AIIMS
November 2007 Questions
1)
All of the following are
sources of Ω-3 PUFA except:
a. Mustard oil
b. Groundnut oil
c. Corn oil
d. Fish oil
2)
Violent inversion of the
foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of the following muscle attched to the tuberosity of the
5th metatarsal:
a. Peroneus brevis
b. Peroneus longus
c. Peroneus tertius
d. Extensor digitorum brevis
3)
Kanavel’s sign is seen in:
a. Tenosynovitis
b. Dupuyteren’s contracture
c. Carpal tunnel syndrome
d. Trigger finger
4)
Staging of bone tumours is done by:
a. Enneking
b.
c.
d. TNM
5)
Post-operative radiotherapy
in a patient operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated
in all of the following except:
a. Deep myometrial invasion
b. Pelvic lymph node involvement
c. Enlarged uterine cavity
d. Poor tumour differentiation
6)
When stem cell transforms
to form other tissues, the process is called as:
a. Dedifferentiation
b. Redifferentiation
c. Transdifferentiation
d. Subdifferentiation
7)
‘Egg-on-side’ appearance on
X-ray chest is seen in:
a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Uncorrected TGA
c. Tricuspid atresia
d. Ebstein’s anomaly
8)
All are essential
components of TOF except:
a. Valvular pulmonic
stenosis
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Infundibular stenosis
d. Aorta overriding
9)
a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Tuberculosis
c. Bronchogenic Ca
d. ..
10) All of the following can be used for thromboprophylaxis
except:
a. Heparin
b. Aspirin
c. Warfarin
d. Antithrombin-III
11) ECG was shown. 70 year old man with no prefious
significant medical history presenting with sudden onset syncope. Most likely
diagnosis is:
a. Vasovagal shock
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Complete heart block
d. Temporal lobe epilepsy
12) Uppermost structure seen at the hilus
of the left lung is:
a. Pulmonary artery
b. Pulmonary vein
c. Bronchus
d. Bronchial artery
13) The best investigation to rule out thromboembolism
is:
a. D-dimer levels
b.
c. Colour Doppler USG
d. Intracatheter angiography
14) Hypercalcemia is caused by all except:
a.
b. Lithium
c. Vitamin D intoxication
d. ..
15) Nephelometry is:
a. Lambert-Beer law
b. Scattering of light by particulate solution
c. Defraction of light
d. Decreased intensity of light
16) Most common site of spinal cord tumour
is:
a. Intradural
extramedullary
b. Extradural
c. Intramedullary
d. All have equal distribution
17) Extensive involvement of deep white matter with hyperintense thalamic lesion on MRI of the brain is seen
in:
a. Alexander’s disease
b. Krabbe’s ds.
c. Canavan’s ds
d. Metachromatic leucodystrophy
18) A 2-year old child presents with scattered lesions in the skull.
Biopsy revealed Langerhans giant cells. Most commonly
associated is:
a. CD1a
b. CD57
c. CD3
d. CD68
19) A patient is posted for elective surgery. Which of the following
drugs should be stopped on the day of surgery:
a. Atenolol
b. Amlodepine
c. Statins
d. Metformin
20) Which of the following is not included in intensive management
of diabetes mellitus:
a. Pregnancy..
b. Postural hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy
c. DM
with acute MI
d. Post kidney transplant
21) VHL syndrome includes all except:
a. Endolymphatic sac tumours
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Hemangioendotheliomas
d. Islet cell tumours
22) All but one acts via GABAA except:
a. Thiopentone
b. Midazolam
c. Zolpidem
d. Promethazine
23) Which of the following is not used as a sedative,but causes sedation as a side effect:
a. Digitalis,anti-arrhythmics
b. Antihistaminics,antidepressants
c. Macrolides,…
d. ..
24) Caspases
are involved in:
a. Apoptosis
b. ..
c. ..
d. ..
25) Reye’s syndrome is ultrastructurally
characterized by:
a. Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria
b. Depletion of glycogen
c. Dilatation of the endoplasmic reticulum
d. Perinuclear staining
26) Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to:
a. Brachyury gene
b. BMPR-4
c. Nodal gene
d. FGF-8
27) HACEK group includes all except:
a. Hemophilus aprophillus
b. Acinetobacter baumanni
c. Eikenella corrodens
d. Cardiobacterium hominis
28) All are true about Thiopentone except:
a. NaCO3 is a preservative
b. Contraindicated in Porphyrias
c. Agent of choice in shock
d. Cerebroprotective
29) All regarding Mivacurium are true
except:
a. Larger doses speed the onset of action
b. Bronchospasm
c.
d. Hypertension
30) A male patient with symptoms of urethritis.
