1. All of the followings are true regarding the pudendal nerve, EXCEPT
A. Sensory and motor
B. Derived from S2,3,4
C. Comes out through the lesser sciatic foramen
D. Main nerve supply of pelvic organs

2. In the fracture of middle cranial fossa, absence of tears would be due to lesion in
A. Tigeminal ganglion
B. Cliary ganglion
C. Geater superficial petrosal nerve
D. Cevical ganglion

3. All of the following are true about coronary artery EXCEPT-
A. Right coronary in anterior interventricular groove
B. Usually 3 obtuse margical artery arised from left coronary artery
C. In 85% cases posterior descending artery arises from right co. art.
D.

4. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of the
A. Left gastric
B. Splenic
C. Celiac trunk
D. Gastroduodenal

5. Motor supply of the diaphragm
A. Thoracodorsal
B. Intercostal nerves
C. Phrenic nerve
D. Sympathetic

6. All of the following are supplied by the facial nerve EXCEPT
A. Lacrimal gland
B. Submandibular gland
C. Nasal glands
D. Parotid

7. All are true regarding inguinal canal EXCEPT
A. Roof is formed by conjoint tendon
B. Deep inguinal ring is formed by transverse abdominus
C. Superficial inguinal ring is formed by ext. obliq. Muscle
D. Int. obliq muscle forms anterior and post. wall

8. In a post polio case, ilio-tibial tract contracture is likely to result in
A. Extension at the hip and knee
B. Extension at the hip
C. Flexion at the hip and the knee
D. Extension at the knee

BIOCHEMISTRY
9. Source of the nitrogen in urea cycle
A. Aspartate and ammonia
B. Glutamate and ammonia
C. Argenase and ammonia
D.

10. Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk?
A. Linoleate
B. Linolenic
C. Palmitic
D. Docasahexanoic acid
 
 
 
11. Highest binding of iron in plasma is seen with
A. Transferrin
B. Ferritin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Ceruloplasmin

12. Maximum no. of H bonds are found between which base pairs?
A. A-T
B. G-C
C. A-G
D. C-T

13. Protonation and deprotonation at pH 7 occures in which amino acid
A. Serine
B. Histidine
C. Threonine
D. Proline

14. Basic amino acids are
A. Aspartate and glutamate
B. Serine and glycine
C. Lysine and arginine
D. Cystine and methionine

15. All of the follwings are true about gout EXCEPT
A. Due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines
B. Due to increased metabolism. of purines
C. Decreased metabolism of purine
D. None of the above

16. Which of the following RNA has abnormal purine bases
A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. rRNA
D. 16S RNA

17. Which bond is NOT formed between an enzyme substrate complex
A. Electrostatic
B. Covalent
C. Van der waals
D. Hydrogen

18. Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by
A. Cyanide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. MAO
D.

19. All of the following are correct about cortisol EXCEPT
A. Increase glucose, glycogen sysnthesis in liver
B. Attached to membrane and then act on nucleus
C. Suppress synthesis of protein & nucleic acid in lymphocyte
D. Inhibit release of ADH

20. A destitute woman admitted with altered sensorium, dehydration; urine analysis showed mild proteinuria and no sugar; what other test would be desirable.
A. Fouchet
B. Rothera
C. Hays
D. Benedict's

21. which of the following is NOT seen on hemoglobin electrophoresis in sickle cell anemia:
A. HbA
B. HbA2
C. HbF
D. HbS
 
 
22. Glycosylated Hb is used for
A. Identification of long term Glucose level
B. Monitoring of short term Glucose level
C. Identification of diabetes control
D. To predict responsiveness of insulin

23. All of the following are correct EXCEPT
A. HDL is protective for IHD
B. LDL delivers cholestrol in tissue
C. Increase cholestrol level causes increase in no. of receptors
D. VLDL is an endogenous triglyceride transporter

PHYSIOLOGY
24. Blood is non-newtonian fluid because
A. Viscosity changes with velocity
B. Density changes with velocity
C. Density does not changes with velocity
D. Viscosity does not changes with velocity

25. Force generating proteins are
A. Myosin and myoglobin
B. Dynein and kinesin
C. Calmodelin and G protien
D. Troponin

26. Protein involved in intercellular connections
A. Connexin
B. Integrin
C. Adhesin
D. Troponin

27. Initiation of nerve impulse occurs at the axon hillock because
A. It has a lower threshold than the rest of the axon
B. It is unmyelinated
C. Neuro transmitter are release at this place
D. Most excitable & thershold high

28. Single most important factor in control of automatic contractility of heart
A. End diastolic volune
B. Right atrial volume
C. SA node pacemaker potential
D. Symps. Stimulation

29.Which is true about measurement of BP with syphgnomonmeter
A. Less than intravascular pressure
B. More than intravascular pressure
C. Equal to IVP
D. Depend upon blood flow

30. All of following is correct regarding capillaries EXCEPT
A. Greatest surface area
B. Least diameter
C. Contains more blood than veins
D. Have single layer of cells bounding the lumen

31. Albumin contributes the maximum to oncotic pressure because it has
A. High mol wt, low concentration
B. Low mol wt, low conc
C. High mol wt, high conc
D. Low mol wt, high conC.

32. Tidal volume is calculated by
A. Inspiratory capacity minus the inspiratory reserve volume
B. Total lung capacity minus the reserve volume
C.
D.
 
 
33. A 0.5 litre blood loss in 30 minutes will lead to
A. Increase in HR, decrease in BP
B. Slight increase in HR, normal BP
C. Decrease in HR and BP
D. Prominent increase in HR

34. Which of the following is NOT mediated through negative feed back mechanism
A. BP
B. GH formation
C. Thrombin formation
D. ACTH relase

35. A person who is on starvation for 5 days. Glucose is given for GTT. Findings will be all EXCEPT
A. GH decrease
B. Decreased insulin
C. Increase cortisol
D. Insulin tolerence

36. When a person looks to the right side, the reflex of the impulse come from
A. Right motor area
B. Left motor area
C. Midbrain
D. Occiput

PHARMACOLOGY
37. Which of the following condition requires dialysis
A. Salicylate toxicity
B. Digitalis toxicity
C. Barbiturate toxicity
D. Chlorpromazine toxicity

38. All of the following are true regarding ticlopidine EXCEPT
A. Directly interacts with platelet membrane
B. Onset of action is delayed
C. Ecconaid dependent
D. Increases platlet survival in extra corporal circulation

39. Reason for reducing drug dosage in elderly
A. Body water decreased
B. Increased baroreceptor sensitivity
C. Lean and thin mass
D. All of theabove

40. Drug containing two sulfhydryl groups in a molecule
A. BAL
B. EDTA
C. Penicillamine
D.

41. All of the following are true about apomorphine & selegiline EXCEPT
A. Apomrphine is used in on-off phenomenon
B. Selegiline is a MAO-A inhibitor
C. Used in parkinsonism
D. Selegiline does not cause cheese reaction

42. True about inverse agonists?
A. Attach to recetor and act in same direction
B. Attach to recetor and act in opp. direction
C. Inhibit the attachment of agonist
D.
 
