Aiims May 2002 - Pre MS/MD/Diploma Exam
Aiims May 2002 - Pre MS/MD/Diploma Exam
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ANATOMY
1. Regarding Temporo-mandibular joint least vascularity is seen in which of the following
A. Anterior portion
B. Central part
C. Posterior part
D. Articular cartilage
2. Which of the following branches of External carotid artery is arising from the medial side
A. Superior Thyroid
B. Ascending pharyngeal
C. Internal maxillary
D. Superior Lingual
3. A patient rameshwar presented with weakness of hand over a past few months with atrophy of the thenar eminence on examination. Which of the following nerves is implicated
A. Ulnar
B. Median
C. Radial
D. Axillary
4. Mental foramen is closely related to
A. 2nd premolar of mandible
B. 1st molar of mandible
C. 1st molar of maxilla
D. Canines of mandible
5. To give inferior alveolar nerve block the nerve is approached medial to pterygomandibular raphe between the buccinator and
A. Temporalis
B. Internal pterigoid
C. Superior pharyngeal constrictor
D. Middle pharyngeal constrictor
6. Blood supply to the first two cms of duodenum is from all of the following except
A. Supradoudenal
B. Gastrodoudenal
C. Hepatic
D. Superior pancreaticodoudenal
7. All of the following are tributaries anatomising with cavernous sinus except
A. Superficial middle cerebral vein
B. Superior petrosal sinus
C. Inferior ophthalmic vein
D. Sphenoparietal veins
BIOCHEMISTRY
8. In a mutation if valine is replaced by which of the following would not result in any change in the amino acid
A. Proline
B. Glycine
C. Aspartic acid
D. Leucine
9. A single gene mutation in the codon, causes a change in the amino acid being coded, is referred to as
A. Mis-sense mutation
B. Non-sense mutation
C. Somatic mutation
D. Recombination
10. After 72 hours of starvation which of the following is seen
A. Increased ketosis due to lypolysis
B. Degradation of muscle protein and increased gluconeogenesis
C. Increased hepatic Glycogenolysis
D. Hypercholesterolemia due to increased FFA
11. Which of the following membranes would be having highest protein content
A. Inner mitochondrial membrane
B. Outer mitochondrial membrane
C. Plasma membrane
D. Myelin sheath
12. The presence of lone pair on the oxygen in water molecule results in
A. Makes water apolar solvent
B. Slightly positive charge
C. Slightly negative charge
D. Covalent bond in ice
13. All of the following cross cell membrane easily except
A. Glucose
B. Glucose 6 phosphate
C. Nitric oxide
D. Carbon monoxide
14. Viscosity in synovial fluid depends upon
A. Chondoroitin sulphate
B. Hyaluronic acid
C. Keratin sulphate
D. Glucuronic acid
15. All of the following are extracellular proteins except
A. Laminin
B. Integrin
C. Collagen
D. Elastin
16. Anomeric C-atom is seen in which of the following
A. Glycine
B. Alanine
C. Valine
D. Leucine
17. Homoestatic mechanisms in a body system depends upon all of the following except
A. Value of controlled variable is compared to the reference value
B. Value of controlled variable oscillates near a set point
C. Positive feedback stabilizes system
D. Values revolve around the mean
18. In a DNA the coding region reads 5-CGT-3.This would code in the RNA as
A. 5-UAG-3
B. 5-ACG-3
C. 3-GCA-5
D. 3-ACG-3
19. In the synthesis of fatty acids the energy is supplied by
A. NAD
B. NADPH
C. FAD
D. GTP
PHYSIOLOGY
20. When deoxyhemoglobin gets converted into oxyhemoglobin the changes seen would include
A. Haemoglobin becomes more acidic by accepting protons
B. Increased binding of 2,3 DPG
C. Increased binding to glutathione
D. Increased formation of formation of Carbamino compounds
21. Which of the following stimulus (equal strength) is least likely to cause a nerve stimulation [action potential].
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
22. On ascending to a height of 6500 Mts (347 mm Hg). What is the PO2 of inspired moist air
A. 53
B. 63
C. 73
D. 83
23. In a study, dye ABC is used to measure cardiac output and blood volume. The dye is replaced with a new dye XYZ. A rival pharmaceutical company informs that the dye XYZ diffuses more rapidly out of the capillaries. This would affect the study by
A. Normal cardiac output, altered blood volume estimation
B. Altered cardiac output and blood volume
C. Normal cardiac ouput and blood volume
D. Altered cardiac output and normal blood volume
24. A substance is present in concentration of 2mg in the afferent arteries and the veins contain 0 mgs and excreted with a concentration of 2mgs in urine. True about the substance is
A. It is freely filtered in GFR
B. Secreted in cortical nephron
C. Impermeable in loop of henle
D. Absorbed in PCT
25. In excitation contraction coupling in smooth muscle true is
A. The presence of intracellular calcium is essential to cause contraction
B. Presence of troponin is essential
C. Phosphorylation of actin occurs
D. Increased calcium in sarcoplasmic reticulum causes sustained contraction
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26. All of the following are present in mucosa of small intestine except
A. Paneth cells
B. Goblet cells
C. Neck mucosa cells
D. Stem cells
27. In study to measure BP 2 students Sameer and Rahul are conducting a study on a dog. Sameer measure BP using a mercury sphygmanometer on the right femoral artery and Rahul measures using a pressure transducer and pulse tracing on the left femoral artery. Both get a value of 100 mm Hg. After giving Inj of 30micrograms of epinephrine they measure the BP again. Sameer obtains a value of 130 mm Hg and rahul 120 mm Hg. Discrepancy in values is explained by
A. Right femoral artery is more sensitive to epinephrine
B. Falsely high values at low pressures in pulse tracings