Examination reveals only pus cells but no organisms. Lesions are caused mostly by:(do not remember the exact question but it was a straight
forward question):
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. H.ducreyi
c. Treponema pallidum
d. ..
31) Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done by using:
a. M protein
b. Group C peptidoglycan cell
wall
c. Group C carbohydrate antigen
d. ..
32) Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by:
a. Propofol
b. Ketamine
c. Atracurium
d. Fentanyl
33) Marker for acute Hepatitis B is:
a. HBV-DNA polymerase
b. IgG anti-HBc
c. Core antigen (HbcAg)
d. Anti-HbsAg
34) Ulnar
injury in the arm leads to all except:
a. Sensory loss of the medial 1/3rd of the hand
b. Weakness of the hypothenar
muscles
c. Claw hand
d. Adduction of thumb
35) After fracture of the penis ( injury to
the tunica albugenia) with intact Buck’s fascia,
there occurs hematoma at:
a. The penis and scrotum
b. At the perineum in a butterfly shape
c. Penis, scrotum, perineum and lower part of anterior
abdominal wall
d. Shaft of the penis only.
36) Floating ‘Water-Lily’ sign is seen in:
a. Hydatid ds.
b. Aspergillosis
c. Tuberculous cavity
d. cavitating metastases
37) Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix
will produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip:
a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Medial rotation
d. Lateral rotation
38) Left renal vein crosses the Aorta:
a. Anteriorly, above the
superior mesenteric artery
b. Anteriorly, below the
superior mesenteric artery
c. Posteriorly, at the level of
superior mesenteric artery
d. Anteriorly, below the
inferior mesenteric artery
39) Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary
artery, blood flow is maintained by anastomosis
between:
a. Anterior and posterior circumflex humoral
artery
b. Suprascapular and posterior
circumflex artery
c. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery
d. Anterior circumflex artery and subscapular
artery
40) In post-ductal coarctation
of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs in maintained by increased blood
flow through:
a. Inferior Phrenic and pericardiophrenic vessels
b. Intercostal and
c. Subcostal and Umbilical
d. …
41) Which of the following is correctly matched:
a. B cells – Somatostain
b. D cells – Insulin
c. G cells – Gastrin
d. …..
42) Exercise causes:
a. Increased blood flow to the
muscles after half minute of minute
b. Increase in cerebral blood flow due to increase in
systolic blood pressure
c. Body temperature rise
d. …
43) All of the following occur when the blood flows through the systemic
capillaries except:
a. Increase in hematocrit
b. Hb curve shifts to the left
c. Increased protein content
d. Decrease in pH
44) When a person changes position from standing to lying down
position, following occurs:
a. Heart rate increases and settles at a higher level
b. Venous return to the heart rises immediately
c. Cerebral blood flow becomes more than that in standing
position and settles at a higher level
d. Decrease in blood flow to the lung apex
45) In mitral valve prolapse, the
histological finding is:
a. Hyalinization of the valve
b. Fibrinoid necrosis
c. Myxomatous degeneration of
the valve
d. ..
46) Regarding flourosis all are true
except:
a. Flourosis is the most common
cause of dental caries in children
b. Deposition of fluorides occurs in the skeletal system
and muscles
c. Deflouridation is done by Nalgonda technique
d. Genu valgum
47) SAFE strategy is recommended for:
a. Trachoma
b. Glaucoma
c. Diabetic retinopathy
d. Cataract
48) Telefona
is:
a. Beating on the feet ( soles )
b. Pulling of hair
c. Beating on both the ears
d. ..
49) A female patient presents with diffuse alopecia to you. She had
suffered from typhoid fever 4 months back. Most probable diagnosis is:
a. Androgenetic alopecia
b. Telogen effluvium
c. Anagen effluvium
d. Alopecia areata
50) All of the following are causes of cicatrizing alopecia except:
a. Lichen planus
b. Discoid lupus erythematosus
c. Alopecia areata
d. Lupus vulgaris
51) Learning does not include:
a. Modelling
b. Catharsis
c. Exposure
d. Sensitization
52) In death due to asphyxia, last to be opened is:
a. Head
b. Neck
c. Thorax
d. Abdomen
53) Acridine
orange is used as a stain for:
a. DNA and RNA
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrate
d. Lipids
54) PAS does not stain:
a. Fungal cell wall
b. Basement membrane of bacteria
c. Glycogen
d. Lipids
55) Not used to stain fats:
a. Oil red O
b. Congo red
c. Sudan III
d.