 
43. Which of the following is a FALSE statement
A. IV N.A. increases systolic and diasotlic BP and causes tachycardia
B. IV Adr increases systolic, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
C. IV isoproterenol causes no change in systolic, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
D. Dopamine decreases peripheral resistance, improves renal perfusion

44. Mechanism of action of tetracycline
A. Binds to A site ribosome
B. Inhibits peptidyl transferase
C. Causes misreading of mRNA
D. Causes termination of peptide chain elongation

45. All of the following are correct about alkylating agent EXCEPT
A. Folinic acid terminates the action of methotrexate
B. Melphalan cause pancreatitis
C. Mesna inactivates the vesicotoxic metabolites of cyclophosphamide
D. Ifosmaide causes less alopecia than cyclophosphamide

46. Drug that is radioprotective
A. Paclitaxel
B. Vincristine
C. Amifostin
D. Etoposide

47. Metalloproteins help in jaundice by what mechanism
A. Increased glucoronyl transferase activity
B. Inhibit heme oxygenase
C. Decrease RBC lysis
D. Increase Y and Z receptors

48. Beta blocker that can be used in renal failure
A. Propranolol
B. Pindolol
C. Sotalol
D. Oxyprenolol

49. Digoxin is NOT indicated in
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. High output failure
D. PSVT

50. Which of the following is seen in First order kinectics
A. Rate depends upon plasma conC.
B. Rate does not depend on plasma conC.
C. Rate depends upon plasma protein binding
D. Elimination depends upon amount of drug

51. Correct about theophyllin is
A. T1/2 is less in CHF
B. T1/2 is less in smoker
C. No interaction with erythromicin
D. First pass metabolism

52. Beta blocker which has less first pass metabolism and more excretion through kidney is
A. Propanolol
B. Sotalol
C. Bisprolol
D. Nadolol

53. In low doses aspirin acts on
A. Cyclo-oxygenase
B. Thromboxane A2
C. PGI 2
D. Lipoxygenase
 
 
 
 
MICROBIOLOGY

54. A child presents with white patch over the tonsils and resp. distress. A throat swab was taken. It should be cultured with
A. Loeffler serus slope
B. LJ medium
C. Caryblair media
D.

55. Cystine deficient lactose (CLED)media is preferred over McConkey agar because
A. Former prevents swarming of proteus
B. It is a differential medium
C. Prevents pseudomonas growth
D. promotes growth of candida

56. A beta hemolytic bacteria resistant to vancomycin, gentamycin and ampicillin. It shows growth in 6.5% NaCl and bile is likely to be
A. Strep agalactiae
B. Strep pneumococcus
C. Enterococcus
D. Strep bovis

57. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis:
A. RSV
B. Rhinovirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Rotavirus

58. Basanti, age 26, pregnant woman from bihar presents with hepatic encephalopathy. The likely diagnosis:
A. Hep E
B. Hep B
C. Sepsis
D. Maternal alcohol toxicity

59. Toxin involved in the streptococcal toxic shock syndrome PJC
A. Pyrogenic exotoxin
B. Erythrogenic toxin
C. Hemolysin
D. M Protien

60. All of the following are true regarding NK cells, EXCEPT
A. Activated by IL-2
B. Variant to large lympho.
C. CD3 and TCR receptor present
D. None of the above

61. All of the following are correct regarding streptococcus EXCEPT
A. M protein is virulent factor
B. Mucoid colony
C. M type is most common
D. Avirulent stain has matt colonies

62. Which of the following organism gives greenish/yellow coloured colonies
A. Staphylococcus
B. E. Coli
C. Pseudomonas
D. Peptostreptococcus

63. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause infections with
A. Tinea saginata
B. Tinea solium
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Trichuris trichura
 
 
 
 
64. All of the following are true regarding regarding Ureaplasma urealyticum EXCEPT
A. Causes non gonococcal urethritis
B. Associated with infertility
C. Bacterial vagnosis
D. Epididymitis

65. All of the following are correct regarding EHEC excpet
A. Sereny test +ve
B. Fermants sorbitol
C. Causes HUS
D. Shiga like exotoxin

66. Which of the following is NOT a complete sterilization agent
A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Absolut alcohol
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Sodium hypochlorite

67. A patient with 14 days of fever, suspected to have typhoiD. Most appropriate test is
A. Blood culture
B. Widal test
C. Stool culture
D. Urine culture

68. Microfilaria are seen in peripheral blood in which stage of filariasis:
A. Tropical eosinophilia
B. Early elephantiasis
C. Early adenolymphangitis stage
D. All of the above

69. All of the following statements are true reagrding HIV infection EXCEPT
A. p24 is used for early diagnosis
B. Lysis of infected CD4 cells
C. Dendritic cells do not support replication
D. Macrophage is reservoir of virus

70. Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed by
A. IgM FTAabs
B. fs FTAabs
C. VDRL
D. TPI

FORENSIC MEDICINE
71. with 20 permanent teeth and 8 temporary teeth, the age is likely to have been
A. 9 yrs
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

72. Gettlers test is done for
A. Death by drowning
B. Hanging
C. Burns
D. Phosphorus poisoning

73. Indicative of ante-mortem drowning?
A. Cutis anserina
B. Rigor mortis
C. Washerwomans feet
D. Grass and weeds grasped in the hand

74. Patient of head injury, has no relatives, requires urgent cranial decompression; Doctor should
A. Operate without formal consent
B. Take police consent
C. Wait for relatives
D.

75. When any two object comes in contact with other, therr is always a transferance of material from one object to aNOTher . This is called
A. Locard principle
B. McNaughten Rule
C. Galton's principle
D. Getter's Law

76. A boy attempts suicide, brought to PRIVATE doctor and he is successfully cure. Doctor should
A. Inform police
B. Not required to inform
C. Report to magistrate
D. Callup girlfriend and ask her to make up

PATHOLOGY
77. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen which condition
A. Hypolipoproteinemia
B. Hypercholestrolemia
C. Severe combined immunodeficiency
D. Nezelof syndrome

78. Tumor associated with polycythemia vera
A. Sarcoma
B. Cerebral Haemangioma
C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
D. Sturge Weber Syndrome

79. If urinalysis shows RBC casts, likely source is
A. Kidney
B. Ureter
C. Bladder
D. Urethra

80. Dry marrow tap, peripheral smear has tear drop cells, being investigated for anemia
A. Leukemia
B. Lymphoma
C. Myelofibrosis
D. Polycythemia rubra vera

81. Lacunar infarcts are caused by:
A. Lipohyalinosis of penetrating arteries
B. Middle carotid artery involvement
C. Emboli to anterior circulation
D. None of the above

82. A man presents with mass at duodenojejunal flexor invading renal papillA. HPE reported as lymphoma, true statement is
A. Staging will not be done until bone marrow examination performed
B. II E stage
C. III E Stage
D. IV E stage

