Institute of Advance Medical Studies

AIIMS Nov 2001
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Dr. Manoj Bhama
Dr. Lokesh Bhama

   
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ANATOMY

1. All of the following statements are true for kidney except
A. Right kidney is lower than the left kidney
B. Right renal vessels are shorter than left renal vessels
C. Right kidney is preferred over left kidney for renal transplantation
D. Anterior portion of right kidney is in relation with 2nd part of duodenum

2. Which of the following nerve does not cross dorsal surface of ischial spine
A. Pudendal Nerve
B. Obturator nerve
C. Nerve to obturator internus
D.

PHYSIOLOGY

3. In carotid artery, saline infusion causes ADH like symptoms, due to
A. Periventricular nucleus of Hypothalamus
B. Supraoptic nucleus of Hypothalamus
C. Perichiasmatal nucleus of Hypothalamus
D.

4. Among the following statements, true statement about presynaptic inhibition is
A. mediated by axo axonal mechanism
B. can be modified by pharmacological agents
C.
D. local anaethetics increase the duration

e.

f.
A. B.
C. D.

5. Clarithin protein is for
A. Endocytosis
B. Muscle contraction
C. Active tranport
D. Passive transport

6. Diapedes is a process in which there is
A. Emmigration of lymphocytes through the capillary wall
B. Migration of cell organelles out side the cells
C. adhesion of platelets
D.

7. Consider the following reaction
S1���> S2 ���>P1���> P2

Here, conversion of S1 to S2 is mediated by enzyme EA (positive feed back), S2 to P1 is mediated by Enzyme EB (negative feedback)and P1 to P2 is mediated by enzyme P2, if enzyme EC is absent. There will be accumulation of
A. S1
B. S2
C.P1
D. P2

8. Colonic bacteria act upon dietary fibers to produce
A. Free radicals
B. Butyrates
C. Glycerol
D. Sucrose

BIOCHEMISTRY

9. True about end of third round of Polymerase chain reaction
A. becomes 2 times
B. 4 time
C. 8 times
D. same
PHARMACOLOGY
10. Side effects of Amphotericin B are all except
A. Azotemia
B. Glomerulonephritis
C.
D.

11. An AIDS patient is receiving Zidovudine, Lemivudine and indanavir has been diagnosed TB. Which ATT is to be avoided while prescribing ATT
A. Rifampicine
B. Isonaizid
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol

12. Which ATT drug need no modification with high serum creatinine and Renal failure
A. Rifampicine
B. Isonaizid
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol

13. Metabolism of two drugs A (dotted line) and B (normal line) is given. X axis denotes time in hour and Y axis denotes concentration in blood. Which of the following is a true statement


A. The two drugs are antagonist
B. The two drugs are agonist
C.
D. A has higher peak levels than B

14. Propanolol is contraindicated in a specific group because of increased risk of
A. Arrythmia
B. Postural hypotension
C. Asthma
D. Resp. depression

15. All of the following cause Disufiram like reaction except
A. Bethamethasone
B. Cefamandole
C. Metonnidazole
D. Chlorpropamide

16. Metabolism of two drugs A (dotted line) and B (normal line) is given. X axis denotes time in hour and Y axis denotes concentration in blood. Which of the following is a true statement
A. The two drugs are antagonist
B. The two drugs are agonist
C.
D. A has higher peak levels than B

17. A patient with congenital QT prolongation presents with torso de pontice. Treatment should be
A. Metoprolol
B. MgSO4
C.
D.

18. Which of the following is not used as a sclerotic agent
A. Acetic acid
B. Alcohol
C. Ethalamine oleat
D. Sodium tetradecyle sulphate

19. Which of the following drug causes altered metabolism of theophyllins
A. Amoxycillin
B. Erythromycin
C.
D.

20. Mandatory hemodialysis is necessory in which type of posioning?
A. Organpphospahtes
B. Copper sulphate
C. Amphetamine
D. Methanol

PATHOLOGY

21. Prognosis of crescent glomerulopathy depends upon
A. Number of crescent
B. Size of crescent
C. Hpertrophy of crescent
D.

22. Autopsy report of a man shows that squamous epithelium was found in bronchi of lungs. This type of transformation is called
A. Dysplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Keratisation

23. Which of the following is not a granulamatous disease
A. Leprosy
B. Tuberculosis
C. Mycoplasma
D. Histoplasmosis

24. A 5 year child of is suffering from nephrotic syndrome is well responding to steroid therapy. Finding on light microscopy will be
A. No finding
B. Glomerular Necrosis
C.Mesangial proliferation may lead to renal failure in loag standing cases
D. Flattened foot process with polyanionic charges in the inner side of basement membrane and outer side of endothelial memb.