C. Falsely low values at high pressures in pulse tracings
D. Diastole period is affected by the ventricular filling
28. FSH acts on which of the following cells primarily
A. Stromal cells
B. Theca cells
C. Granulosa cells
D. Fibrin cells
PHARMACOLOGY
29. Regarding the HMG CoA reductase inhibitors all of the following are true except
A. The CNS accumulation of drugs Simvastatin and Lovastatin is high and it is less for Provastatin and Fluvastatin
B. Simvastatin is extensively metabolised and Provastatin is least
C. Bioavailability is minimally modified when Provastatin is taken along with food
D. Fibrinogen levels are increased by Provastatin
30. The drug having most rapid action on leprosy is
A. Dapsone
B. Rifampicin
C. Clofazamine
D. Corticosteroids
31. Myopathy is caused by all of the following except
A. Oral Prednisolone
B. Zidovudine
C. Chloroquine
D. Chloramphenicol
32. Pancreatitis is caused by all of the following except
A. Methyl Dopa
B. Captopril
C. Furosemide
D. Somatostatin
33. Gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, osteomalacia is caused by which of the following drugs
A. Carbamazipine
B. Sodium Valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Furesimide
34. Enantiomeric drugs are used in racemic mixtures, which have different pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic properties and also vary in the stereoisomeric responses to the receptors. Which of the following drugs is a racemic mixture
A. Phenytoin
B. Digoxin
C. Lithium
D. Verapamil
35. All are used in acute asthma except
A. Ipratropium bromide
B. Salbutamol
C. Montelukast
D. Hydrocortizone
36. Chlorodiazepoxide used in elderly patients is more likely to cause toxicity due to all of the following reasons except
A. Increased receptor sensitivity
B. Decreased plasma (renal) clearance
C. Decreased volume of distribution
D. Decreased metabolism
37. All of the following are true about beta blockers except
A. Atenolol has a longer half life then Metoprolol
B. Propranolol potentiates hypoglycemia in diabetics
C. Labetalol is a non selective Beta blocker
D. Carvidelol is selective Beta-1 blocker and also has vasoconstrictor activity due to alpha 1 adrenergic blocking action
38. All of the following are true about Metformin except
A. Alcohol potenties increased lactic acidosis along with it
B. It does not cause release of insulin
C. It inhibits Glycogenolysis and increases peripheral utilization of glucose
D. Causes severe hypoglycaemia both in diabetics and non diabetics
39. Before operating adrenal phaeochromocytoma, all of the following drugs are contraindicated to prevent hypertensive crisis except
A. Propranolol
B. Saralasin
C. Phenoxybenzamine
D. Atenolol
40. Which of the following is effect of u(mu) receptors
A. Miosis
B. Hypothermia
C. Bradycardia
D. Diuresis
41. Which of the following drug is used for intractable pain in cancer patients
A. Inj Pethidine
B. Oral morphine
C. Inj ibuprofen
D. Inj Ketamine
42. Which of the following is specifically contrindicated in a patient with head trauma
A. Diazepam
B. Morphine
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Inj Ketamine
43. A child was suffering through nephrotic syndrome and had hypoalbuminemia, All the following drug's half life is altered due to high protein binding except
A. Diazepam
B. Morphine
C. Tolbutamide
D. Salicylates
44. Post menopausal estrogen therapy causes increase in which of the following
A. Cholesterol
B. VLDL
C. LDL
D. Triglycerides
PATHOLOGY
45. The transfer of iron from sertoli cells to luminal germ cells is by which of the following
A. Transferrin
B. FSH
C. Androgen binding protein
D. Sulfated glycoprotien
46. Shape of RBC membrane is maintained by
A. Spectrin
B. Fibrin
C. Integrin
D. Collagen
47. Gastrointestinal stromal malignancy arises from which of the following
A. Smooth muscle
B. Interstial cells
C. Nerve cells of cajal
D. Vascular Endothelium
48. Which of the following is involved in metastasis cascade
A. Fibronectin
B. E-Cadherin
C. Type IV collagenase
D. Tyrosine kinase
49. Alignment and Disjuntion takes place during which phase of cell division
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis I
C. Meiosis II
D. Metaphase
MICROBIOLOGY
50. Toxoplasmosis in the foetus can be best confirmed by
A. IgG antibodies against Toxoplasma in the mother
B. IgM antibodies against toxoplasma in the Foetus
C. IgM antibodies against toxoplasma in the mother
D. IgG antibodies against toxoplasma in the foetus
51. Antigen presenting cells are all of the following except
A. Astrocytes
B. Endothelial cells
C. Epithelial cells
D. Langerhans cells
52. In a patient with frontal lobe abscess pigment released on exposure to UV rays showed red fluorescence and is foul smelling. The organism implicated is
A. Bacteroids
B. Peptostreptococci
C. Streptococci
D. Provetella
53. Which of the following mechanisms is important in staphylococcal enterotoxin induced vomiting
A. Increased activation of cAMP
B. Stimulation of vagal fibres
C. Release of IL-4 cytokine
D. Increased cGMP
54. The diagnosis of rota virus is made by
A. Demonstration of Antibody in stool
B. Demonstration of antigen in stool
C. Direct visualization
D. Stool culture
55. True about V Cholera is
A. Pathogenecity of 0139 V.Cholera is due to O antigen
B. One attack of V cholera gives life long immunity
C. Affects adults and children with equal propensity in non endemic regions
D. V.Cholera survives in the carriers in the inter epidemic period
56. The complement is fixed best by which of the following immunoglobulins
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD
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FORENSIC MEDICINE