56) Peroxidase
is used to detect:
a. Glucose
b. Ammonia
c. Hemoglobin
d. Creatinine
57) Hemoglobin estimation is not done by:
a. Drabkin’s method
b. Sahli’s method
c. Spectrometry
d. Wintrobe’s method
58) All of the following are included in grievous hurt except:
a. Loss of testis
b. Loss of eye
c. Loss of kidney
d. Abrasion of the face
59) Seen in agenesis of corpus callosum
is:
a. Astereognosis
b. Hemiparesis
c. Hemisensoriloss
d. No neurological deficit
60) Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen
in all except:
a. renal artery stenosis
b. End stage renal disease
c. Cushing’s disease
d. Primary hyperaldosteronism
61) Hyperglycemia is caused by all except:
a. Beta blockers
b. Glucocorticoids
c. ..
d. ..
62) Cushing’s disease includes all except:
a. Central obesity
b. Episodic hypertension
c. Easy bruisability
d. Glucose intolerance
63) True about Ogilive’s syndrome are all
except:
a. It is caused by mechanical obstruction of the colon
b. It involves entire / part of the large colon
c. It occurs after previous surgery
d. It occurs commonly after narcotic use
64) One of the following is the watershed area of the colon between
the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries:
a. Ascending colon
b. Hepatic flexure
c. Splenic flexure
d. Descending colon
65) Regarding Phenytoin,false
is:
a. Induces microsomal enzymes
b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs
c. Higher the dose,higher is the
half life
d. Highly protein bound
66) Anti-emetic with most affinity for 5-HT3 is:
a. Ondansetron
b. Granisetron
c. Dolasetron
d. Pavalosetron
67) Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except:
a. Factor VIII
b. Factor IX
c. Von Willebrand factor
d. Fibrinogen
68) Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the following except:
a. Tacrolimus
b. Metformin
c. Cyclosporine
d. Phenytoin
69) Not a measure of central tendency:
a. Mode
b. Range
c. Variable
d. Standard deviation
70) Asherman’s
syndrome is diagnosed by all except:
a. HSG
b. Hysteroscopy
c. Endometrial culture
d. Saline infusion USG
71) Used for the treatment of migraine, the triptans
act through:
a. 5HT-1A
b. 5HT-1B
c. 5HT-1F
d. 5HT-3
72) True about protease inhibitors are all except:
a. Acts as a substrate for P-glycoprotein(P-gp) and action is mediated by mdr-1 gene
b. Hepatic oxidative metabolism
c. All protease inhibitors interfere with metabolism by
drug interactions
d. Saquinavir causes maximum
induction of CYP3A4
73) Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to:
a. Subphrenic abscess
b. CO2 narcosis
c. Positioning of the patient
d. Compression of the lung
74) The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is:
a. Thayer-martin
b. TCBS medium
c. Scirrow’s medium
d. ..
75) Primary impact injury is seen externally most commonly in the:
a. Head
b. Chest
c. Legs
d. Abdomen
76) In tandem [bleep], the number of [bleep] fired are:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
77) For biochemical analysis vitrous in
sent in:
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Phenol
c. Formalin
d. Fluoride
78) The best agent used for fixation of Pap smear is:
a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Acetone
c. Formalin
d. Xylol
79) Blood spills on the floor are cleaned by:
a. Sodium hypochlorite
b. Iodine
c. Absolute alcohol
d. Quarternary ammonium
compounds
80) Which of the following person is present in a sub centre:
a. Multipurpose worker
b. Laboratory technician
c. Health educator
d. Medical officer
81) True about dietary allowance are all except:
a. Adequate intake
b. RDA
c. Dietary intake according to food composition
d. Food intake according to the upper limit of the RDA
82) Most common type of seizures in neonates are:
a. Clonic
b. Tonic
c. Subtle
d. Myoclonic
83) Gall bladder epithelium is:
a. Simple squamous
b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia
c. Simple columnar
d. Simple columnar with brush border
84) After laparoscopic appendicectomy, a
female patient slipped and hurt her nose on the bed. She developed swelling of
the nose, injury to anterior nasal bone and had mild difficulty in breathing.