25. Apoptosis includes all except
A. Cell death
B. Chromosomal disturbance
C. Cell lysis, followed by phagocytosis of cell debris by macrophages
D. Inflammation of cells

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26. Immortalisation of cancer cells is done through
A. DNA ploymerase
B. t RNA synthetase
C. Epimerase
D. Telomerase

27. Cancer cells get their energy from
A. Glycolysis
B. Oxidative phosphorylation
C. High no. of mitochondria
D. Anaerobic respiration

28. Reversible loss of polarity and dysmorphism is a type of
A. Metaplasia
B. Dysplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Desmoplasia

29. Sickle cell trait does not produce disease in a person because
A. 50% HbS conc. does not interfere with oxygen carriage
B. Length of HbS is insufficient to cause sickling
C. HbS dos not interect with HbA
D.

30. All of the following bacteria cause food poisoning through preformed toxin except
A. Enterotoxic E. coli
B. Sta. aureus
C. Botulinum
D. B. cereus

31. True about minimal change GN is
A. It is a focal segmental GN
B. there is thickning of basement membrane
C. there is Ig deposition / mesengial cells
D. flatning of podocytes with loss polarity

32. A child aged 2 years with �positive family history�. On peripheral blood smear target cells are seen. He has hypochromic microcytic anemia with Hb 6 gm%. Next investigation of choice is
A. Hb electrophoresis
B. Coombs test
C. Liver function tests
D. Osmatic fragility test

33. Degenerative changes seen in old age(cellular ageing) is
A. Increased abosorption of nutrients
B. Increased oxydative phosphorylation
C. Lipofuschin is increased
D.

MICROBIOLOGY

34. A patient as h/o Rhematic fever 10 yrs back. He has developed acute bacterial endocarditis. Most suspected bacteria is
A. Stap. aureus
B. Strept
C. Strept.
D. Strept.

35. A person who undergone a tooth extraction, developed endocarditis. Likely bacterial cause is
A. St.
B. Staph. aureus
C. E. coli
D. Strepto. sanguis

36. Cystine deficient lactose (CLED)media is preferred over McConkey agar because
A. Former prevents swarming of proteus
B. It is a differential medium
C. Prevents pseudomonas growth
D. inhibit growth of candida and Stap. aureus

37. A beta hemolytic bacteria resistant to vancomycin, gentamycin and ampicillin. It shows growth in 6.5% NaCl and bile is likely to be
A. Strep agalactiae
B. Strep pneumococcus
C. Enterococcus
D. Strep bovis

38. A patient present with abscess. Microscopy shows florescence. Most likely organism is
A. Bacteroid
B. Proteus
C. St. cocci
D. E. coli

39. Which of the following virus is a calci virus
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis E

40. Media used for culture of Leigioneela pnemonai bacteria
A. Thayer martin medium
B. Choclate agar media
C. Bordet gangou media
D. Buffered charcol, yeast extract with alpha Keto glutarate and antibiotic supplement

41. Auto infection is present in
A. Ascaris
B. E. Vermicularis
C. P. westermani
D.


42. Northen blotting and _____ test is done for
A. m RNA
B. DNA
C. Protein
D.


43. Entrovirus causes
A. Herpangina
B. Haemrrhagic fever
C.
D.

FORENSIC MEDICINE

44. In a case of posioning, gastric lavage was done with silver nitrate solution, which turned black. Most common probability is poisoning with
A. Tik 20
B. Malathione
C. Organophosphates
D. Celphos (Aluminium phosphide)


45. Two farmers are brought to emergency in an unconscious state. Gastric lavage was done. The fluid obtained was smelling like that of bitter almonds. Most probably, poisoning is with
A. Hydrocyanic acid
B. Malathion
C. Organophosphates
D.

46. A dead body is brought to hospital. There is frothing from nose which increases in compression of chest. This is a sign of death due to
A. Drowning
B. Asphyxia
C. Hanging
D. Poisoning

47. A drug abuser presents with black tongue and staining of teeth. This suggest use of
A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Hashish
D. Arsenic

PSM

48. Standard deviation is 1 and n = 100. Standard error of distribution is
A. 10
B. 1.0
C. 0.1
D. .01

49. Mean systolic BP for 100 mean is 120. Ideally, how many of them have systolic BP below 120
A. 70
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60

50. Cofficient of variance in IMR and socioeconomic standard is
A. 1.0
B. +0.22
C. 0.80
D. +1.0

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51. Best indicator of health status in a community is
A. MMR
B. IMR
C. Crude death Rate
D. Crude Birth Rate