83. Mitral valve vegetations do NOT embolise usually to
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Lung

84. All of the following are true regarding fibrolamellar cancer of the liver, EXCEPT
A. More in women
B. Better prognosis than HCC
C. Increase AFP
D. All of the above
 
 
 
 
85. Which of the following is a post blood transfusion complication:
A. Metab alkaosis
B. Metab acidosis
C. Resp alkalosis
D. Resp acidosis

86. patient with arthritis, skin hyperpigmentation, hypogonadism, diagnosis
A. Hemochromatosis
B. SLE
C. Kallman's syndrome
D. Addison,s disease

87. In brain, free radicals are detoxified by
A. Supra oxide dismutase
B. MAO
C. COMT
D. Acetylcholineestrase

88. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in
A. ALL
B. AML
C. CLL
D. CML

89. True about Haemophilia A are all EXCEPT
A. PTT increased
B. Decreased PT
C. Decreased Factor VIII
D. Soft Tissue haematoma

90. In case of allogenic Bone marrow transplantation, evalution of harvested marrow is done by:
A. Colony stimulating Factor (CSF) GM Count, CD 34+ Cell count
B. Nucleated cell count, molecular marker
C. B-cell count
D. Granulocyte count

PSM
91. hundred children out of whom 28 are immuniseD.. 2 of them get measles simultaneously. Subsequently 14 get measles. Assume the efficacy of the vaccine to be 100%. What is the seC. Attack rate?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 21.5%

92. In a population of 10,000, beta carotene was given to 6000; NOT given to the remainder. 3 out of the first group got lung cancer; 2 out of the other 4000 also got lung cancer; conclusion:
A. Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to one another
B. The p value is not significant
C. The study is not designed properly
D. Beta carotene is associated with lung cancer

93. Subcentre in a hilly area caters to pollulation of:
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 3000
D. 5000

94. Under the national TB programme, for a PHC to be called a PHI-R, requisite is
A. Microscopy
B. Microscopy plus radiology
C. Radiology
D.
 
 
 
95. FALSE about DOTS is
A. Continuation phase drugs are given in a multiblister pack
B. Medication is to be taken in presence of a health worker
C. Biweekly dosage
D. Improves compliance

96. Population of 10,000, birth rate 36 per 1000, 5 maternal deaths, the MMR is
A. 14.5
B. 13.8
C. 20
D. 5

97. A country with population of 1000 million, birth rate 23, death rate 6, is in which phase?
A. Early expanding
B. Late expanding
C. Plateau
D. Declining

98. 10 babies are born in a hospital on same day. All weight 2.8 kg each; calculate the standard deviation.
A. Zero
B. One
C. Minus one
D. 0.28

99. Of 11 births, 5 babies weighed over 2.5 kg and 4 weighed less than 2.5 kg. What value does 2.5 represent
A. Geometric average
B. Arithmetic average
C. Median average
D. Mode

100. ELISA is performed on a population. What would be the result of performing double screening ELISA tests?
A. Incresed sensitivity and positive predictive value
B. Incresed sensitivity and negative predictive value
C. Incresed specificity and positive predictive value
D. Incresed specificity and negative predictive value

101. Virulance of a disease is indicated by
A. proportional mortality rate
B. specific mortality rate
C. case fatality ratio
D. amount of GDP spent on the disease

102. A man weighs 68 kg, consumes 325 gm carbohydrate, 65 gm protein, 35 gms fat. What is the most applicable statement regarding him applicable statement:
A. his total calorie intake is 3000
B. he has a equal proportion of fat/carbo/protein as with balanced diet
C. he has a negative nitrogen balance
D. he is consuming 20 % of diet as fat.

103. Disease NOT to be screened for in workers to be employed in a dye industry in gujarat?
A. anemia
B. bronchial asthma
C. bladder cancer
D. Precaancerous lesion

104. best test to detect iron deficiency in community
A. transferrin
B. serum ferritin
C. serum iron
D. hemoglobin
 
 
 
 
 
105. Person received tetanus full immunisation 10 years ago, now has clean wound without lacerations 2.5 hours ago. Next step:
A. full course of tetanus toxoid
B. single tetanus booster dose
C. tet globulin
D. tet glob and booster dose

106. BP Samples from two community are best compared by
A. Paired T test
B. student's test
C. chi squre test
D. cohart

107. More false positive cases in a community signifies that the disease has
A. high prevalence
B. high sensitivity
C. low prevalence
D. low sensitivity

108. In 2 comuunities X and Y, Y shows more false +ve cases as compared to X. The possibility is
A. Y community has low specificity
B. Y community has high specificity
C. X & Y has same incidence
D. Y community has low prevalence

MEDICINE
109. A man with fever wt loss and cough, mantoux is 17 x 19 mm induration, sputum cytology
negative for AFB. Diagnosis:
A. pulm tuberculosis
B. fungal infection
C. viral pneumonia
D. pneumonia

110. A patient of acute right ventricle infraction modalities of Treatment
A. IV fluids
B. digoxin
C. diuretics
D. Vasodilators

111. A 18 yr old presents with massive hematemesis; history of fever for the past 14 days; rx with drugs; moderate spleen present; diagnosis
A. NSAID induced gastritis
B. Drug induced gastritis
C. Esophageal varices
D. duodenal ulcer

112. All of the following are true about type I respiratory failure EXCEPT
A. decreased PaO2
B. decreased PaCO2
C. normal PaCO2
D. normal A-a gradient

113. True statement is about neurocystisercosis
A. usually presents with seizure resistant to anti epileptic drugs
B. albendazole is more effective than praziquantel
C. usually presents with 6th nerve palsy and hemiperesis
D. Rare in vegetarians

 
114. A patient presents with MEN IIA. Which of the following is NOT a feature of this
A. pituitary adenoma
B. pheochromocytoma
C. medullary ca thyroid
D. neuromas

115. A patient has an accident with resultant transection of the pituitary stalk: what will NOT occur
A. diabetes mellitus
B. diabetes insipidus
C. hyperprolactinemia
D. hypothyroidism

116. A patient on phenytoin for seizures, develops depression, rx with tricyclics, now complains of lassitude, Hb is 8; next test to do.
A. Chest x ray
B. MCV
C. Blood level of drug
D. LFT

117. False statement regarding tetanus is
A. five dose immunisation provides life long immunity
B. TT provides no protection in the present injury
C. TT prophylaxis in pregnancy prevents neonatal tetanus
D. Shorter the duration worse the prognosis

118. Pulm edema associated with normal PCWP. Which of the following is NOT a cause
A. high altitude
B. narcotics overdose
C. post cardiopulm bypass
D. bilateral renal artery stenosis

119. A woman has septic abortion done; vegetation on tricuspid valve is likely to go to:
A. lung
B. liver
C. spleen
D. brain