What would you do next?
a. Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days
b. Observation in hospital
c. Surgical drainage
d. Discharge after 2 days and follow up of the patient
after 8 weeks
85) A 3-year old girl is posted for tonsillectomy. On examination it
is found that she has a midline cystic swelling extending till below the hyoid
bone. It is painless and moves with deglutition. The thyroid examination is
normal. What should be done next?
a. Percutaneous aspiration
b. I.V. antibiotics
c. Surgical removal
d. Observation
86) Metabolic alkalosis is seen in:
a. Mineralocortoid excess
b. Increased excretion of base
c. Decreased secretion of H+ ion
d. Deficiency of mineralocorticoids
87) Goniometry is measurement of:
a. Number of gonococci
b. Length of the genital hiatus
c. Urethrovesical angle
d. amount of secretions
88) Good Clinical Practices (GCPs) are not a part of:
a. Preclinical studies
b. Phase I studies
c. Phase II studies
d. Phase IV studies
89) A 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea,
weight loss and milky discharge from the pages . Most
likely diagnosis is:
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Occult carcinoma
c. Hypothyroidism
d. HIV
90) Mirena is:
a. Used in abortion
b. Anti-progesterone
c. Progesterone IUCD
d. Hormonal implant
91) Bisphosphonates are not used in:
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Osteoporosis
c. Cancer
d. Vitamin D intoxication
92) True about vitiligo are all except:
a. Topical steroids give good results
b. Genetic predisposition
c. PUVA-B is used for the treatment
d. Leukotrichia is associated
with good prognosis
93) In osteomalacia, all are true except:
a. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase
b. Increased serum calcium
c. Looser’s zones
d. Proximal myopathy
94) In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is:
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
95) FNAC needle gauge size is:
a. 26 – 28
b. 22 – 26
c. 18 – 22
d. 16 – 18
96) Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure
in the mid-axillary line:
a. Innermost intercostals
b. Transverses thoracis
c. External intercostals
d. Internal intercostals
97) Dangerous area of the face is:
a. Ciliary body
b. Sclera
c. Optic nerve
d. Retina
98) [snip]. PCR requires:
a. Li++
b. Ca++
c. Na++
d. Mg++
99) Urothelium
does not line:
a. Collecting ducts
b. Minor calyx
c. Ureter
d. Urinary bladder
100)
Ureteric peristalsis is due to:
a. Sympathetic innervation
b. Parasympathetic innervation
c. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation
d. Pacemaker activity of the smooth muscle cells in the
renal pelvis
101)
Uterine relaxant with the
least side effect:
a. Ritodrine
b. MgSO4
c. Nifedipine
d. Progesterone
102)
Primary Pulmonary
Hypertension is caused by all except:
a. Hyperventilation
b. Morbid obesity
c. Fenfluramine
d. High altitude
103)
Most common site of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas
is:
a. Foramen of Monro
b. Temporal horn of the lateral ventricle
c. Trigone of the lateral
ventricle
d. Fourth ventricle
104)
According to Couinaud’s classification the 4th segment of the liver is:
a. Caudate lobe
b. Quadrate lobe
c. Left lobe
d. Right lobe
105)
If the circumflex artery
gives off the posterior interventricular artery, then
the arterial supply is called:
a. Right dominance
b. Left dominance
c. Balanced dominance
d. ..
106)
Not a feature of DKA is:
a. Tachypnoea
b. Bradycardia
c. Abdominal pain
d. Dehydration
107)
In Down’s syndrome, false
is:
a. Increased PAPP-A
b. Increased β-HCG
c. Absent nasal bone
d. Reversal of diastolic blood flow
108)
With CSF all are true
except:
a. Persistent leakage causes headache
b. Neutrophils are normally not
present
c. pH is less than that of blood
d. Secreted by the arachnoid villi
109)
Fractional excretion of
Na++ < 1% is seen in:
a. Pre-renal azotemia
b. ATN
c. Intrinsic renal failure
d. Renal artery stenosis
110)
Scrub typhus is transmitted
by:
a. Reduvid bug
b. Trombiculid mite
c. Enteric pathogens
d. Cyclops
111)
Kala-azar,
vector is:
a. Flea
b. Tsetse fly
c. Sand fly
d. ..
