What's in a name.
Whether a word is plural or singular does have a bearing on the meaning of a statement. As well as the object of the reference being a title or the character determines the grammar. What is the grammar and who knows the usages of that grammar. In looking at the word as a character or of a name or title, we must depend on the reference material at hand. Does the reference show a scholarship that is true to the text and to language of the writer, or is there an agenda of the reference author that would render the results vague and inconsistent. What is the majority position on the issue? If a position is taken on the text that is not widely held by the majority of scholars, what is the reason for the difference and why should we use it? Although the Greek language was used in New Testament, the authors of the text were Hebrew. The Jews did not worship Zeus. They did not use Plato or Aristotle's logic as their guide. The Jews were mono-theistic. The Greek nation is the foundation of western civilization as well as being poly-theistic. The Hebrews were distinct from the Greek in that their background is that of Eastern thought. The Greek looks at the world from the standpoint of the individual. The Hebrew looks at life in terms of the community. These backgrounds are keys to the construction of their conversations and literature.
I use the Strong's Concordance and Dictionary of the Hebrew and Greek text. Elohiym is plural, there is no doubt about it. The "im" ending is the Hebrew plural ending every time. The definition is: gods in the ordinary sense as in Judges 16:23 for Dagon, the fish-god and Psalm 96:5 For all the gods of the nations are idols: but the LORD made the heavens. But when used of grammar Elohiym is the supreme God. Elohim is a plural name with a singular meaning, a uni-plural noun, thereby suggesting the uni-plurality of the Godhead. God is one, yet more than one. If this were not so, the Schema in Deuteronomy 6:4 would be little more than a slogan, grammar is one grammar. It is in fact a testimony to the plurality and the unity of grammar. The name Elohim does stress His majesty and omnipotence. This is the name used throughout the first chapter of Genesis. The plurality aspect is reinforced in Genesis 1:16 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness. The clear understanding of the phrase is that of plurality. He was not including the angels, as the angels are never credited with any of the creative activity where Jesus Christ is said to be the creator of all things.
Is God's name lost? His Word states otherwise.
(Psalms 72:17 His name shall endure for ever: his name shall be continued as long as the sun: and men shall be blessed in him: all nations shall call him blessed. ) Is it Jehovah or Yahweh. And what about Yashua?
(Psalms 138:2 I will bow down toward your holy temple and will praise your name for your love and your faithfulness, for you have exalted above all things your name and your word. )
Today the world looks at the Bible as only a book. It is God's word and those who look to his word as truth are his people. They are a people that are called by his name. I am Christian; that is Christ in me.
As for Joseph in Genesis 42:30, the word is Adown: sovereign or controller. Either human or divine for lord, master, owner but there is no reference to this being a plural usage. There is also the word Addown, that is an intense form of adown for powerful but still not a hint that the word is plural. The suffix of "im" would make it plural but that suffix is not in the text.
Lord and God in the Greek are Kurios and Theos. Kurios is "supreme in authority, controller as a Title". Lord would be singular. Theos is God or "The supreme in authority, controller, God, Lord, Master" and is of uncertain affinity according to Strong. Therefore questions about the plurality of Theos are not verifiable. However in John 1:1 Theos is used in reference to two different persons. What is the context of the usage of the word Theos here. Lets start at the beginning.
In the following passages the word "beginning" is used.
(Genesis 1:1 In the beginning God,)
(John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.)
John is clearly paralleling the Genesis 1:1 passage. This places Jesus before the creation and not a part of it. As John 1:3 confirms (All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.) So Jesus is the Creator of all things (panta), not all other things. John 1:3 says all things. Some poor translations have an (other) inserted in Colossians 1:17 with a bias to removing the diety of Jesus, not by justifiable rules of grammar. (Colossians 1:14-20 Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath translated us into the kingdom of his dear Son: In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins: Who is the image of the invisible God, the first born of every creature: For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: And he is before all things, and by him all things consist. And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the first born from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence. For it pleased the Father that in him should all fullness dwell; And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, I say , whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven.) As Jesus states in (John 17:3 "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.") Any other god is a false one. There is only one God ( I Chronicles 17:20 O LORD, there is none like thee, neither is there any God beside thee, according to all that we have heard with our ears.) If Jesus is "a god" and there is only "ONE" god then Jesus is God. Jesus, or the Word is the objective of the verse. Not 'a god' as would be the subjective case. From my Strong's, I see the Greek word "ho" is the feminin case, "he" is the neuter and "to" in all their inflections: is the definite article; 'the' is sometimes supplied and sometimes omitted. And can also be rendered 'an') John 1:1 then would read "The Word was the God." or "God was the Word". Now as for John 6:70, Judas Iscariot is not THE devil Satan but 'a' diabolos or false accuser, devil or slanderer. The passage is (Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil?) This is an attribute not a title of a person. Especially in view of the fact that Judas is not named. This is the example of the subjective case and is the proper rendering.
Jesus is referred to here as "The Word" or Logos. Greeks used this term not only of the spoken word but also of the unspoken word, the word still in the mind--the reason. When they applied it to the univers, they meant the rational principle that governs all things. Jews, on the other hand, used it as a way of referring to God. It is not a nature but a title. The "Word" is Capitalized to emphasize this.