52. Human development index includes all of the follwing except
A. Per capita income
B. Crude Death rate
C. Education
D. Life expectancy

53. Burden of disease in a community can be judged by
A. Disability adjusted years
B. IMR
C. D.
54. Denominator used in calculation of Crude Death Rate is on which date
A. 1 July
B. 31 March
C. 1 November
D. 1 January

55. Median of 3,5,2,10,10, 20,12 is
A. 20
B. 9
C. 10
D. 8.85

56. All of the following vaccines can be used as post exposure vaccine except
A. Pertusis
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Hepatitis B

57. Percentage of values, that come and 1.96 Standard deviation is
A. 80
B. 85
C. 90
D. 95

58. False about case control study is
A. Study is carried out between diseased and undiseased
B. Attributable risk can be measured
C. Easy to carry out
D. Less fund is required

59. Sentinal survillance is done for all of the following except
A. Acute flaccid paralysis
B. Hepatitis B
C. Diarrhea
D. HIV infection

60. Additional calories, protein given to a Pregnant women by anganwadi worker is
A. 300, 15
B. 500, 15
C. 300, 25
D. 500, 25

61. Two communities are best compared by
A. Direct standarisation
B.
C.
D.

62. A number of men were given the drug A with which, 40 % responded. Now instead of A, B drug is given and 60% responded. Best statistical tool to measure significance of the study is
A. Chi Square test
B. Paired t test
C. Fischer test
D. Student�s T test

63. Tool to measure significance of statistics for the cholesterol level of obese (n=12) and un obese (n=15) persons is
A. Chi square test
B. Paired t test
C. Fisher test
D.

64. A graph which represent height (on x axis) and time in months (on y axis) of a school going child (y= a+bx) is likely to form a
A. Straight line
B. Parabola
C. Logistic curve
D. Sigmoid curve

65. In a population of 10000, there were 1200 live births in a year with death of 60 infants. IMR will be
A. 50
B. 12
C. 72
D. 75

66. Consider the metabolism of two drugs A and B. X axis is the time and Y denotes the conc. What is the diffrence between two drugs?


A. Rate of absorption
B. Bioavailability
C.
D.

67. Out of 100 exposed, five developed the disease and 1 in 100 among unexposed develpoed the disease . Attributable risk will be
A.80%
B. 60%
C. 100%
D. 40%


68. Which of the following in not done to prevent KFD
A. Immunization
B. Personal protection
C. Deforestication
D. Avoiding of free roaming of cattle
 

MEDICINE

69. A man visits of medical outdoor with c/o fatigue and weakness. Various investigations were done and CPK was found to be increased. CPK is released from
A. Muscle fiber
B. Nerve Fiber
C. Renal Tubule
D.


70. Immunlogical investigation of choice for diagnosis of invasive ameabiasis
A. compliment fixation
B. PCR
C. Elisa
D. Indirect haemagglutination test


71. In a hospital ward, one patient has developed pus at the site of stiches after 48 hours of operation. 3 more patients have developed same infection. What is the best method to protect other patients?
A. Hand washing of hospital staff before and after touching the patients
B. Formaldehyde fumigation
C. 1% hypochloride spray
D. Give antibiotics to all patients


72. A middle age person had binges of alcohol last night. Now he comes with palpitation and sweating. He has h/o similer episodes. M/c cause is
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Supra ventriculat tachycardia
D. Ventricular ectopic beat

73. One person has got renal transplantation. He has developed Hepatitis B. Treatment of choice is
A. Lemividine
B. Interferon
C. Interferon + Lemividine
D. Ribavarine


74. True statement about toxoplasma is
A. Rare in females
B. It is common in immuno competent person
C. Most commonly, Asymtomattic
D. It is mainly an arthopometic disease


75. A 27 year old patient was given some drugs for fever 15 days back. Now he presets with massive haemetmesis. Most likely cause is
A. NSAID induced gastritis
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Oeso. varices.
D.

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76. Prian disease; false is
A. Caused by infective protein particles.
B. Associated with HIV
C. Myoclonus is present in 10% cases.
D.Brain biopsy is diagnostic./ Dementia is the most common finding.


77. Which of the following is not seen in CNS of a HIV patient
A. Microglial nodules
B. Vaculo__pathy of post. Cranial fossa
C. Perivascular giant cells
D. Temporal lobe _____


78. Plasmapheresis is indicated in
A. HSP
B. Weg. granulomatosis
C. Ac. Renal rejection
D. Good pasture syndrome


79. A child has raised unconjugated bilirubin, normal conjugated bilirubin and alkaline phosphate. He has raised urobilinogen in urine but no bile salt and conjugated bilirubin in urine. Most likely diagnosis is
A. Viral Hepatitis
B. Haemolytic anaemia
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Hepatic cirrhosis


80. Bablu, age 10 years has h/o sore throat 3 days back. Now he has developed haematuria. Most likely diagnosis is
A. IgA Nephropathy
B. Post streptococcal GN
C. ATN
D.