120. A woman has bilateral headache worsening with emotional stress; both children doing badly in school; diagnosis
A. migraine
B. cluster headache
C. tension headache
D. Bilaterral Renal artery stenosis

121. Basanti, aged 30, episodic throbbing headache for past 4 yrs, nausea, vomiting:
A. migraine
B. cluster headache
C. angle closure glaucoma
D. temporal arteritis

122. A woman complains of headache associated with paresthesias of the right upper and lower limb:
A. trigeminal neuralgia
B. glossopharyngeal neuralgia
C. migraine
D. cluster haedache

123. NOT associated with thymoma
A. red cell aplasia
B. myasthenia gravis
C. hypergammaglobulinemia
D. compression of the supr mediastinum
 
 
 
 
 
124. In myasthenia gravis, correct statement regarding thymectomy is
A. done in all cases between puberty and 55 yr of age
B. done in cases with ocular involvement only
C. not required if controlled by anticholinesterases
D. most cases are associated with thymoma

125. A young basketball player with ht 184 cm and arm span 197 cm has a diastolic murmur. Possibility:
A. AS
B. Coarctation of aorta
C. AR
D. MS

126. An obese person with weight kg was found to have blood sugar 490 mg%. Ketone bodies was 1 + (plus). Tt of choice is:
A. Metformin
B. Glibenclamide
C. Chlorprppamide
D. Insulin

127. A diabetic female on INH and rifampin for TB suffers DVT: started on warfarin: PT is NOT raised: next step:
A. Long term heparin therapy
B. increase dose of warfarin
C. switch ethambutol for rifampin
D. use LMW heparin

128. An elderly man has features of dementia, ataxia and difficulty in downward gaze: diagnosis:
A. parkinsons
B. supranuclear gaze palsy
C. alzheimers disease
D. Normal pressure hydrocephallus

129. Which of the follwing is NOT seen in Wilsons disease
A. cerebellar ataxia
B. peripheral neuropathy
C. dysphagia
D. stocking and gloving in right hand

130. A patient with Hb level of 6, WBC 2000, normal Different. Coutn EXCEPT for having 6% blasts, platelets reduced to 20,000; moderate splenomegaly; possible diagnosis.
A. Acute leukemia
B. aplastic anemia
C. Lymphoma
D. ITP

131. A 30-year-old male complains of loss of erection with low testosterone and high prolactin level in blooD. What is the likely diagnosis
A. Pituitary adenoma
B. Testicular failure
C. Cranio pharyngioma
D. Cushing's syndrome

132. A patient presents with hemoptysis and cushingoid features with a lack of dexamethasone supression, likely reason
A. adrenal hyperplasia
B. adrenal adenoma
C. ca lung
D. ectopic ACTH production

133. Kussmaul's sign is NOT seen in
A. restrictive pericarditis
B. constrictive pericarditis
C. cardiac tamponade
D. RV infarction
 
 
 
134. Most common fungal infection in febrile neutropenia
A. aspergillus niger
B. candida
C. mucormycosis
D. asper. Fumigatus

135. secondary hyperparathyroidism due to vit D deficiency shows
A. hypocalcemia
B. hypercalcemia
C. hyper phosphatemia
D. hypo phosphatemia

136. All of the following are true regarding DIC EXCEPT
A. decreased platelets
B. decreased fibrinogen
C. decresaed PTT
D. Increased PT

137. Chandreash, age 61 years, complains of intermittent claudication, dizziness and headache. Most likely cardiac lesion
A. TOF
B. ASD
C. PDA
D. Coarctation of aorta

138. A patient presents with LVH. On ECG, left axis deviation and some pulmonary complications. Most likely diagnosis is
A. TOF
B. tricuspid atresia
C. TAPVC
D. VSD

139. Dinesh, age 29 years has h/o sore throat 3 days back. Now he has complains of dysureA. On urine examination dysmorphic RBC are seen. Most likely cause is
A. Post streptococcal. GN
B. Ig A nephropathy
C. ATN
D.

140. A 45 years male presents with hypertension. He has abnormal movements in right upper and lower limbs. Mostly likely site of haemorrahge is
A. Cerebrum
B. Caudate nuclei
C. Pons
D. Subthallmic nuclei

141. A 23 year lady presents with dizziness and chest pain. On examinations there is tachycardia and systolic ejection murmer at mitral areA. Investigation of choice is
A. Echo cardiography
B. ECG
C. Angiography
D. CT

142. A patient is on ventilator. His pH is 7.5 with PO2 = 85mmhg and pCO2 = 25mmHg. HCO3 = 23 mmol per litre. Most likely condition is
A. resp. alklosis
B. resp. acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. metabolic acidosis

143. Most useful investigation in diabetic mother to identify DM in first trimester
A. Glycosylated Hb
B. GTT
C. ACTH level
D. Fasting & PP level
 
 
 
144. A patient with pH 7.23, pCO2= 54, pO2= 66 mmHg and HCO3 = 10 mmol/L. Most likely condition is
A. resp acidosis
B. metabolic acidosis
C. resp. acidosis with meta acidosis
D. resp. alkalosis with metA. Acidosis

145. All of the following are false EXCEPT
A. Cox I is non inducile
B. Cox II is released at the site of inflammation
C. Cox I is inducible
D. Leukotrines cause bronchoconstriction

146. All of the following are true EXCEPT
A. E coli grows in alkaline media
B. Alkanisation of urine cause uric acid stone
C. Acidification is needed in salicylate poisioning
D.

147. True about hypothyroidism is
A. facial nerve palsy and deafness
B. deaf and mutism
C. Increased BMR
D. Body hot and moist

148. All of following are correct about Thromboxane A2 excpet
A. low dose aspirin inhibit it
B. High dose aspirin have no effect on Tx A2
C. Secreted by WBC

149. In left coronary artery thrombosis, most likely involved area is
A. anterior wall of right ventricle
B. anterior wall of left ventricle
C. anterior wall of right atrium
D. inferior surface of right ventricle

150. In renal failure, true statement about drug metabolism is
A. drugs can be given in same dose if they do not form toxic metabolits
B. drugs can be given with increased dose interval
C. loading dose is same and maintainance dose is decreased
D. interval between maintainance dose is same

PSYCHIATRY
151. Basanti age 27 years, female thinks her nose is ugly; her idea is fixed and NOT shared by anyone else. Whenever she goes out of home, she hides her face with a cloth. She visits to Surgeon. next step would be:
A. Investigate and then operate
B. refer to psychiatrist
C. reassure the patient
D. immediate operation.

152. A patient present with waxy flexibility, negativitism and rigidity. Diagnosis is
A. Catatonic schizophrenia
B. paranoid schizophrenia
C. heb schizophrenia
D.

