYNAE / OBS 272. A lady present with infertility. Hystosalpingography shows beaded tubes with. Most likely diagnosis is A. B. Gonococuss C. Tuberculosis D. Trichonomas Ans. C Ref. 273. A patient with vaginal infection and discharge was evaluated and endocervical biopsy chlamydia was found. Treatment to be given is A. Azithromycin + contact tracing B. Metronidazole C. Azithromycin D. Doxycyclene + Metronidazole Ans. A Ref. 274. A patient with positive antiphospholipid antibodies would have all except A. Recurrrent Abortion B. Venous Thrombosis C. Thrombocytosis D. Neurological Manifestation Ans. C Ref. H14th,1344 275. A lady presents with recurrent abortion and venous thrombosis with positive antiphospholipid antibody. True statement is A. Increase APTT B. Antiphospholipid syndrome C. D. Ans. B Ref. 276. Causes of increased chances of thrombosis in pregnancy (are all except??) A. Increased Viscosity B. C. Increased APTT D. Increase Antithromin III Ans. A Ref. 277. Chandrika devi, a44 year old complains of hot flushes. Which of the following will be used for this problem A. Estriol B. Progestins C. Paracetamol D. Morphine Ans. A Ref. 278. Which of the follwoing is not a risk factor for Endometrial carcinoma A. Irradiation B. Oral contraceptive pills C. Tamoxifen D. Estogen Ans. B Ref. 279. A40 lady has complain of polymenorrhea. On examination nothing was found. What will be the first line on management A. Give progesteron for three cycles B. Give OCP for3 cycles C. Dilatation and curratage D. Hysterectomy Ans. B Ref. 280.5 year failure rate of LNG (Levonorgestrol) IUCD is A. 0.5 % B.1.0 % C.1.5 % D.2.0 % Ans. A Ref. 281. A pregnant lady Anu, having grade II mitral stenosis, comes with labour pain all of the following can be done except A. B. Cut short2nd stage C. Inj Methargin at delivery of anterior shoulder D. Apply forceps in indicated Ans. C Ref. 282. All of the following are correct about episiotomy except A. It dilate birth canal B. Median and lateromedian are coomonly employed C. Median episiotomy have less bleeding and good healing D. Anal spicture involvement is type3rd/4th degree perineal tear Ans. A Ref. 283. All of the following are indication of LSCS except A. Planceta previa grade IV B. Abruptio Placenta C. CIN III of cervix D. Herpes simplex of vagina Ans. B Ref. 284. All are correct about forcep delivary except A. Complete cervical dilatation is only prerequesic B. It can be used in ventuse failure C. In breech presentation D. Ans. A Ref. 285. True statement is A. Ventose can be used to convert occipito postrior to occipito anterior B. It can be applied in a premature baby C. D. Ans. Ref. 286. Breech presentation is assocated with all except A. Cornual implantation of placeta B. Congenital malformation C. Low lying placenta (cervical) D. Placenta arrecata Ans. D Ref. 287. Kusum25 yr old, is taking OCP, Which of the following drug would increase chance of ocp failure A. Ampicilin B. Phenytoin C. Grisiofulvin D. Ans. Ref. 288. Which of the following is true about pregnancy A. Incresed vaginal pH B. Increased lactobacillus in vagina C. Incresed anerobic bacteria in vagina D. Ans. Ref. 289. Which of the foolowing is false about Ideopathic Cholestasis of pregnancy A. Itching B. Bilirubin > 5 mg % C. Alkaline phosphate is markedly elevated D. SGOT/SGPT is60 U Ans. B Ref. 290. Most cause of psedo hermaphrodite female is A. Congenital adrenogenital syndrome B. Arrhenoblastom C. D. Ans. A Ref. 291. True statement about cephalhematoma is A. B. Subperiosteal effusion C. Aspiration has to be done D. Ans. Ref. 292. Ramkali has complains of slowly developing hirsutism. LH/FSH estimations has to be done in which period of a menstruation cycle A.1-3 days B.7-8 days C.15-18 days D.26-28 days Ans. A/D Ref. Shaw12th,77 293. Jyoti, a24 year girl present with complains of rapid development of hirsutism and change in voice. Blood levels of which of the following hormone should be estimated A. Testosterone B. LH/FSH C. Oestrogen D. Gonadotropin Ans. A Ref. Rapid Hirsutism = Testosteron, Slow = PCOD 294. All of the following can be given for treatment of menorrhagia except A. NSAIDS B. Danazol C. Progesterons (norethisterone?) D. Clomiphene Ans. D Ref. RADIOLOGY / RADIODIAGNOSIS 295. Most penetrating rays are A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. X-rays Ans. C Ref. 296. For detection of dense bone, which of the following needs to be increased A. mA (Milli ampeare) B. KV C. D. Ans. Ref. 298. Commonest uterine prolapse is A. Cystocoele B. Urethrocoele C. Enterocoele D. Rectocoele Ans. A Ref. 299. All of the following can result in exfoliative dermatitis except A. Psoriasis B. Drug eruptions C. Erythema Multiforme D. Pitryiasis rubra Ans. C Ref. 300. Which of the following method is best to measure pulmonary artery pressure A. EPWP B. Right Atrial pressure C. D. Ans. Ref. For the First time - Questions Papers of last2 years are available on CD ROM. Solved paper with references and explainatory answers for Rs.220/- only. (limited copies). All India2001 + AIIMS Nov2000 + May2001 + AIIMS Nov2001 + All India2002 - All in one CD. Price includes handling charges. Contact [email protected] Copyright �2000 Bhama India Limited. All rights reserved.