81. Hyperventilation lead to muscle weakness because of
A. Increased potassium outside of cells
B. Decreased calcium in serum
C.
D.


82. If urinalysis shows RBC casts, likely source is
A. Kidney
B. Ureter
C. Bladder
D. Urethra


83. Difference between fibrolamellar cancer and classical HCC are all, EXCEPT
A. More in women
B. Better prognosis than HCC
C. Increase AFP >1000 is diagnostic
D.

84. A man with fever wt loss and cough, mantoux is 17 x 19 mm induration, sputum cytology negative for AFB. Diagnosis:
A. Pulmonary tuberuosis
B. Fungal pnemonia
C. Viral pneumonia
D. Bacterial Pneumonia

85. Allergic reactions followed by a bee bite is mediated through
A. IgE
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD

86. A woman has septic abortion done; vegetation on tricuspid valve is likely to go to:
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Brain


87. Lokesh 26 yr old boy presents upper GI bleeding . On examination, there is splenomegaly, no ascites, no hepatomegaly; esophageal varices present on UGIE. Diagnosis is
A. Budd chiari syndrome
B. Non cirrhotic portal fibrosis
C. Cirrhosis
D. Veno occlusive disease

88. An elderly hypertensive man has abdomianl pain, found to have fusiform dilatation of the descending aorta. Likely cause is
A. Mycotic aneurysm
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Right ventricular failure
D. Syphilis aortitis


89. TSEDR (EDTR) stands for
A.
B. Study for early detection of diabetic retinopathy
C.
D.


90. Cause of gout in Glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency is
A. Acculumation of pentose sugars
B. Acculumation of glucose 6 phosphates
C.
D.

91. Which of the following is not a congenital myopathy
A. Nemalin myopathy
B. Z disc myopathy
C. Takasayku disease
D.


92. Hemant Kumar, Age 40 years, present with hypoaesthesia on face and horner�s syndrome on right side with paresthesia of right leg and right hand. Most likely involved artery is
A. Superior cerebeller
B. Inferior basillar
C. Postero inferior cerebeller
D. Antero inferior cerebeller

93. Polycystic kidney is most commonly associated with
A. Berry aneurysm of Circle of willis
B. Aneurysm of thoracic aorta
C. Fusiform aneurysm
D. Saccular aneurysm


94. False statement about polycystic kidney is
A. It is associated with cysts of pancreas, kidney and liver
B. Hypertension is rare
C. Infection is common
D. Autosomal dominent

95. A has given birth to a normal baby last year. This year, after delivery, she has developed PPH on second day. Her APTT is increased, factor VIII is 10% of normal. BT, TT and PT are normal. Most likely condition is
A. Lupus anticoagulent
B. Inherited Hemophilia A
C. Acquired Haemophilia
D. DIC


96. A 12 yr old girl Pallavi has 4x6 right overian dysgerminoma with intact membrane; which is the best treatment for her
A. Right oopherectomy
B. Bilateral oopherectomy
C. Radiotherapy
D. Bilateral oopherectomy + hyterectomy


97. Granulomatous change is not seen is
A. Weg. granulomatosis
B. Giant cell arteritis
C. Microscopic PAN
D. Chus strus disease


98. Tall QRS interval is seen in
A. Glycogen Storage diseases type II
B. Hurler syndrome
C. Hunter syndrome
D.


99. A lady presents with complaints of hemoptysis and foul smelling. Her chest X ray appears to be normal. What is the next best investigation
A. Bronchoscopy
B. High Resolution CT
C. Sputum cytology
D. USG


100. A patient with bacterial endocarditis on mitral valve. Embolus from this area is least likely to go to
A. Brain
B. Spleen
C. Mesentery
D. Lungs
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101. Most reliable sign of acute infection with Hepatitis B is presence of
A. HbsAG
B. IgG
C.IgM Hbc
D. IgM Hbe


102. True about vertical transmission of Hepatitis B virus is
A. Presence of IgG in baby is diagnostic
B. Presence of IgM Hbc is diagnostic
C.
D.


103. PAN is commonly due to
A. Hepatitis B
B. CMV
C. Cox
D.


104. False about Familial Adenomatous Polyposis coli
A. Colonic mucosal hyperplasia
B. Decreased c myc
C. Mucin production
D. Associated with apl gene


105. Lithium causes
A. Ebstien anamoly
B.
C.
D.

PEDIATRICS

106. A 10 year old child present with mental retardation, delayed bone age and epiphysial fragmentation. Most common cause can be
A. Hypopitutarism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hypo
D.