57. A patient was brought with history of pyrexia contracted pupils, Hyptotension cyanosis progressing to coma is suspected to be suffering from poisoning due to
A. Cannabis
B. Dhatura
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Diphenhydramine
58. A bullet which fails to leave the gun on firing but is ejected out with the subsequent shot is
A. Dum dum bullet
B. Tandem bullet
C. Rocketed bullet
D. Ricochet bullet
59. Sexual asphyxia is associated with which of the following perversions
A. Voyeurism
B. Masochism
C. Sadism
D. Fetishism
60. A patient presented with pain abdomen ataxia constipation. Peripheral blood smear examination showed basophilic stippling of RBC’s. He is suffering from poisoning due to
A. Iron
B. Lead
C. Cadmium
D. Arsenic
PSM
61. In a plague epidemic all of the following are done except
A. Tetracycline prophylaxis to be given
B. Isolation of contacts
C. Susceptible to be vaccinated
D. Surveillance
62. In a study on comparison of a common drug(NSAID) and a rare drug (Dypirone) causing disease the attributable(AR) and relative risk (RR) were calculated. It will be found that the
A. NSAIDS will have greater AR and RR as compared to Dypirone
B. NSAIDS will have lesser RR but greater AR
C. There will be no difference between the findings
D. NSAIDS will have lesser AR and RR
63. True morbidity in a population is best measured by
A. Sentinel surveillance
B. Active surveillance
C. Monitoring
D. Passive surveillance
64. Best indicatorof leprosy eradication programme is
A. Detection of new cases
B. The ratio of the multibacillary to the paucibacillary cases
C. The ratio of disability as compared to the new cases
D. Number of cases lepromin positive
65. In a negatively skewed curve
A. The mean is less then the median
B. The mean is greater then the mode
C. The mean is equal to median
D. The mean and the mode are equal to 0
66. In a Chloroquine resistant zone the presumptive treatment of malaria to be given is
A. Chloroquine +primaquine 45mg
B. Chloroquine + pyremethamine
C. Sulphalene 1000mgs
D. Sulphadoxine + pyremethamine
67. In a group of 100 children, 1 child develops measles on 1st January. Subsequently 35 children developed measles, three on 3rd January and the others 2 weeks later. The secondary attack rate of measles is
A. 33.5% B. 32.3 %
C. 35% D. 37.3%
E.
68. Serial interval is the interval between
A. Primary and secondary case
B. Onset of infection and symptoms
C. Time between infection and death
D. Time between infection and infectivity
69. All of the following are true about Polio virus except
A. Type I is associated with major epidemic
B. Type I is responsible for vaccine induced paralysis
C. It is not easy to eradicate Type I polio virus
D. In OPV, Type I is given in higher quantity
70. In RNTPC the schedule for sputum examination for category -I patients is
A. 2,3 and 5 months
B. 2,4 and 6 months
C. 1,3 and 5 months
D. 2,5 and 7 months
MEDICINE
71. A patient suffering from HIV came with history of difficulty in breathing. The X ray showed the parahilar region to be widened. But there was no adenopathy or effusion. The likely cause of his problem is
A. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma
C. Tuberculosis
D. CMV
72. In a patient presenting with hemoptysis the x-ray was found to be normal. The investigation done to aid in diagnosis is.
A. Helical CT scan
B. High resolutions CT scan
C. Bronchoscopy
D. MRI
73. All of the following have proximal myopathy except
A. Myotonic dystrophy
B. Spinomuscular atrophy
C. Polymyositis
D. Ducchene muscular dystrophy
74. Skeletal maturation depends most upon
A. Growth hormone
B. Thyroxin
C. Testosterone and estrogen ratio
D. Cortisol
75. Defect in folding proteins would result in a clinical disease in which of the following
A. Myopia
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Migraine
D. Kuru
76. In alkaptonuria there is increased pigmentation in all of the following except
A. Eyes
B. Nose
C. Ear
D. Articular cartilage
77. A chronic smoker, presents with mild hemoptysis. He was having truncal obesity and hypertension. Lab data showed raised ACTH levels, which were not suppressed by dexamethazone. What would be most probable diagnosis
A. Pituitary adenoma
B. Adrenal Adenoma
C. Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
D. Ectopic ACTH producing lung cancer
78. In a patient with BPH all of the following are used except
A. Flutamide
B. Finasteride
C. Testosterone
D. DES
79. Acute lung injury includes all of the following except
A. Aspiration
B. Toxic gas inhalation
C. Cardiopulmonary bypass with heart lung machine
D. Lung contusion
80. All of the following are seen in a patient with cystic fibrosis except
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Steatorrhoea
C. Hypochloremia
D. Reccurent pneumonias
81. The most common cause of Addison disease is
A. Tuberculosis
B. Autoimmune adrenelitis
C. Meningococcal septicaemia
D. Malignancy
82. In an accident there was rupture of the pituitary stalk. This would lead to all of the following except
A. Hyperprolactenimia
B. Diabetes Insipidus
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Diabetes Mellitus
83. In a patient with NIDDM which of the following is seen
A. Ketosis commonly occurs on stopping treatment
B. There are increased levels of insulin in blood
C. Pancreatic beta cells stop producing insulin
D. Hypercholestrolemia never occurs
84. Renal papillary necrosis is seen in all of the following except
A. Salicylates
B. Lupus nephritis
C. Vascular thrombosis
D. Diabetes Mellitus
85. A 40 year old chronic alcoholic has been brought to hospital by his sons in altered sensorium and lethargy. His blood sugar level was normal. I.V. fluid was given which resulted in loss of consciousness and convulsions. Treatment of choice is.