153. A pt with pneumonia for 5 days admitted to hospital. He suddenly ceases to recognize doctor and staff and think that the he is in jail. He complains of scorpions attacking him, is in altered sensorium: condition is:
A. acute delirium
B. acute dementia
C. acute schizophrenia
D. acute paranoid
 
 
154. A patient having sensation of bugs crawling all over his body: this may be effect of
A. cocaine
B. alcohol
C. tea
D. benzodiazepines

155. A person missing from home, found wandering purposefully, well groomed, has some degree of amnesia
A. dissociative fugue
B. dissociative amnesia
C. schizophrenia
D. dementia

156. A lady, while driving met with an accident. She was in IUC for 6 months. After being discharged, she often gets up in night and terrified and fear to sit in car again. The diagnosis is
A.. Panic disorder
B. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
C. Phobia
D. Conversion disorder

157. Babu, age 40 years suffers sudden palpitations and apprehension. He is sweating lasting 10 minutes, with dooming of death. Diagnosis is
A. hysteria
B. cystic fibrosis
C. panic attack
D. generalized anxiety disorder

158. Dinesh, age 56 years man with complaints of slowness of movements, postural instability, tremors, rigidity and memory loss. Diagnosis is
A. multi infarct dementia
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. parkinsonism
D.

159. Chandu, age 32 presents with abD. pain and vomiting. He also complains some psychiatric symptoms and visual hallucinatios. Most likely diagnosis is
A. aC. Intermittent. Porphyria
B. hypothyroidism
C. hyperthyroidism
D. Addition's disease

160. Which of the following is NOT seen in Huntington's disease
A. cognitive symptoms
B. cog wheel rigidity
C. chorea
D. Family history

161. Alzheimer's disease is associated with
A. down syndrome
B. marfan'syndrome
C. aicardi syndrome
D. Turner's Syndrome

162. Impaired consciousness, visual hallucination, hyperactivity and fragmentary delusions are typically seen in
A. delirium
B. dementia
C. paranoid psychosis
D. schizophrenia
 
 
SKIN & VD
163. male pt, 20 yrs old, from jaipur, has erythematous lesion with central crusting, on cheek; diagnosis:
A. SLE
B. Lupus vulgaris
C. Chilblains
D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis

164. man aged 30y, has alopecia, boggy scalp swelling; hair easily pulled out; diagnostic test:
A. KOH staining
B. Culture sensitivity
C. Biopsy
D.

165. girl aged 19 has light brown pigmentation over the malar eminences; diagnosis:
A. chloasma
B. SLE
C. photodermtitis
D. Systemic sclerosis

166. girl aged 19 with arthritis, alopesia, photosensitive rash on the cheek
A. SLE
B. Not SLE
C. PAN
D. Vasculitis

167. child with itchy lesions over the groin and the prepuce. What will NOT to be advised
A. bathe and apply scabicidal
B. treat family
C. burn clothes
D. IV antibiotics

168. man aged 19 gets painless penile ulcer 10 days after sexual intercourse with a professional sex worker. Diagnosis is
A. chancroid
B. herpes
C. primary chancre
D. traumatic ulcer

169. boy aged 8 from TN has a white non anesthetic nonscaly hypopigmented macule on his face:
A. pityriasis alba
B. pityriasis versicolor
C. indeterminate leprosy
D.

170. most common organism causing skin lesion over scalp is:
A. Tricophyton tonsurans
B. microsporum
C. epidermophyton
D. candida albicans

PEDIATRICS
171. A neonate has recurrent abdominal pain and diaphoresis on feeding, with murmur, which may lead to MI. diagnosis is
A. asd
B. vsd
C. tof
D. coronary anomalous
 
 
 
 
 
 
172. A neonate delivered at 32 weeks, on ventilator, xray shows 'white out', ABG reveals SpO2 of 75, ventilator settings are as, FiO2 70, rate 50/minute. Next step to be taken?
A. increase rate to 60
B. increase FiO2 to 80
C. continue with the same
D. weaning ventilator

173. A male pseudohermaphrodite child of 46 XY karyotype presents with BP 110/80 mmHg. Most likely enzyme deficiency is
A. 21 hydroxylase
B. 17 hydroxylase
C. 11 hydroxylase
D. 3-beta hydroxylase

174. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis, lytic skull lesions, ear discharge, hepatosplenomegaly; likely diagnosis
A. leukemia
B. lymphoma
C. histiocytosis X
D. Multiple Myeloma

175. A 5 year child of is suffering from nephrotic syndrome is well responding to steroid therapy. What would be the finding on light microscopy:
A. no finding
B. basement membrabne thickning
C. podocyte lesions
D. Glomerular Necrosis

176. A neonate presents with respiratory distress, contralateral mediastinal shift and multiple cystic air filled lesions in chest. Most likely diagnosis is
A. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
B. Congenital lung cysts
C. Viral pneumonia
D. Staph. pneumonia

177. A child aged 2 years with 'positive family history'. On peripheral blood smear target cells are
seen. He has hypochromic microcytic anemia with Hb 6 gm%. Next investigation of choise is
A. Hb electrophoresis
B. coombs test
C. liver function tests
D. Osmatic fragility test

178. A patients CSF report is sugar of 40, protein of 150, chloride of 550, lymphocytosis present, diagnosis is
A. fungal meningitis
B. viral meningitis
C. TB meningitis
D. leukemia meningitis

179. A neonate with jaundice and clay white stools. On liver biopsy giant cells were seen. diagnosis is
A. physiological jaundice
B. neonatal hepatitis with extrabiliary atresia
C. neonatal hepatitis with physiological jaundice
D.

180. Most common cause of urine obstruction in a boy:
A. anterior urethral valves
B. posterior urethral valves
C. stone
D. Urethral stricture

181. A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratory distress and froths at the mouth. Diagnosis is
A. tracheoesophageal fistula
B. tetralogy of fallot
C. Tricuspid atresia
D. Anomolous coronary artery
182. A 5 yr child present with calculus of size 2 cm. in the upper ureter. He has haematuriA. On USG no obs is seen. TT of choice
A. ureterolithotomy
B. endoscopy
C. ESWL
D. observation

183. 3 month old child presents with intermittent stridor. Most likely cause is
A. laryngotracheobronchitis
B. laryngomalacia
C. respi. obstruction
D.