107. At birth, a neonate has cyanosis with normal heart size. There was oligemia of lung fields. Most likely condition is
A. TOF
B. TA
C. TGV
D.


108. A newborn with large VSD and short systolic murmur, had congestive heart failure, which improved spontaneously. Most likely cause of spontaneous improvement is
A. Closer of septal defect
B. Aortic regugitation
C. Septic endocarditis
D. Pulmonary vascular changes


109. According to WHO, anaemia is diagnosed in a 6 month child when hemoglobin is less than
A. 10 g/L
B. 115 g/L
C. 110 g/L
D. 105 g/L


110. A neonate with jaundice and clay white stools. On liver biopsy giant cells were seen. diagnosis is
A. Physiological jaundice
B. Neonatal hepatitis with extrabiliary atresia
C. Neonatal hepatitis with physiological jaundice
D. Hepatic cirrhosis


111. Respiratory distress is common in children because of all except
A. Adult Hb has more affinity for oxygen
B. Immature respiratory system
C.
D.


112. A Child with cataract, Lens is having sugar alcohol
A. Uridyl 1 6 glucophosphate
B. Lactase
C.
D.

PSYCHIATRY

113. A patient is taking lithium for pyciatric illness since 6 months. He presents to the medical OPD with sign and symptoms of dehydration. Lithium blood level is 1.95 mEq/L. Cause of these symptoms could be
A. Lithium toxicity
B. Drug reaction
C. Progressed disease
D. Dehydration


114. Basanti age 27 years, female thinks her nose bigger than usual size. She has visited three plastic surgeons and all said that she is normal. She is not referred to psychiatrist for this problem. Most likely diagnosis is
A. Delusion disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Somatization
D. Autism

115. Chandu age 35 years suffers sudden palpitations and apprehension. He is sweating lasting 10 minutes, with dooming of death. Diagnosis is
A. Hysteria
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Panic attack
D. Generalized anxiety disorder


116. A 70 years old person present with one month h/o delusion, third person hallucination, personality disturbances. He also has prospognosia and memory loss. Most likely diagnosis is
A. Schizophrenia
B. Dementia
C. Dementia precox
D. Deliium


117. A 16 year old girl has cut her wrist for committing suicide. On inquiry, he father told that she has done this before many times and once again, cause of this behavior is fight with her mother and brother. She has h/o mood upset. Most likely cause is
A. Hysteria
B. Borderline personality
C. Adjustment disorder
D.


118. A 4 year old introvert children remains calm and quite. He is not intesrested in playing outside. If any one disturbs him in his work, he becomes upset. Most likely, he is suffering from
A. Hysteria
B. Hyperactive disorder
C. Autism
D.

SKIN

119. Most comman type of melanoma is
A. Acral Lentigo
B. Sup. spreading
C. Nodular
D.


120. Malignant changes most commonly occur in which type of melanoma
A. Junctional nave
B. Nodular
C. Sup. spreading
D.


121. MC site of lentogo acral melanoma
A. Trunk
B. Palm
C. Sole
D. Face


122. Ramavtar, 40 years present with scarring alopesia, thinning of nail plate and macular lesions on the skin. Most likely diagnosis is
A. Dermatophytosis
B. Lichan Planus
C. Psoriasis
D. Sec. Syphillis


123. A lady give birth to child to multiple congenital defects including cleft palate, neural tube defects, ASD and microcephaly. which of the following drug is responsible
A. Erythromycin
B. Isotretenoin
C. Ibuprofen
D. Amoxicillin

124. An 8 year old boy presents with a well defined annular lesion over the buttock with central scarring that is gradually progressing over the last 8 months. The diagnosis is
A. Annular psoriasis
B. Lupus vulgaris
C. Tinea corporis
D.


125. A psoriasis patient was taking steroids since 6 months. When he stopped taking steroids, he developed papular lesions all over the body. Most likely cause is
A. Papular Psoriasis
B. Drug reaction
C.
D.
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126. Acne vulgaris is a infection of
A. Sebaceous gland
B. Apocrine gland
C. Sweat gland
D. gland

ANAESTHESIA

127. Clinical signs of hypercarbia includes all except
A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
C. Cold clammy skin
D. Miosis


128. A hemophiliac patient is going to undergo a tooth extraction under monitored anaesthetic care. Which of the following is NOT true under this situation
A. Factor 8 cryoprecipitate may be needed
B. HIV screening should be done for all cases
C. Dental extraction should be done under anesthesia
D. The dose of lignocaine is double to their normal counterparts

SURGERY

129. A patient presents with cancer of kidney, which has involved inferior venacava. Wrong statement about management of this patient is
A. Surgery is to be done
B. Involvement of inferior venacava is a contraindication for surgery
C. surgery
D.