A. IV Vitamin B1
B. IV Dextrose 5%
C. Continue with IV normal saline
D. Continue with IV dextrose
86. In the treatment of syphilis which of the following is the best mode of follow up to ensure that the patient is responding to treatment
A. FTA-Abs
B. TPHA
C. TPI
D. VDRL
87. Munna 2-year old child was having Vitamin D resistant rickets. His serum Ca++ was 9 mg/dl, phosphate was 2.4mg/dl, alkaline phosphate 1041 IU and immunocytochemical studies showed parathormone to be 59 units. The probable diagnosis is
A. Hypophosphetemic rickets
B. Vitamin D dependant rickets
C. Hyperparathyroidim
D. Distal renal tubular acidosis
88. In a patient CVP and Intra arterial pressure were monitored. During the monitoring the patient suddenly developed an attack of supraventricular tachycardia. Changes seen in the pressure readings due to the effect of Tachycardia are
A. Increased CVP and decreased BP
B. Increased CVP and BP
C. Decreased CVP and increased BP
D. Decreased CVP and BP
89. A cardiologist asks for measurement of electromechanical systole QS2 and left ventricular ejection time LVET, and pre-ejection period. The technician doing the study informs the cardiologist that the carotid transducer measuring pressure is not functioning. Which of the following cannot be measured
A. QS2
B. LVET and PEP
C. QS2 and LVET
D. QS2 and PEP
90. In tumour lysis syndrome all of the following are seen except
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperphosphatemia
D. Hypernatremia
91. Which of the following is true regarding vascularity of lung
A. Hypoxia causes vasodilatation
B. Distended capillaries in lower lobe
C. Increased perfusion of apical lobe
D. Pulmonary resistance is half of the systemic vascular resistance
92. Foreign body aspiration in supine position commonly goes to
A. Apical lobe of right lung
B. Posterobasal segment of left lung
C. Apical segment of right lower lobe
D. Apical left lobe
93. Regarding hydatid cyst of lung which of the following is true
A. Always associated with hepatic cyst
B. In CT cystic lesion with hyperdence center is seen
C. More common in lower lobes than in the upper lobe
D. Never ruptures
94. A child was found to have pauci immune crescentic glomerulonephritis. The treatment to be given in this child is
A. Methylprednisolone
B. Prednisolone + cyclophosphamide
C. Immunoglobulins
D. Cyclophosphamide
95. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in
A. Renal failure
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Diarrhoea
D. Lactic acidosis
96. A 7-year child gave history fever for which she was treated with paracetamol following which the fever subsided. Later she developed seizures and altered sensorium. The urine examination revealed oxalate crystals on microscopy. Blood anion and osmolality gap were increased .The diagnosis is
A. Hantavirus
B. Diethylene glycol
C. Paracetamol poisoning
D. Renal tubular acidosis
97. Chondrocalcinosis is seen in which of the following conditions
A. Hypervitaminosis D
B. Hypoparathyroidism
C. Oochronosis
D. Rickets
98. Endogenous polypeptide causing hypocalcemia
A. Calcitonin
B. Calciferol
C. Parathormone
D. D-Cholecalciferol
99. ST elevation is seen in all of the following conditions except
A. Constrictive pericarditis
B. Ventricular aneurysm
C. Coronary artery spasm
D. MI
100. Which of the following physical signs is seen in a patient with severe aortic stenosis
A. Holosystolic murmur with late peak
B. Diastolic rumble
C. Opening snap
D. Delayed carotid upstroke
101. In a patient with myocardial infarction the valvular lesion commonly seen is
A. Mitral regurgitation
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Septal defect (VSD)
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102. A patient had an antero inferior myocardial infarction and was in shock. The reason for the patient being in shock is
A. Infarction causing septal defect
B. Right ventricular infarction
C. Decreased ejection fraction from left ventricle
D. Mitral regurgitation
103. In a patient vaccinated with Hepatitis B vaccine the serology would reveal
A. Anti IgM HBcAg
B. Anti HbsAg
C. Anti IgG HBcAg
D. Anti HbeAg
104. In a patient with compensated liver cirrhosis presented with history of variceal bleed. The treatment of choice in this patient is
A. Endoscopic sclerotherapy
B. Liver transplantation
C. TIPS (Trans jugular intrahepatic portal shunt)
D. Propranolol
105. A 50 yr old man presents with headache and weight loss. The most appropriate urine investigation is
A. 5 HIAA
B. Free catecholeamines
C. Thyroxin
D. TSH
106. A patient had undergone a renal transplantation 2 months back and now presented with difficulty breathing. X-ray showed bilateral diffuse interstial pneumonia. The probable etiologic agent would be
A. CMV
B. Herpes virus
C. Ebstein Barr virus
D. Varicella
107. In a 50 yr old man, probability of developing atherosclerosis is best monitored by serum level of
A. Total cholesterol
B. APO A
C. LDL/HDL ratio
D. Triglycerides
108. A Patient present with hemoptysis. FNAC of the lung lesion reveals neurosecretory granules. Most likely cause is
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Small cell carcinoma
C. Non-smal cell carcinoma
D. Bronchocarcinoma
109. Features to differentiate parathyroid adenoma from hyperplasia would include which of the following
A. Presence of excess chief cells