112)
Regarding genital
development, true is:
a. Y chromosome is associated with ovary development
b. Genital ridge starts developing at 5th week
c. Male genitals develop earlier than female genitals
d. Genital development is complete by 10th week
113)
Transparency of the cornea
is maintained by all except:
a. Mitotic figures in the central cornea
b. Wide separated collagen bands
c. Hydration
d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers
114)
Regarding furosemide, true is:
a. Given by parenteral route
only
b. Used in pulmonary oedema
c. Acts at the PCT
d. ..
115)
Basement membrane consists
of all except:
a. Laminin
b. Nidogenin
c. Entactin
d. Rhodopsin
116)
Thiazides cause all except:
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Increased calcium excretion
c. Increased uric acid excretion
d. Useful in congestive heart failure
117)
Fast axonal transport is by
all except:
a. Dynenin
b. Kinesin
c. Microfilaments
d. Neurofilaments
118)
Most common tumor is NF-1
is:
a. Astrocytoma
b. Optic tract glioma
c. Glioblastoma multiforme
d. ..
119)
Regarding type A
personality, false is:
a. Hostility
b. Time pressure
c. Competitiveness
d. Mood fluctuations
120)
Not included in the
National Immunisation Programme
is:
a. Tetanus toxoid
b. Hepatitis B
c. BCG
d. Measles
121)
Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen in all except:
a. PNH
b. Megaloblastic anaemia
c. Myelodysplastic anaemia
d. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anaemia
122)
In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except:
a. Isthmus of the thyroid
b. Inferior thyroid artery
c. Thyroidea ima
d. Inferior thyroid vein
123)
A newborn female child,
weight 3.5kg, delivered by uncomplicated delivery, developed respiratory
distress immediately after birth. On chest x-ray ground glass appearance was
seen. Baby put on mechanical ventilation and was give surfactant but condition
of baby deteriorates and increasing hypoxemia was present. A full term female
‘sibling’ died within a week with the same complaints. ECHO is normal. Usual
cultures are negative. Your diagnosis is:
a. Total anomalous pulmonary vein connection
b. Meconium aspiration syndrome
c. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
d. Disseminated HSV infection
124)
All are characteristics of
schizophrenia except:
a. Third person auditory hallucinations
b. Inappropriate emotions
c. Long stretches of mood changes
d. Formal thought disorder
125)
Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to defect in:
a. β2 – microglobulin
b. Transthyretin
c. AANF
d. Pyrin
126)
Perforators are not present
at the:
a. Ankle
b. Distal calf
c. Mid thigh
d. Below the inguinal ligament
127)
Increase in maternal serum
AFP levels is seen in:
a. Down’s syndrome
b. Molar pregnancy
c. Over estimated gestational age
d. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome
128)
The ‘c’-waves in JVP are
due to:
a. Atrial contraction
b. Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium
c. Ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed
d. ..
129)
Tongue develops from:
a. Occipital somites
b. Mesoderm of the pharyngeal pouch
c. Cervical somites
d. ..
130)
Prions consist of:
a. DNA and RNA
b. DNA, RNA and proteins
c. RNA and proteins
d. Only proteins
131)
Polyhydramnios is associated with all except:
a. ..
b. ..
c. Bilateral renal agenesis
d. ..
132)
Shock lung is characterized
histologically by:
a. Diffuse alveolar oedema
b. Hemosiderosis
c. Interstitial pneumonia
d. Pulmonary oedema
133)
Regarding respiratory
viruses all are true except:
a. RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis
in infants
b. Mumps causes septic meningitis in adults
c. ..
d. ..
134)
Internal Podalic Version done in cases of transeverse
lie is associated with the following complication:
a. Uterine rupture
b. Vaginal laceration
c. Uterine atony
d. Cervical laceration
135)
In a patient with post partum
hemorrhage with rheumatic heart disease, which is contraindicated:
a. Misoprostol
b. Methyl ergometrine
c. Oxytocin
d. carboprost
136)
A patient presents with
Carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the
left aryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true
cords. Treatment of choice is:
a. Vertical hemilaryngectomy
b. Horizontal hemilaryngectomy
c. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
d. Total laryngectomy
137)
True about Benzodiazepines
as compared to other hypnotics is:
a. They alter sleep pattern more
than other hypnotics
b. More sedative than other hypnotics
c. Overdose is better tolerated compared to other
hypnotics
d. ..