130. A 25 year old patient has Seminoma testis, stage I. Treatment of choice is
A. High inguinal orchidectomy with Radiotherapy
B. Scrotal orchiedectomy
C. Radiotherapy + chemotherapy
D. High inguinal Orchidectomy


131. A patient has carcinoma tongue, with involvement of lower neck lymphnodes. Treatment of choice is
A. Radical neck surgery
B. Surgery above omohyoid
C. Surgery above hyoid
D. Radiotherapy


132. A person has got hypertrophy of one parathyroid gland, resulting in to hyperparathyroidism. Best treatment is this patient would be
A. 3� parathyroidectomy
B. Removal of all parathyroid tissue
C. Removal of affected parathyroid gland
D. Remove half od the pth gland

133. Treatment of choice for single solitary thyroid nodule is
A. Subtotal thyroidectomy
B. Total thyroidectomy
C. Hemi thyroidectomy
D. Radioactive iodine


134. Chandu, diagnosed with Acute pulmonary right ventricular embolism TOC is
A. Thrombolytic Drug
B. Lowmolecular wt heparin
C.
D.


135. A person has viral induced ulcer in the oesophagus. Biopsy is to be taken from which part of ulcer
A. Base
B. Edge
C. Indurated area
D. Mucosa


136. Gopal, age 35 yr has varicose veins with gigantism of the limb. Most likely cause of gigantism is
A. Simple incompetence of F saph. valve
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Arterio venous fistula
D. Increased pressure in femoral artery


137. Pulsatile varicose veins are seen in
A. Tricuspid incompetence
B. Right ventricular failure
C. Thrombosis of veins
D. Klipple Trenaunay syndrome


138. Which of the following skin lesion is permanent
A. Salmon patch
B. Strawberry angioma
C. Portwine stain
D.

139. A 12 year boy developed pain in right side of testis, which was soon followed by swelling. False statement is
A. Torsion testis should be considered.
B. While operating for torsion testis, opposite testis should also be fixed prophylactically
C. Previous h/o pyeurea is essential for diagnosis of Torsion testis
D. On Doppler USG, absence of blood flow in testicular artery is found

140. False about urethral injury is
A. It is less common in females
B. Blood at urethral meatus is diagnostic
C. Catheter should be introduced immediately
D.

141. A 45 year old woman presents with firm to hard lump, which was first observed by herself. On examination, the lump is mobile. Most confirmatory investigation is
A. FNAC
B. USG
C. Mammography
D. Excision biopsy

142. Long standing case of multinodular goitre has undergone malignant change. Most likely malignancy to develop is
A. Follicular ca
B. Papillary ca
C. Medullary ca
D. Anaplastic ca

143. TOC of warthism's tumour
A. Sup. peridectomy
B. Total peridectomy
C. Radical peridectomy
D.

144. Pradeep was operated for carcinoma penis. He has developed paresthesia at the base of penis and scrotum. Most likely possibility is accidental damage to
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Ilioinguinal nerve
C. Genital branch of genito femoral nerve.
D.

145. Which of the following statement is false
A. Circumcision of penis anytime before puberty provides 100% protection against penile carcinoma
B.Personal hygeine can be preventive
C.Will involve inguinal lymph node earlier
D. LN metastasis need resection of penis

146.A patient is having lesions over buttock with central scarring and peripheral clearing, investigation done is
A. Skin biopsy
B. KOH preparation
C.
D.

147. TOC of pleomorphic adenoma
A. Sup. peridectomy
B. Total peridectomy
C. Radical peridectomy
D.

148. Likelyhood of dumping syndrome , billous vomiting and diarrhea is minimum with
A. Highly selective vagotomy
B. Gastrojejunostomy
C. Gastrojejunostomy+pyleroplasty
D. Truncal vagotomy

149. Basanti, 40 yrs, underwent subtotal thyroidectomy. Within 2 hours she developed stridor. Which of the following is the least likely cause
A. Tracheo malacia
B. Bilateral recurrent nerve palsy
C. Hematoma formation
D. Hypocalcemia

150. Kheratilal age 50 years presents with gradually progressive hard scrotal swelling on right side. All of the following can be done excpet
A. Inguinal exploration
B. Transcrotal biopsy
C. CT abdomen
D. Chest X ray to rule out pulmonary metasis

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151. Most common site of admentioma
A. Molar region on mandible
B. Mental symphysis
C. Molar region of maxilla
D. Angle of mandible

152. Mandible is most commonly involved in which of the following tumour
A. Amleoblastoma
B. Osteoid osteoma
C. Brown tumour
D.