B. Infiltration of capsule
C. Identifying hyperplasia involving all 4 glands at surgey in parathyroid hyperplasia
D. High levels of parathormone
110. Asbestosis of the lung is associated with all of the following except
A. Progression of lesion even after stopping exposure to asbestos
B. Nodular fibrosing lesions involving upper lobe
C. Asbestos bodies in sputum
D. Mesothelioma
111. For comparison grading of pain the scale used is
A. Face’s scale
B. MacGill’s pain chart
C. CHEOPES
D. Numerical charts
112. A 13 yr old child was given radiotherapy for cervical Ependymomat. On follow-up he presents with excessive weight gain resulting in obesity. The cause for his weight gain is
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Steroid induced obesity
C. Hypothalamic lesion
D. Pan hypopitiutarism
113. A 10 year boy presented with polyuria , polydypsia Laboratory data showed (in meq) Na 154 , K 4.5 , serum osmolality 295 Bicarbonate 22 meq. Blood urea was 50 and specific gravity of urine 1.005. Diagnosis is
A. Diabetes Insipidus
B. Renal tubular acidosis
C. Recurrent UTI’s
D. Barters syndrome
114. A lady presented with bilateral nodular lesions on shins. She was also found to have bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on chest X-ray. Mantoux test reveals induration of 5 mms. Skin biopsy would reveal
A. Vasculitis
B. Non caeseating Granuloma
C. Caeseating Granuloma
D. Malignant cells
115. In a patient with ascending paralysis distributed symetrically, with proximal emphesis, there is subsequently respiratory muscle involvement. CSF examination showed albuminocytological dissociation. Treatment to be given is
A. Oral Prednisolone
B. IV methyl Prednisolone
C. IV immunoglobulins
D. Cyclosporin
116. Which of the following is associated with hypersensitive pneumonitis
A. Asbestosis
B. Bysinosis
C. Berylliosis
D. Silicosis
117. A young doctor was accidentally exposed by a needle stick injury while taking sample from a HIV positive patient. The prophylaxis to be given is
A. Zidovudine+Lamuvudine for 4 weeks
B. Zidovudine+Stamuvudine for 4 weeks
C. Ziduvudine+Lamuvudine+Nevirapine for 4 weeks
D. Ziduvudine +Lamuvudine +Indinavir for 4 weeks
118. Egg shell calcification is characteristically seen in
A. Silicosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Asbestosis
D. Beryliosis
119. A patient presenting with polyuria, pain abdomen, nausea , altered sensorium was found to have bronchogenic carcinoma. The electrolyte abnormality seen in him would be
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hyperkalemia
120. Posterior iliac horn is seen in
A. Bloom syndrome
B. Nail patella syndrome
C. Hurler syndrome
D. Marfan syndrome
PEDIATRICS
121. Most common cause of female pseudohermophroditism is
A. Ovarian dysgenesis
B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
C. Turners syndrome
D. PCOD
122. Most important association with rentrolental fibroplasia is
A. Intrauterine infection
B. Low birth weight
C. Meconium aspiration
D. Prolonged labour
123. A neonate with severe anaemia and hepatosplenomegaly died on 2nd day of birth. Most likely haemoglobinopahty is
A. Alpha thallessima
B. Homozygous Beta thallessemia
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. Sickle cell anaemia
124. A 10 yr old child presented with fever, hepatosplenomegaly, altered sensorium(encephalitis) and purpuric rash. BP was 90/60 mm Hg. Which of the following is indicated in the treatment
A. I/V Quinine
B. I/M Chloroquine
C. I/V Penicillin
D. I/V artesunate
125. A child presents with hypotonia and hyporeflexia. During its intrauterine period it had been seen that there was polyhydramnios and there was decreased foetal movements. The probable diagnosis is
A. Congenital myasthenia
B. Spinal muscular atrophy
C. Muscular dystrophy
D. Congenital Myotonia
126. In all of the following conditions, systemic blood flow depends upon patent ductus arteriosus except
A. Transposition of great vessels with intact septum
B. Truncus arteriosis
C. Obliterated aortic arch syndrome
D. Left ventricular hypoplasia
127. A newborn developed encephalitis and fever but there was no rash. Likely etiological agent is
A. Meningococci
B. Herpes type 2
C. Streptococcal infection
D. Herpes type 1 infection
128. Bad prognostic indicator in ALL is
A. Age greater then 1 year
B. Leukocyte count <50,000
C. Hypoploidy
D. Female sex
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PSYCHIATRY
129. A 55-year old bank officer gives a 10-year history that he suspects his neighbours and he feels that whenever he passes by they sneeze and plan against behind his back. He feels that his wife has been replaced by a double and calls police for help. He is quite well groomed, alert, occasionally consumes alcohol. The likely diagnosis is
A. Paranoid personality
B. Paranoid schizophrenia
C. Alcoholic hallucinations
D. Dementia
130. A 66-year-old lady is brought in by her 6 children saying that she has gone senile. Six months after her husbands death she has become more religious, spiritual and gives lot money in donation. She is occupied in too many activities and sleeps less. She now believes that she has a goal to change the society. She does not like being brought to the hospital and is argumentative on being questioned on her doings. The diagnosis is
A. Manic excitement