184. surfactant production in lungs starts at
A. 28 weeks
B. 32 wks
C. 34 wks
D. 36 wks

185. Potts shunt is
A. rt subclavian artery to rt pulmonary
B. descending aorta to left pulmonary
C. left subclavian to left pulmonary
D. ascending aorta to right pulmonary

186. Which of the following is true regarding cretinism
A. short limbs compared to trunk
B. proportionate shortening
C. short limb and short stature
D. short limn long stature

187. Basanti age 29 yrs from bihar presents with tuberculosis. She delivers baby. She will be instructed all of the followings EXCEPT
A. give baby BCG
B. withhold breast feeding
C. give ATT for 2 years
D. proper disposal of sputum

188. If urine sample darkens on standing, most likely condition is
A. phenylketonuria
B. alkaptonuria
C. maplpe syrup urine disease
D. DM

189. A baby with refusal to feed, skin lesions, seizures, organic acids in urine, lactic acidosis with
normal ammoniA. Diagnosis is
A. organic aciduria
B. multiple carboxylase deficiency
C. propionic acidemia
D. Glutaric acidemia type I

190. Most common cause of meningitis in kids 6 months to 2 years of age
A. pneumococcus
B. staph
C. H influenza
D. E.coli

191. Treatment of of kawasaki disease in children
A. oral steroids
B. iv steroids
C. iv Ig
D. mycophenolate mefentil

192. All of the following are associated with Henoch Schonlein Purpura EXCEPT
A. thrombocytopenia
B. abD. pain
C. purpura
D.
193. In ASD all are seen EXCEPT
A. LVH
B. RVH
C. right axis deviation
D. pul. hypertension

194. A neonate presents with resp. distress. On investigations, his mediastinum was shifted towards right side.
A. TOF
B. Diagphrmatic hernia
C. Meconium ileus
D. Congenital bronchiatis

195. ECG shows biventricular hypertrophy, examination shows systolic murmur in 4th intercostal space. Diagnosis is:
A. TOF
B. TGA
C. VSD
d. ASD

SURGERY
196. Ramu, 8 yr old boy presents upper GI bleeding . On examination, there is splenomegaly, no ascites, no hepatomegaly; esophageal varices present on UGIE. Diagnosis is
A. budd chiari syndrome
B. non cirrhotic portal fibrosis
C. cirrhosis
D. veno occlusive disease

197. patient presents with recurrent duodenal ulcer of 2.5 cm size; procedure of choice
A. truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
B. TV and GJ
C. highly selective vagotomy
D. Laparoscopic vagotomy and GJ

198. FALSE regarding hyperplastic tuberculosis of GI
A. mass RIF
B. Barium meal shows pulled up caecum
C. most common site is ileocecal
D. ATT alone can be used as treatment

199. 56 year old woman has passed no stools for 14 days. Xray shows no air fluid levels. Probable diagnosis is
A. paralytic ileus
B. agangliionosis of the colon
C. intestinal pseudo obstruction
D. duodenal obs.

200. A patient on same evening after thyroidectomy has swelling and difficulty breathing. Next mmg.
A. open immediatly
B. intubate oro tracheally
C. wait and watch
D. oxygen by mask

201. A patient has neck swelling and respiratory distress 8 hours after a thyroidectomy surgery. Next mmg
A. open immediatly
B. Trecheostomy
C. wait and watch
D. oxygen by mask

202. Long standing case of multinodular goitre develops hoarseness and sudden increase in size. likely diagnosis is
A. follicular ca
B. papillary ca
C. medullary ca
D. anaplastic ca
 
203. Swelling in the neck after a thyroidectomy; what is the likely complication.
A. resp. obstruction
B. recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
C. hypo volumia
D. Ectopic Goitre

204. A 45 year old woman presents with hard and mobile lump is breast. Most confirmatory investigation is
A. FNAC
B. USG
C. Mammography
D. Excision biopsy

205. Case of blunt trauma, in shock, NOT responding to IV crystalloids, next step:
A. immediate laparotomy
B. blood transfusion
C. albumin transfusion
D. abdominal compression

206. A man aged 60 yrs has h/o IHD and atherosclerosis. He presents with abdominal pain and maroon stools:
A. acute intestinal obstruction
B. acute mesenteric ischemia
C. peritonitis
D. appendicitis

207. An elderly man has abdomianl pain, found to have fusiform dilatation of the descending aortA. Likely cause is
A. Mycotic aneurysm
B. atherosclerosis
C. right ventricular failure
D. syphilis aortitis

208. Primary peritonitis is more common in females because
A. ostia of Follopian tubes communicate with abdominal cavity
B. peritoneum overlies the uterus
C. rupture of functional ovarian cysts
D. Follopian tube lesion in broad ligament

209. Man aged 60 has testicular tumor; most likely to be:
A. germ cell
B. sertoli cell
C. teratocarcinoma
D. lymphoma

210. A 45 yrs old man presents with progressive cervical lymph nodes enlargement, since 3 months, most appropiate investigation
A. xray soft tissue
B. FNAC
C. Lymph node biopsy
D. Mantoux test

211. male aged 60 has foul breath, regurgitates food that is eaten 3 days ago, cause is:
A. zenkers diverticulum
B. meckels diverticulum
C. scleroderma
D. achalasia cardia

212. patient presents after trauma, with blood at the tip of urinary meatus. Can only pass a drop of urine. Next step:
A. arrange for dialysis
B. MCU
C. Catheterise, drain bladder, remove foleys
D. Catheterise and retain foleys.
 
 
 
 
 
213. Most common cause of unilateral parotid swelling in a 27 yr old male
A. warthins tumor
B. pleomorphic adenoma
C. adenocarcinoma
D. Haemangioma

214. fistula in ano, what is true.
A. postr fistulae have straight tracks
B. high fistulae can be operated with no fear of incontinence
C. high and low division is based on pelvic floor
D. intersphincteric is the most common

215. In a 27 yr old male most common cause of a colo-vesical fistula:
A. crohns
B. ulcerative colitis
C. TB
D. Cancer

216. All of the following are correct about axillary vein thrombosis EXCEPT
A. cervical rib may cause
B. can be treated with iv anticaogulant
C. Embolectomy done in all cases
D. Can be precipitated by overuse of muscles

217. What is true regarding pyloric stenosis
A. more common in girls
B. hypochloremic alkalosis
C. hellers myotomy is the procedure
D. most often manifests at birth

218. A patient is brought with head injury, head on collision and BP 90/60. Tachycardia present. diagnosis.
A. EDH
B. SDH
C. Intracranial hemorrhage
D. Intraabdominal bleed

219. Most common site for squamous ca esophagus
A. upper third
B. mid third
C. lower third
D. Cricoesophageal junction

220. pancreatic ca is caused by
A. fasciola
B. clonorchis
C. paragonimus
D. E. granulosus

221. patient has tumor of the lower jaw, involvement of the alveolar margin. He is edentulous. Rx of choice
A. hemimandiblectomy
B. commando operation
C. segmental mandiblectomy
D. marginal mandibulectomy

222. All of the folloing are correct regarding AV fistula EXCEPT
A. arterialisation of the veins
B. proximal compression causes increase in heart rate
C. Causes arhhythemia
D. Cause Lv enlargement and LVF

223. patient with pancreatitis undergoes sudden loss of vision; possibility:
A. methanol toxicity
B. ethanol toxicity
C. methanol toxicity followed by ethanol therapy
D. purtschers retinopathy
 
224. A patients semen sample reveals 15 million sperms, 60 % normal morphology, 60% motile, sperm volume is 2 ml, no agglutination: diagnosis
A. azoospermia
B. aspermia
C. oligospermia
D. normospermia

225. patient undergoes thyroid surgery, following which he develops perioral tingling. Blood Ca is 8.9 meq, next step is
A. vit D orally
B. oral Ca and vit D
C. intravenous calcium and serial monitoring
D. wait for Ca to decrease to < 7.0

226. Chandu. A 45 yrs male has calcification on AP view Rt side of abdomen. In lateral view the calcification is seen to overlie the spine. most likely diagnosis
A. gallstones
B. calcified mesenteric nodes
C. renal stones
D. Calcifird Rib

227. ulcer developing in burns tissue
A. marjolins
B. rodent
C. melanies
D. curlings

228. ca prostate commonly metastasises to the vertebrae because
A. valveless communication with batsons plexus
B. Drain to Sacral lymph node
C. Direst Spread
D.