153. A 34 year old man presents with foul smell from mouth and regurgitation. A sac is present at cricopharnyngeal region. Treatment of choice is
A. Excision of sac
B. Excision of sac with myotomy
C. Myotomy
D. Radiotherapy

154. Parasagital Rhabdomyosarcoma is best diagnosed by
A. MRI
B. HRCT
C. SPECT
D. CEC

155. Calcification in kidney, irregular hydrocalcified ureter and contracted urinary bladder is most commonly associated with
A. TB
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Nephroblastoma
D.

156. True about consideration of conservative treatment in a case ureteric stone is
A. Small size (<6mm)
B. Not responding since 15 days
C. Small stones can be removed through urethra
D.

157. False about bladder stone is
A.
B. KUB is always diagnostic
C. Rare in Indian children
D.

158. False about uretero pelvic junction obstruction
A. It is commonly due crossing vessels
B. It can be diagnosed antenatally
C. DTPA with diuretics is useful in diagnosis
D. Endoscopic pyeloroplasty is contraindicated

159. In a case of pheochromcytoma, which chemical is released in excess
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D.

160. Diabetes c/o renal pain fever.C.T. Scan shows irregularly enlarged kidney, calculi,fat shadow. Diagnsosis is
A. Lymphoid Granulomatosis
B. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
C. Renal abscess
D. chronic pyelonephritis

161. Fat laden histiocytes seen in
A. Lymphoma
B. Post gastrectomy
C. Sigmoid ring ca stomach
D.

162. A 60 yr old man presents with Prostatic enlargment. IOC
A. Transrectal USG
B.
C.
D.

163. All are true about varicocoele except
A. More common on right side
B. infertility can occur
C. Affects 10% young
D. High chances of detection of early renal ca.
Ans. A Ref.

164. Maxillary tumour with staging T3M0N0. TOC would be
A. Maxillectomy
B. Radiotherapy
C. Maxillectomy + Radiotherapy
D. Chemotherapy

ORTHOPAEDICS

165. A 35 year old man is taking oral steroids for his problem since 14 years. He has developed pain in scarpa�s triangle and abduction+extension deformilty of hip. Most common cause could be
A. Avascular necrosis of femur head
B. Septic arthritis
C. senile arthritis
D.

166. A 11 year old child has weight of 70 Kg. He presents with limitation of abduction and internal rotation of hip. M/c cause could be
A. Slip epiphysis
B. Perthes disease
C.
D.

167. Mohd. Khaled, age 50 years has some problems and been subjected to various investigations. The value obtained are Hb = 8; ESR =90; TLC=4500; neutrophils=60; lymphocytes =35; eosinophils = 2; basophils =3. What is the most likely condition
A. Myeloma
B. Waldenstrom�smacroglobulinemia
C.
D.

168. Gopal, 19 yrs has small circumscribed sclerotic swelling over diaphysis of femur bone. Most likely condition is
A. Osteoclastoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Ewings sarcoma
D. Osteoid osteoma

169. Painful arc syndrome is absent in
A. Supraspinatus tendonitis
B. Complete rupture of supraspinatus tendon
C. Fracture of greater tuberosity of humrus
D. Subacromial bursitis

170. All are true about myeloma except
A. B Z proteins have all types of chain
B.
C.
D.

171. Which band is seen in iliotibial contracture
A. Zame
B. Charle
C. Osler
D. Ober's

GYNAE & OBSTETRICS

172. Phosphatidyl in lungs appear at
A. 20 weeks
B. 28 weeks
C. 35 weeks
D. 38 weeks

173. A diabetic mother has just delivered. Baby is likely to be suffering from
A. Cardiac anamoly
B. Tocolytics should be given to all
C. Betamethasone causes hyperlycemia
D.

174. In third trimester of a pregnent lady, a normal finding is
A. apex beat in 4th intercostal space
B. Cardiac Hypertrophy
C. Atrial fibrillation on and off
D. Sub diastolic murmur.