138)
A gravida3 female with a
history of 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks of gestation
with funneling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be:
a. Administer Dinoprostone and
bed rest
b. Administer Mifepristone and
bed rest
c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch
d. Apply McDonald’s stitch
139)
A female come with
complaints of chest pain.On examination she is found
to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The
pain is mediated by:
a. Deep cardiac plexus
b. Superficial cardiac plexus
c. Phrenic nerve
d. Subcostal nerve
140)
The mechanism of action of
surfactant is:
a. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli
b. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion
c. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic
d. ..
141)
A 12 year old girl presents
with Acute rheumatic carditis
with mitral insufficiency. She is likely to have:
a. Increased peak expiratory flow
b. Increased total lung capacity
c. Increased residual volume
d. Decreased functional residual capacity
142)
Bicarbonate is maximally
absorbed from:
a. PCT
b. DCT
c. Collecting duct
d. Thick ascending loop of Henle
143)
Feature of Irreversible
cell injury is:
a. Amorphous deposits in the mitochondria
b. ..
c. ..
d. ..
144)
In Lysosomal
Storage Disorders, true is:
a. The lysosomes
are deficient in the enzyme hydrolase
b. There is a defect in the fusion od lysosomes and phagosomes
c. There is a defect in the lysosomal
membrane
d. ..
145)
Comparison of the value
obtained and a predetermined objective is done by:
a. Evaluation
b. Monitoring
c. Input - output analysis
d. Network analysis
146)
Meiosis occurs at which of
the following transformation:
a. Primary spermatocyte to
intermediate spermatocyte
b. Primary spermatocyte to
secondary spermatocyte
c. Secondary spermatocyte to
round spermatid
d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid
147)
Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for:
a. FSH
b. LH
c. Inhibin
d. ..
148)
According to the new WHO
criteria, all are true in a normal person except:
a. Sperm count > 20 million
b. Volume > 1 ml
c.
d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 %
149)
18 year old male presents
with pectus excavatum. He
denies history of any dyspnoea or chest pain. On
examination there is mild pectus excavatum
and intermittent wheezing on exertion. Surgery in this patient is indicated if
he has:
a. FEV1 / FVC less than 0.60
b. Limiation of maximum
inspiration during exercise
c. Peak work capacity 60% of expected
d. Functional work capacity 80% of expected
150)
Following is associated
with maximum risk of invasive carcinoma of cervix:
a. Low grade squamous
intraepithelial lesion
b. High grade squamous
intraepithelial lesion
c. Squamous intraepithelial
lesion associated with HPV-16
d. Squamous intraepithelial
lesion associated with HIV
151)
Maternal Mortality Rate is
calculated by:
a. Maternal deaths/live birth
b. Maternal deaths/1000 live births
c. Maternal deaths/100000 live births
d. Maternal deaths/100000 population
152)
In HIV window period
indicates:
a. Time period between infection and onset of first
symptoms
b. Time period between infection and detection of
antibodies against HIV
c. .
d. .
153)
In an epidemic the first
case of come to the notice of the investigator is:
a. Index case
b. Primary case
c. Secondary case
d. Tertiary case
154)
In active chronic hepatitis
B, all are seen except:
a. HbsAg
b. IgM anti-HbcAg
c. HbeAg
d. Anti-HbsAg
155)
Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except:
a. Chronic hepatitis B with…
b. Alcoholic hepatitis
c. Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary
stasis
d. Hemochromatosis
156)
Councilman bodies are seen
in:
a. Alcoholic cirrhosis
b. Wilson’s disease
c. Acute viral hepatitis
d. ..
157)
Altered perception of real
objects is:
a. Illusion
b. Delusion
c. Hallucination
d. Delirium
158)
Epidemic Dropsy is due to:
a. BOAA
b. Sanguinarine
c. Aflatoxin
d. ..
159)
Vitamin K is required for:
a. Carboxylation
b. Hydroxylation
c. ..
d. ..
160)
Which of the following will
cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease:
a. Immigration of healthy persons
b. Increased cure rate of the disease
c. Longer duration of the disease
d. ..
161)
A 30 year old male patient
presents with a peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum with a bleeding vessel
at the base. The bleeding is not controlled endoscopically.