229. a patient with B/L proptosis, heat intolerance and tolerance, unlikely diagnosis
A. hashimoto's thyroiditis
B. thyroid adenoma
C. diffuse thyroid goitre
D. reidel's thyroiditis

230. 60 yr old man with suspected bronchogenic ca; TB has been ruled out in this pt. What investigation would be chosen.
A. CT guided FNAC
B. Bronchoscopy and biopsy
C. X-ray
D. sputum examination

231. Young patient presents with jaundice. Bilirubin is 21, direct is 9.6, alkphos 84 KA units. Diagnosis.
A. hemolytic jaundice
B. viral hepatitis
C. chronic active hepatitis
D. obstructive jaundice

232. A man presents with non productive cough 4 weeks, grade III clubbing, apical lobe lesion on xray. Diagnosis?
A. small cell ca
B. non small cell ca
C. fungal infection
D. tuberculosis

233. Young male presents with recurrent abdominal pain and gallbladder stone; serum bilirubin 2.5, Hb 6, urine shows urobilinogen positive; diagnosis
A. hemolytic anaemia
B. G6 PD deficiency
C. hepatocellular jaundice
D. protoporphyria
 
 
234 . A patient with engorged neck vein, BP 80/50 & pulse rate changed following blunt trauma to the chest:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Right Ventricular failure
C. Cardia temponade
D. Splenic rupture

235. Following a sexual intercourse, person develops left testes pain that does NOT get relieved on elevation of scrotum. Diagnosis is
A. epididymo-orchitis
B. torsion testis
C. fourniers gangrene
D. tumor

236. Babu presents h/o road accident. He is hypotensive. Most likely ruptures organ is
A. spleen
B. mesentry
C. kidney
D. rectum

237. Characteristic finding in CT of a TB case is
A. exudates seen in basal cistern
B. hydrocephalus is commonly seen
C. Tuberculomas are often calcified
D. CT is diagnostic of TBM

ORTHOPEDICS
238. Pivot test is for
A. anterior cruciate ligament
B. posterior cruciate ligament
C. medial meniscus injury
D. lateral meniscus injury

239. Babu, 19 yrs has small circumscribed sclerotic swelling over diaphysis of femur bone; diagnosis is
A. osteoclastoma
B. osteosarcoma
C. ewings sarcoma
D. osteoid osteoma

240. Babloo, age 10 years, presents with fracture of humerus. Xray reveals a lytic lesion at the upper en
D. Likely condition is
A. unicameral bone cyst
B. osteosarcoma
C. giant cell tumour
D. osteo chondroma Ref:

241. Most common site of osteosarcoma
A. femur, upper end
B. femur, lower end
C. tibia, lower end
D. fibula, lower end

242. A patient had injury on his shoulder. Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, he develops weakness of flexion shoulder, lack of sensation over the lateral aspect forearm; nerve injured:
A. radial
B. musculocutaneous
C. axillary
D. ulnar
 
 
 
 
 
 
243. A patient had injury to the upper limb 3 yrs earlier, now he presents with paresthesia over the medial border of the hand and anaethesia over medial two finger. The injury is likely to have been:
A. supracondylar fracture
B. lateral condyle fracture humerus
C. medial condyle fracture humerus
D. posterior dislocation of the humerus

244. Basanti aged 61 years, falls from height. She comaplains lower limb extended, externally rotated, pain and inability to move limB. Most likely diagnosis is -
A. fracture neck femur
B. trochanteric femur fracture
C. posterior dislocation hip
D. anterior dislocation of hip

245. Triple arthrodesis foot involves
A. calcaneocuboid, talonavicular and talocalcaneal
B. tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid and talocalcaneal
C. ankle joint , calcaneocuboid and talocalcaneal
D.

246. A patient has involvement of PIP joint, DIP joint and the carpo-metacarpal of base of thumb, sparing the wrist joint is seen in
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Ankylosing spondilytis
D. Psoriasis arthritis

ANAESTHESIA
247. A man with alcoholic liver failure requires general anesthesia for surgery. Anaesthetic agent of choice is
A. ether
B. halothane
C. methoxyflurane
D. isoflurane

248. All of the following are correct EXCEPT
A. thiopantone can be given in fixed cardiac output
B. ether is a good anaesthetic agent
C. morphine is preferred preanesthetic medication in children
D. Cocaine is an ester linked drug

249. All of the following are true EXCEPT
A. halothane is a good analgesic
B. halothane sensatise the heart for catacholamines
C. halothane causes liver damage
D. Hypotension is common

250. All of the following anaesthetic agent can be given in renal failure excpet
A. sevoflurane
B. isoflurane
C. enflurane
D. halothane

251. In ARSD, PEEP in ventilators is useful in following EXCEPT
A. Increase resorption of fluid
B. Decreased alveolar collapse
C. Decreased alveolar fluid accumulation
D. Prevents barotraumas

EYE
252. Which of foll. NOT found in diabetic retinopathy on fundus examination
A. microaneurysms
B. retinal hemorrhages
C. arteriolar dilatation
D. neovascularisation
253. Vitamin B12 deficiency is likely to cause
A. bitemporal hemianopia
B. binasal hemianopia
C. heteronymous hemianopia
D. centrocecal scotoma

254. A patient has meiotic pupil, IOP = 25,normal anterior chamber, hazy cornea with shallow anterior chamber of fellow eye. Diagnosis is
A. acute antr uveitis
B. acute angle closure glaucoma
C. acute open angle glaucoma
D. senile cataract

255. Woman complains of coloured haloes around lights in evening, nausea and vomiting, with normal IOP. Diagnosis is
A. incipient stage glaucoma open angle
B. prodromal stage, closed angle glaucoma
C. migraine
D. Hysteria

256. A 5 yrs child presents with large cornea, lacrimation and photophobiA. Diagnosis is
A. megalocornea
B. congenital glaucoma
C. congenital cataract
D. anterior uveitis

257. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen in all EXCEPT
A. syphilis
B. lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
C. post papilledema optic neuritis
D. traumatic injury to the optic nerve

258. Eye deviated laterally and downwards, patient unable to look up or medially, likely nerve involved
A. trochlear
B. trigeminal
C. oculomotor
D. abducens

259. Elderly male with heart disease has sudden loss of vision in one eye, examination reveals a cherry red spot; diagnosis
A. central retinal vein occlusion
B. central retinal artery occlusion
C. amaurosis fugax
D. acute ischemic optic neuritis