B. Brief reaction
C. Dementia
D. Depression
131. A teacher complains that a 9-year-old child does not pay attention in the class, gets distracted very fast and also disturbs and distracts the other students. The diagnosis is
A. Autism
B. Attention deficit hyperkinetic disease
C. Conduct disorder
D. Deafness
132. A patient is brought with a 6 months history of odd behaviour. There is a history of a family member having disappeared some years back. He seems to be talking to himself and sometimes muttering to himself loudly. avoiding other people. The most probable diagnosis is
A. Depression
B. Schizophrenia
C. Paranoia
D. Mania
133. In an earthquake a year back, many family members and friends of a person died but was saved. But that person still gets dreams of that earthquake which wake him at night. He feels guilty about his survival. The most like condition is
A. Posttraumatic stress disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Depression
D. Psychosis
ANAESTHESIA
134. In a patient with air embolism all of the following are true except
A. TEE (transesophageal echo) is the most sensitive investigation
B. It should be measured over a continous cycle
C. It can calculate the volume of the air
D. It interferes with Doppler readings when they are used together
SKIN & VD
135. A 23 yr. old female presents with multiple,nodulocystic lesions over face & upper trunk. The treatment would include
A. Retinoids
B. Antibiotics
C. Steroids
D. Methotrexate
136. A 60 yr old lady presented with erythematous and itchy lesion below her right breast folds. On examination it was found to have well formed ring scales. The diagnosis is
A. Candida
B. Trichophyton rubrum
C. Pityrosporum ovale
D. Bacterial infection
137. Wood lamp examination is done for diagnosis of
A. Psoriasis
B. T. capitus
C. Varicella
D. Lichan planus
138. In a patient presenting with well defined rash with scaly and erythematous lesions over the elbows and the knees. Which of the following is a bedside test for provisional diagnosis of the illness
A. Tzank smear
B. Auspitz sign
C. Split skin smear
D. Examination under KOH solution.
139. Treatment of pustular psoriasis is
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Thalidomide
C. Retinoids
D. Steroids (Prednisolone)
SURGERY
140. All of the following are true regarding warthins tumour except
A. A. Treatment is superficial parotidectomy
B. 10% are bilateral & commonly involve the parotid glands
C. They arise from the epithelial and the lymphoid cells
D. Two times more common in females
141. Gene associated with Head and Neck cancer is
A. P43
B. P53
C. P73
D. P83
142. In a patient presenting with a swelling of the thyroid, the radionuclide scan showed a cold nodule and the ultrasound showed a non cystic solid mass. The management of this patient would be
A. Lobectomy
B. Hemithyroidectomy
C. Altroxin
D. Radio Iodine therapy
143. A female patient presented with a firm mass of 2*2 cms in the upper outer quadrant of the breast. She gives a family history of ovarian carcinoma .The investigation that needs to be done to assess for mutation in
A. BRCA2
B. Her2/Neu gene
C. Ras
D. C-myc gene
144. Most common site for Insulinoma is
A. Head
B. Body
C. Tail
D. Same incidence through out pancreas
145. A patient operated for thyroid surgery for a thyroid swelling later in the evening developed difficulty in breathing. There was swelling in the neck. The immediate management would be
A. IV calcium gluconate
B. Open the wound sutures in the ward
C. Epinephrine inj
D. Tracheostomy
146. In Video assisted thoracoscopic surgery for better vision the space in the operative field is created by
A. Co2 insufflation
B. Collapse of ipsilateral lung
C. Rib spacing
D. Self retaining thorasic retractor
147. Most common tumour producing cervical lymph nodes enlarement is
A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B. Ca Base of tongue
C. Ca Glottis
D. Ca Stomuch
148. A patient presented with a 1 by 1.5 cms growth on the lateral border of the tongue. The treatment indicated in management of this patient is
A. Laser ablation
B. External beam radiotherapy
C. Interstitial Brachytherapy
D. Chemotherapy and Radiotherapy
149. A patient presented with a 3.5 cms size lymph node enlargement, which was hard and present in the submandibular region. Examination of the head and neck did not yield any lesion. The next investigation to be done in this patient is
A. Triple endoscopy
B. Supra vital oral mucosal staining
C. Chest X ray
D. Laryngoscopy
150. A 40 year old man presents with chronic discharging multiple sinuses on his left foot. Examination of pus reveals black coloured granules. Most likly content of granules are
A. Pus cells
B. Fungal colonies
C. Inflammatory cells
D. Sulphur granules
151. A 40 year old man presents with multiple chronic discharging sinus. Many antibiostics have been tried but are not effective to control the pus. Culture of pus for bateria did not yeild any growth. Most likly organism is
A. Nocardia
B. Actino-madura
C. Sporothrix
D. Madurella mycetoma
152. Actinic keratosis predisposes to which of the following lesions commonly
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Freckles
153. Lateral aberrant thyroid implies
A. Congenital thyroid abnormality
B. Metastatic foci from primary
C. Lingual thyroid
D. Developmental anomaly