On examination his heart rate is 100/min, BP is 110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10 gm/dl after transfusion. Next step in his
management will be:
a. Proton pump inhibitors
b. Duodenotomy with controlled
bleeder and pyloroplasty
c. Duodenotomy with controlled
bleeder and truncal vagotomy
with antrectomy
d. Partial gastrectomy involving
the bleeding ulcer
162)
For a lower end esophagus adenocarcinoma, a trans-hiatal oesophagostomy is planned. The approach would be in the
following order:
a. Abdomen – Neck
b. Chest – Abdomen – Neck
c. Abdomen – Chest – Neck
d. Chest – Neck
163)
Clomiphene citrate is associated with all except:
a. Polycystic ovarian disease
b. Multiple pregnancies
c. Ovarian cancer
d. Teratogenecity
164)
Regarding National Polio
Surveillance all are tru except:
a. Mopping up is done in areas with active cases found
b. ..
c. ..
d. Acute Flaccid Paralysis(AFP) Surveillance is not done
in children < 5years of age
165)
True about polioviruses is:
a. Most cases are symptomatic
b. Inactivated vaccines given I.M. produce spastic
paralysis
c. ..
d. Inactivated polio vaccine are given to child less than
3 years of age
166)
A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization
taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give now?
a. Re-start the immunization according to age
b. Give BCG, Measles, and second doses of OPV and DPT
c. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
d. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
167)
Regarding nitric oxide,
false is:
a. Seen in the lung of smokers
b. Increases cAMP levels
c. Used to treat hypertension
d. ..
168)
True about fibrates is all except:
a. (MOA)….PPARα….lipoprotein
lipase…decreased LDL…
b. Absorped better on empty
stomach and decreased on food intake
c. Side effects include rash, myalgia,
impotence and many others
d. They are the drug of choice in type III hyperlipidemia and hypertriglyceridemia
169)
In a survey, mamny children are examinedand
were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones
having urothelial carcinoma are most likely to be
associated with which anomaly:
a. Medullary sponge kidney
b. Bladder extrophy
c. Unilateral renal agenesis
d. Double ureter
170)
What is true about linkage
analysis in familial gene disorders:
a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is
associated with disorders
b. Useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and
non-affected family members
c. Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-paternity
d. Characteristic DNA polymorphism WITH A CLINICAL
PHENOTYPE
171)
Active method to detect
undiagnosed cases in apparently healthy persons is:
a. Screening
b. Surveillance
c. Case finding
d. Notification
172)
Psychodynamic theory of mental illness is
based on:
a. Unconscious conflict
b. Maladjusted reinforcement
c. Organic neurological problem
d. ..
173)
Positive Schick’s test
indicates that the person is:
a. Immune to diphtheria
b. Hypersensitive to diphtheria
c. Susceptible to diphtheria
d. Carrier of diphtheria
174)
True about Corynebacterium diphtheria is:
a. Deep invasion is not seen
b. Elek’s test is done for toxigenicity
c. Metachromatic granules are
seen
d. Toxigenicity is mediated by
chromosomal change
175)
Primary Health Care is:
a. Health for all
b. ..
c. ..
d. ..
176)
In which of the following
heart diseases is maternal mortality during pregnancy is found to be the
highest?
a. Coarcatation of aorta
b. Eisenmenger’s complex
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Mitral stenosis
177)
Corneal endothelium ion
exchange pumps are inhibited by:
a. Inhibition of anaerobic glycolysis
b. Activation of anaerobic glycolysis
c. Activation of
d. Interference with electron chain transport
178)
About myocardial O2 demand,
true is:
a. Inverse relation with heart rate
b. Inverse relation to systemic hypertension
c. Constant relation to external work done
d. Negligible in quiescent heart
179)
Not a part of informed
consent is:
a. ..
b. ..
c. ..
d. Concealed information…..
180)
Proteins which are
different in peptide sequence but have a similar structure are said to be:
a. Convergent
b. Divergent
c. Opportunistic
d. ..
181)
A patient presents with
hyperparathyroidism. He has a family history of his siblings having pituitary
involvement, thyroid nodules, pancreatic involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia
and cutaneous angiofibromas.
Most likely diagnosis:
a. MEN 1
b. MEN 2A
c. MEN 2B
d. MEN 2C
182)
A 23 year old male who is
otherwise normal complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa
in a waveform pattern which increases during the night and he becomes exhausted
and is admitted in the hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria. Urine examination reveals plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf.
Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Glomerulonephritis
b. Ca-Urinary bladder
c. Ureteral calculus
d. ..
183)
Under the National Programme for control of blindness who is supposed to
conduct the vision screening of school students?
a. School teachers
b. Medical officers of health centers
c. Ophthalmologists
d. Health assistants
184)
A 71/2 year old child
presents with non productive cough, mild stridor
since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is improving but suddenly develops
wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency
and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is:
a. Post viral syndrome
b. Bronchiolitis obliterans
c. Follicular bronchitis
d. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis
185)
A 2 year old female child
developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation
is seen in right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at
8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe
and fever. Your next investigation would be:
a. Bronchoscopy
b. Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx
c. CT scan of the chest
d. Allergen sensitivity test
186)
Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney
is due to:
a. Congenital renal defect
b. Obstructive uropathy
c. Intrauterine infections and scar
d. Is a normal variety
187)
A child presents with
history of respitory infections. His sweat chlorides
levels are 36 and 41mEq/L on two different occasions. Which other test would
you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis:
a. Repeat sweat chloride measurements
b. Nasal electrode potential difference
c. Fat in stool for next 72 hours
d. DNA analysis for Δ508 mutation
188)
A term infant has not
passed meconium for 48 hours. He presents with
distension of abdomen and emesis since one day. Next most appropriate
investigation would be:
a. Genetic testing for cystic fibrosis
b. Manometry
c. Lower bowel contrast enema
d. Oesophagoscopy
189)
A child presents with ear
infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small
perforation is found in the pars flaccida of the
tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the management would be:
a. Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks
b. IV antibiotics and follow up after a month
c. Tympanoplasty
d. Tympano-mastoid exploration
190)
A 18 year old primigravida complained
of decreased fetal movements. She delivered a baby weighing 2000gms at 30 weeks
of gestation. The APGAR scores of the baby were 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes
respectively. The baby died in an hour. Post-mortem examination revealed
multiple, peripheral, radially arranged cysts in the
kidney. Most common associated finding in the baby would be:
a. Holoprosencephaly
b. Hepatic cysts and hepatic fibrosis
c. Ureteral agenesis
d. Medullary sponge kidney
191)
A 30 year old man presents
with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy,
fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent
discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of
the meatus appeared congested and oedematous.
Next best investigation would be:
a. Facial MRI
b. NCCT of the nose and para-nasal
sinuses
c. Plain x-ray of the para-nasal
sinuses
d. Inferior meatus puncture
192)
A 71/2 year old child
presents with non-blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling
over knee. Urine analysis shows proteinurea + and hematuris +++. On kidney biopsy which finding will be most
commonly seen:
a. Fusion of podocytes
b. Acute tubular necrosis
c. Deposition of IgA
d. Thickened basement membrane
193)
In collapsing glomerulopathy, the following is seen:
a. Hypertrophy and degeneration of the visceral epithelium
b. Proliferation of the parietal epithelium
c. Tuft necrosis
d. Mesangiolysis
194)
Which vaccine should not be
given to a child suffering from convulsions?
a. Measles
b. BCG
c. DPT
d. OPV
195)
Not seen in SIADH is:
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypouricemia
c. Volume depletion
d. ..
196)
A 40 year old man, heavy smoker,
complains of epigastric pain since an hour. On
electrocardiographic examination he is found to have ST elevations in inferior
leads. What is the next immediate step in the management:
a. Aspirin
b. Thrombolytic therapy
c. Pantoprazole
d. Beta-blockers
197)
The ureter
develops from:
a. Metanephros
b. Mesonephros
c. Mesonephric duct
d. Paramesonephric duct
198)
A child presented with
respiratory distress.was broght
to emergency with bag and mask ventilation. Now intubated.
Chest x ray shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid
abdomen. His Pulse Impulse has shifted to the right. What is the next step?
a. Remove the Endotracheal tube
b. Put a nasogastric tube
c. Surgery
d. Tube thoracostomy
199)
OC pills are
contraindicated in patients receiving:
a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Streptomycin
d. Pyrazinamide
200)
A patient is on a Low
calcium diet for 6 weeks. He is most likely to have:
a. Raised parathyroid hormone levels
b. Raised calcitonin levels
c. Increased phosphate levels
d. increase in levels of 24,25 OHxylase
in liver