260. Bilateral ptosis is NOT seen in
A. Congenital
B. Marfan's syndrome
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Bilateral nerve palsy

261. Ocular symptom NOT seen in Herpes zoster
A. Secondary glaucoma
B. Viral keratitis
C. Anterior uvetis
D. Nummular keratitis

262. Left sided lateral gaze is affected in leasion of
A. right frontal lobe
B. right occipetal lobe
C. left occipetal lobe
D. left frontal lobe

263. Which test is NOT useful in optic neuritis
A. ERG
B. Evoked Potential Retinogram
C. visual acuity
D. Fundoscopy
ENT
264. Facial nerve injury following head trauma; fracture of the mastoid present; intervention:
A. immediate decompression
B. wait and watch
C. facial sling
D. High dose steroids

265. A case of bells palsy; no improvement after 2 weeks; what to do next
A. vasodilators and ACTH
B. physiotherapy and electrical stimulation
C. Increase steroid dosage
D. Electrophysiological nerve testing

266. Boy aged 15 has unilateral nasal blockade, mass in the cheek, epistaxis:
A. nasopharyngeal ca
B. angiofibroma
C. inverted papilloma
D. Ca maxillary antrum

267. Diabetic aged 40 has blackish nose discharge
A. Mucormycosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Midline granuloma
D. A. fumigatus

268. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following is
A. supraglottic ca
B. ca glottis
C. ca nasopharynx
D. subglottic ca

GYNAE. & OBST.
269. A woman has had 2 previous anencephalic babies, risk of having a third one is
A. 0%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%

270. Patient of 47 XXY karyotype presents with features of hypogonadism; likely diagnosis:
A. turners
B. klinefelters
C. edwards
D. Down syn.

271. mother has sickle cell disease; husband is normal: % chances of children having, respectively, sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait:
A. 0 and 100
B. 25 and 75
C. 25 and 50
D. 25 and 25

272. father has blood gp B, mother has AB, children can have all the blood group EXCEPTs
A. O
B. A
C. B
D. AB

273. DNA analysis of chorionic villus/ amniocentesis NOT likely to detect
A. tay sachs
B. hemophilia A
C. sickle cell disease
D. duchenne muscular dystrophy
274. A girl presnts with primary amenorrhea; grade V thelarche, grade II pubarche; no axillary hair; possible diagnosis
A. testicular feminisation
B. mullerian agenesis
C. turners
D. gonadal dysgenesis

275. Rekha, a 45 yrs woman with negative pap smear with +ve endocervical curratage. next management will be
A. Radiation
B. vaginal hysterectomy
C. conisation
D. Warthim hysterectomy

276. A 50 yrs old woman having post coital bleeding. She has a visible growth on PS. Next mm
A. punch biopsy
B. colposcopic biopsy
C. pap smear
D. cone biopsy

277. Bilateral ovarian cancer with capsule breached, ascites positive for malignant cells: stage is:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

278. Rokitansky Kuster hauser syndrome: most likely condition is
A. ovary agenesis
B. fallopian tubes absent
C. vaginal atresia
D. bicornuate uterus

279. All of the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in APH patient EXCEPT
A. 37 weeks
B. IUD
C. Transverse lie
D. continous profuse bleeding

280. All of the following are true regarding a patient with acid peptic disease EXCEPT
A. mesoprostol is the drug of choice in given with NSAIDS
B. DU is preventable by the use of nighttime H2 blockers
C. omeprazole may help ulcers refractory to H2 blockers
D. mesoprostol is DOC in pregnant

281. A case of carcinoma cervix found to be in altered sensorium and having hiccups. Cause could be
A. septicemia
B. uremia
C. Erosion of blood vessels
D. Radiation nephritis

282. A woman presents with 2 months of amenorrhea, lower abdominal pain, facial pallor and shock. Diagnosis is
A. ruptured ovarian cyst
B. ruptured ectopic pregnancy
C. threatned abor.
D. septic abortion

283. A woman presnts with 6 weeks amenorrhea and lump in the RIF. Investigation of choice
A. USG abdomen
B. Laparoscopy
C. CT
D. shielded X - ray
 
 
 
 
284. A female 30 yrs old, presents with has abdominal mass with complain of
sudden abD. Pain. Most likely diagnosis is
A. torsion of subserous fibroid
B. twisted ovarian cyst
C. rupture of ectopic preg.
D. Acute appendicitis

285. In a pregnant woman with red degeneration. Management is
A. myomectomy
B. conservative Tt
C. hysterectomy
D. termination of pregnancy

286. ovarian cyst detected in a pregnant woman; mgt:
A. immediate removal by laprotomy
B. wait and watch
C. second trimester surgery
D. remove at time of cesarean section

287. FALSE regarding HCG
A. secreted by cytotrophoblasts
B. acts on same receptor as LH
C. has luteotrophic action
D. Maximum level are achieved in 3rd month of pregnancy

288. consequence of maternal use of cocaine is
A. hydrops
B. sacral agenesis
C. cerebral infarction
D. hyper trichosis

289. In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy reveals proliferative changes. Which Hormone should be prefered?
A. MDPA
B. Desogestrol
C. norethisteron
D. Danazol

290. patient complains of post coital bleed, no tumor seen per speculum, next step:
A. colposcopy biopsy
B. conisation
C. repeat pap smear
D. culdoscopy

291. true regarding adenomyosis:
A. more common in nullipara
B. progestins are not useful
C. presents with menrrhagia, dysmenorria, and enlarged uterus
D. more common in multipara.

292. A pregnant diabetic on oral sulphonyl urea is shifted to insulin. All of the followings are true regarding this, EXCEPT
A. Sulphonyl urea causes PIH
B. Insulin does not cross placenta
C. Oral hypoglycaemics crosses placenta and deplete foetal insulin
D. during pregnancy insulin requirement increases and cannot be provided with sulphonyl ureas

293. Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala
A. robert's
B. naegele's
C.
D.

294. Basanti, age 28 presents with 6 weeks of amenorrheA. She has developed pain abD., fluid in pouch of douglous. Most probable diag. Is
A. ovarian cyst
B. ectopic Preg.
C. red degeneration of fibroid
D.
295. All of the following are false EXCEPT
A. Oxytocin sensitivity is increased during delivery
B. Prosglandins should be given during II trimester
C. Oxytocin released from posterior pitutary
D. Ergometrine cause cervical spasm

296. Seasonal trend is due to
A. vector variation
B. environmental factors
C. changes in herd immunity
D.

297. Sampling error type 1 is
A. alpha error
B. beta
C. gamma
D. Delta

RADIOLOGY
298. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following:
A. ca kidney
B. ca colon
C. testicular terotoma
D. ca cervix

299. Ground glass appearance is NOT seen in
A. hyaline membrane disease
B. pneumonia
C. left to right shunt
D. Obstructive Total artery pulmonary venous connection