154. Most common site for parathyroid adenoma is
A. Superior parathyroid lobe
B. Inferior parathyroid lobe
C. In the mediastinum
D. In the thyroid
ORTHOPEDICS
155. In a patient with medial epicondyle fracture of humerus, nerve injury will result all of the following except
A. Weakness of adduction of fingers
B. Ulnar deviation and wrist flexion affected
C. Complete paralysis of 3rd and 4th digits
D. Sensory loss over hypothenar eminense
156. The most common site of admantinoma of the long bones is
A. Fibula
B. Tibia
C. Ulna
D. Femur
157. Chondroblastoma of the femur commonly occur at
A. Epiphysis
B. Metaphysis
C. Diaphysis
D. Metadiaphysis
158. An 8-year boy presented with pain in the arm. X ray of the humerus demonstrated an expansile lesion in the metaphysis with break in the cortex. The likely diagnosis is
A. Chondroblastoma
B. Unicameral bone cyst
C. Aneurysmal bone cyst
D. Osteoclastoma
159. Which of the following is prone to injury during torsion of the knee
A. Meniscus
B. Collateral ligament
C. Anterior cruciate ligament
D. Posterior cruciate ligament
160. Twisting force in the flexed knee would result in injury to all of the following except
A. Medial Meniscus
B. Joint capsule
C. Anterior cruciate ligament
D. Fibular collateral ligament
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EYE
161. A patient presented with a 15 days history of proptosis in his right eye .His vision was found to be 6/12 in that eye, and he complained of pain on eye movement. There was difficulty in upward and downward gaze movements. Ultrasound and CT scans showed a cystic lesion with hyperdense opacity in superior oblique muscle. The diagnosis is
A. Cysticercosis cellulosae
B. Dermoid
C. Hemangioma
D. Retinoblastoma
162. The oldest cells in a lens are present in
A. Anterior capsule
B. Posterior capsule
C. Nucleocortical junction
D. Nucleus
163. Which is the best rinsing solution that can be used in the extra capsular cataract extraction
A. Ringer lactate
B. Normal saline
C. Balanced salt solution
D. Balanced salt solution with glutathione
164. Recurrent chalazion is predisposed to develop
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Sebaceous cell carcinoma
165. Flourescein angiography is used to identify lesions in all of the following except
A. Retina
B. Iris
C. Lens
D. Optic nerve head
166. Protonopia is inability to see which colour
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Yellow
167. Which of the following is associated with uvietis
A. Still ‘s disease
B. Pauciarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
C. Polyarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
168. When the axial length of the eyeball is changed by 1 mm then the power changes by
A. 1 dioptres
B. 2 dioptres
C. 3 dioptres
D. 4 dioptres
169. Chandresh a 15 yr old boy presents with complaints of pain, photophobia, and blurring after trauma to his eye with a vegetative foreign body. On examination of cornea there was a dendritic ulcer. The corneal scrapings were taken and examined, microscopy showed macrophage like cells while culture over chocolate agar and blood agar showed no growth. But on culturing over 5% non-nutrient agar with an overlay of E.coli results plaque formations. The likely etiological agent is
A. Acanthameaba
B. Herpes simplex
C. Adeno virus
D. Candida
170. Horner’s syndrome is best explained as having
A. Miosis and Exopthalmos
B. Miosis and ptosis
C. Mydriasis and enophthalmos
D. Miosis and ptosis
171. Lesion of the Meyers loop of optic radiation causes
A. Homonymous heminaopia
B. Superior quadrantionopia
C. Central scotoma
D. Bilateral hemianopia
172. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia results due to lesion at the level of
A. Lateral lemniscus
B. Medial longitudinal fasciculus
C. Parapontine reticular fibres
D. Occipital lobes
ENT
173. In a patient with multiple bilateral nasal polyps with x ray showing opacity in the paranasal sinuses .The treatment consists of all of the following except
A. Antihistamines
B. Intrnasal corticosteroids
C. Amphoterecin B
D. Epinephrine
174. An 18-year-old boy presented with repeated epistaxis and there was a mass arising from the lateral wall of his nose extending into the nasopharynx. All of the following are treatment modalities for this case except
A. Requires adequate amount of blood to be transfused
B. Lateral rhinotomy
C. Transpalatal approach used
D. Transmaxillary approach
175. Lokuram, a 56 yr old man presents with complaint of hoarseness of voice. Laryngeal biopsy was taken and it revealed pachydermis laryngis. All of the following are true except
A. It is a hyperkeratotic lesion on anterior 2/3rd of the vocal cords
B. It is not a premalignant condition
C. Diagnosis is made by biopsy
D. On microscopy it shows acanthosis and hyperkeratosis
176. A 40 yrs old male presents with one month history of stridor, after an attack of upper respiratory tract infection. On examination he was found to have a 3mm glottic chink. All of the following are treatment modalities for him except
A. Tracheostomy
B. External arytenoidopexy
C. Teflon injection
D. Cordectomy
177. Phlep's sign is seen in
A. Glomus jugulare
B. Vestibular shwanoma
C. Menniers disease
D. Globus tympanicus
178. Citelli’s angle is
A. Cerebellopontine angle
B. Dural sinus angle
C. Solid angle
D. Part of Mac Evans triangle
GYNAE-OBST.