175. Hypothalamic amenorrhea is present in
A. Kallaman syndrome
B. Sheehan syndrome
C. Asheman syndrome
D.
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176. A G3P3 lady had her last delivery 6 years back. Now she presents to gynae OPD with cold skin and pruritis vulva. She has no axillary & pubic hairs. All of the following can be given for her benefit except
A. Thyroid extract
B. Ehtynil oestradiol
C. Prednisolone
D. Insulin

177. Begum Yasina has amenorrhea since last 6 weeks. Now she comes to OPD with complains of light abdominal pain and slight bleeding PV. On examination, uterine cavity is empty and there is some fluid in pouch of douglus. Most likely condition is
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Threatned abortion
C. Missed abortion
D. Vaginal pathology

178. Longest duration of ectopic pregnancy is seen in
A. Ampullary area
B. Interstitial area 12 20 wks
C. Infundibular area
D. Cornual 16 20 weeks

179. Ethynil estriol conc. in newer low dose OCP is
A. 30 mcg
B. 25 mcg
C. 35 mcg
D. 20 mcg

180. pH of amniotic fluid is
A. 7.0 7.1
B. 7.1 7.3
C. 7.2 7.4
D.

181. Bilateral ovarian cancer with capsule breached, ascites and positive malignant cells in peritoneal cavity. Correct staging for this condition is
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

182. Preeti, age 27 years has a h/o of cesarian section in previous delivery. She is pregnant again and present to emergency with hypovolumic shock. All of the following are sure sign of ruptured scar except
A. Fetal bradycardia
B. Maternal bradycardia
C. Vaginal bleeding
D. Haematuria

183. False statement about semen analysis is
A. Mobility is directly related with quality of semen
B. Best sample is that which is collected in vicinity of laboratory
C. An abstinence period of 6 weeks is mandatory
D. Absence of fructose is directly related with obstruction in ejaculatory duct or congenital absence of vas deference and seminal vesicle.

184. Call exner bodies are present in
A. Granulosa cell tumour
B. Hylus cell tumour
C. Dysgerminos
D.

185. Basanti, age 29 years is from Bihar referred to a district hopital. She is pregnant and has signs of encephalopathy. Most likely cause is infection with
A. Hepatic encephalopthy of pregnancy
B. Hepatitis E
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis B

186. HCG is not produced by
A. Polyembryoma
B. Endodermal sinus tumour
C. Embryonic carcinoma
D.Choriocarcinoma

187. True about lung maturation of baby of diabetic mother
A.
B. Betamethasone caused hyperglycemia
C. Alpha agonist causes hyper glycemia
D.
OPTHALMOLOGY

188. Mydiatric drug of choice, when cycloplegia is to be avoided
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Pilocarpine
D. Tropicamide

189. In optic papilloedema of moderate grade, which of the following condition is least likely to occur
A. Blurring of optic disc
B. Filling of cup
C. Hyperemia
D. Loss of direct papillary reflex

190. A middle aged man has got a punch on face with subsequent blowout fracture of the orbit. Which wall of orbit is most likely to go off
A. Floor (inferior.)
B. Roof (superior)
C. Lateral
D. Medical

191. A 40 yr old man developed sudden painless and partial loss of vision and recovered fully in 3 months. Most likely condition
A. Macular hole
B. Central serous retinopathy
C. Central retinal vein obstruction
D.

192. Lecocoria is absent in
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Fungal endophthalmitis
C. Congenital Glaucoma (buphthalmos)
D. Persistent membrane vitrous

193. Allergic reaction of TB in eye present as
A. Phylenticular conjunctivitis
B. Koppius
C.
D.

194. Nishant, age 27 years comes to the ophthalmology department with ropy discharge from the eyes, lacrimation, red eye with cobble stone appearance. Most likely, he is suffering from
A. Viral conjunctivitis
B. Vernal conjunctivitis
C. Fungal conjunctivitis
D.

195. Ocular conditions are associated with following seronegative arthritis except
A. Psoriasis
B. Ankylosing spondilytis
C. Rheumatoid Athritis
D. Rieter�s syndrome
196. Retinoscopy is done with distance of 1 meter, on the eye of a myopic patient, having a power of 0.5 D. Direction of movement will be in
A. Same side
B. Opposite side
C. No movement
D.
ENT

197. A 35 year old man presents with complain of progressive unilateral tinnitis and dizziness. All the conditions can be associated with him except
A. Acoustic neuroma
B. Petrous apex ma
C. Endolymphatic hydrops
D. Histiocytosis X

198. A man comes to the OPD with complains of vertigo, dizzeness and deafness. On examination, a pulsatile red mass is seen behind tympanic membrane, which blanch when middle ear is inflated with Sheigal�s pnematic ear speculum. All are modalities for treatment of this man, except
A. Embolisation
B. Surgery
C. Interferon
D. Radiotherapy
RADIOLOGY

199. Renal artery stenosis is best diagnosed by
A. Duplex Doppler USG
B. CT
C. MRI
D. Captopril provocative test

200. Neuroendocrine tunmour (NET) can be diagnosed by which single test?
A. MRI
B. PET
C. Nucleotide Scanning
D. Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy

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