179. If the mother is infected with hepatitis B virus and is HbsAG positive at 32 weeks of pregnancy. To prevent neonatal infection which of the following needs to be given to the newborn
A. Hepatitis B vaccine
B. Human immunoglobulins
C. Hepatitis B vaccine + Immunoglobulins
D. Igs followed by vaccine 1 month later if HbsAG negative
180. All of the following are used in post coital contraception except
A. Danazol
B. Levonorgestrol
C. Ethinyl estradiol
D. Mefiprestone
181. In the management of post partum haemorrhage all of the following can be used except
A. Ergometrine
B. Carboprost
C. Misoprostol
D. Mefiprestone
182. Highest rate of canalisation after ligation is seen in
A. Pomeroys technique
B. Irwinne’s technique
C. Laproscopic placement of sialatic bands
D. Laproscopic placement of Hulka clips
183. All of the following can be diagnosed using pap smear except
A. Gonococcal infection
B. Human papilloma virus
C. CIN
D. Inflammatory changes
184. Examination of cervix with acetic acid staining would detect all of the following except
A. Cervical polyp
B. Squamous metaplasia
C. Carcinoma in situ
D. Cervical erosion
185. On performing per vaginal examination the fingers could feel the anterior fontanelle and the superior orbital ridges. The presentation is
A. Vertex
B. Brow
C. Face
D. Deflexed head
186. Hysteroscopy is useful in all of the following except
A. Uterine didelphis (Congenital uterine anamoly)
B. Infertility
C. Still births
D. Unknown vaginal bleeding (Metrorrhagia???)
187. A full term baby exclusively breast fed, at the end of 1 week was passing golden yellow soft stools after each feed. He was found to be have adequate hydration and with no abnormality on systemic examination. The weight of the neonate at the end of 1 week is just the same as it was at birth, the paediatrician should now advise
A. Start top feeds
B. Oral solutions along with breast-feeding
C. Investigate for late lactic acidosis
D. Reassure the mother that there is nothing abnormal
188. If the mother has been exposed to Dethyl stibesterol during pregnancy. All of the following features may be seen the female child after birth except
A. Vaginal adenosis
B. Malformation of the vagina and uterus
C. Microglandular hyperplasia
D. Clear cell carcinoma
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189. Transient tachypnea of newborn (TTN) is seen in
A. Full term requiring ceasarian section
B. Term requiring forceps
C. Term requiring venthouse
D. Premature with vaginal delivery
190. All of the following are associated with the use of DMPA except
A. Cyclic bleeding
B. Change in quantity and quality of breast milk
C. Cyclic bleeding altered
D. Increased reproductive tract infection
191. Danazol is used in the treatment of
A. Breast cysts
B. Cyclic mastalgia
C. Acyclyic mastalgia
D. Fibrous tumour
192. When chorionic villous biopsy is done before ten weeks it causes which of the following adverse effects
A. Fetomaternal haemorrhage
B. Cardiac defects
C. Limb defects
D. Renal defects
193. In a patient with red degeneration all of the following are true except
A. It occurs as its outgrows its blood supply
B. It presents with pain abdomen and nausea
C. Surgery is required in treatment
D. It occurs only during pregnancy
194. A 36-yr old, Sindhi lady has 2 issues of 5 & 6 yrs presented with a history of ammenorrhea and galactorrhea over the past 12 months. The likely diagnosis is
A. Pregnancy
B. Pituitary tumour
C. Sheehans syndrome
D. Hypothyroidism
195. If the mother develops chicken pox, during which part of the pregnancy will it lead to highest chance of neonatal infection
A. 12-16 weeks
B. Last 5 days of pregnancy
C. 24-32 weeks
D. 8-12 weeks
196. To say twin dyscordance the difference in birth weight of two twins should be
A. 25% with the larger twin as index
B. 15% with the smaller twin as index
C. 25% with the smaller twin as index
D. 15% with the larger twin as index
RADIOLOGY
197. In left atrium enlargement, which of the following is not seen
A. Elevation of the left bronchus
B. Double atrial shadow
C. Kink in the esophagus on Barium swallow
D. Obliteration of retrosternal shadow on lateral x ray
198. HIDA scan is useful in investigation of
A. Biliary atresia
B. Bile duct carcinoma
C. Choledocholitihiasis
D. Benign stricture
199. A patient with solitary pulmonary nodule. The best investigation to come to a diagnosis would be
A. MRI
B. CT scan
C. Chest X-ray
D. Imaging guided FNAC
200. Parameningeal Rhabdomyosarcoma is best diagnosed by
A. MRI
B. HRCT
C. SPECT Scan
D. CECT
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