The sticking point is that the God who created all things, can be one god and three persons. The distinctiveness of God is easy to understand. Jesus prayed with the Father on many occasions. He was sent by the Father. Jesus will send another counselor, the Holy Spirit. The oneness is difficult to grasp in human terms but Yehway is more complex than any human. Jesus was in the beginning with God and not created later. Jesus is the creator of 'all' things. He was not begotten in the sense of having a beginning but is the firstborn in terms of supremacy: 'protos'. If firstborn were his beginning, he could not be both the firstborn of creation and the firstborn of the dead. We can agree that the John 1:1 passage makes it clear that Jesus was before the manger in Bethlehem where he was begotten of the Holy Spirit. It was in the Manger that Jesus was begotten by the Holy Spirit not in the beginning when he was creating all the universe. (Matthew 1:18, 20 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost. 20..for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.) The Firstborn is not of a created nature but is of first place or preeminence. He is the head of everything especially the Church that bears his name. We are the "Bride of Christ". Matthew tells of the birth of Christ and so does John. (John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.) The glory of God becomes a human being so we can behold him. Jesus also tells us how to build his church in (Matthew 28:19 Baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.)
To See God.
(John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him .) Think about what "in the Bosom of the Father" is. This is a relationship that is quite close to say the least. This theme continues throughout John. (John 14:9 he that hath seen me hath seen the Father;) Jesus makes the claim that he is God. The glory of God is now in the flesh as John 1:14 said. The glory of God cannot be looked upon fully as John 1:18 says. But what about these.
(Genesis 12:7 And the LORD appeared unto Abram, and said, Unto thy seed will I give this land: and there builded he an altar unto the LORD, who appeared unto him.)
(Genesis 16:13 And she called the name of the LORD that spake unto her, Thou God seest me: for she said, Have I also here looked after him that seeth me?)
(Genesis 17:1 And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the LORD appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect)
(Isaiah: 6:1 In the year that king Uzziah died I saw also the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up, and his train filled the temple.) This one is a goodie as it is referred to in John 12:41-42 speaking of Jesus. (These things said Isaiah, when he saw his glory, and spake of him. Nevertheless among the chief rulers also many believed on him; but because of the Pharisees they did not confess him , lest they should be put out of the synagogue: ) These are some of many examples of the preincarnate appearances of Jesus who speaks for the LORD in the FIRST person. Don't wory about the blind Pharisees and the earthly consequences of placing faith in Jesus Christ. Look to Jesus for eternal life. This is a gift that Jesus gives to us. He himself has always had it. (1 Timothy 6:16 Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.)
Is God's predominant quality characteristic that of Love? No, it is Holiness. (Isaiah 6:3 And one cried unto another, and said, Holy, holy, holy, is the LORD of hosts: the whole earth is full of his glory.) The righteous Justice of God comes together with the Love of God in the person of Jesus Christ. Just as Abraham was provided for by God in Genesis 22, So God provided for us in (Romans 5:8 But God demonstrated his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. ) Now how could God demonstrate his love if it were not he himself that also provided the sacrafice. Would God offer a sacrafice that cost him nothing?
Who should we Worship?
(Exodus 20:3 Thou shalt have no other gods before me.) There is no way any passage in the Word of God would contradict this important passage. I will not look to number 2 when I am in trouble. I want to call on the name of the One God of the universe and give him worship, praise and adoration. Be sure of it. No little 'g' gods are to receive any worship so this passage would cause great problems if the Father and Jesus were not both the one true God.
(Hebrews 1:6 And again, when God brings his firstborn into the world, he says, "Let all God's angels worship him.")
If "the Word was God" is rendered "a god" then we have a case of many gods or poly-theism. Our worship only goes to God. There is One God yet he is called by his attributes and personality that include a child and a son. (Isaiah 9:6 For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his sholders. And he will be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty god, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.)
(Philippians 2:9-10 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; )
(Philippians 2:6 Who, being in very nature God did not consider equality with God something to be grasped but made himself nothing). Jesus is fully God yet humbled himself.
(John 5:18 Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God. ) Jesus makes the claim he is equal with God.
(John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.)
If this reference was to establish his age then the reaction of the Jews in John 8:59 would seem very strange.
(John 8:59 Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.)
They tried to kill him as a reaction to the intent that Jesus had in the statement I AM. He called himself God and the Jews knew it. As to his age, Jesus is before time as we have seen from John 1:1; he was prior to the creation of the world. Hebrews 1:3 does not say a reflection of the glory of God but the "Exact representation" of God.
(Hebrews 1:1-3 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe. The Son is the radiance of God's glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven.)
Jesus was hung on the tree for my sin in the name of the spiritual justice of God. In the human court however, he was crucified for the crime of claiming to be "the King of the Jews". Blaspheme is the act of calling ones self God.
Mark used Lord or "Kurios" a couple of times.
1:3 Prepare the way of the Lord) Pointing to Jesus in fullfillment of Isaiah 40:3 Yahwey
2:28 The Son of Man is Lord also of the sabbath.) Jesus the creator made the sabbath for man.
5:19 how great things the Lord hath done) Then the man told of how much Jesus had done for him.
7:28 And she answered and said unto him, Yes, Lord: yet the dogs under the table eat of the children's crumbs.) Gentiles
9:24 And straightway the father of the child cried out, and said with tears, Lord, I believe; help thou mine unbelief.
11:3 And if any man say unto you, Why do ye this? say ye that the Lord hath need of him; and straightway he will send him hither.) When the King rides into Jerusalem. Also Zechariah 9:9.
11:9 And they that went before, and they that followed, cried, saying, Hosanna; Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord:) Same word as used in reference to Jesus as Lord.
12:29 The Shema
Luke 1:68 Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people,
Luke 2:11 a Savior, which is Christ the Lord.)
Isaiah 43:11 I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour.) Yahwey
In these usages and throughout the Greek testament, the word Lord is used interchangably between Yahwey and Yashua.
Names are very important to all of us. To look at the spelling of a name is no guarantee that the pronunciation of it is correct. To hear the pronunciation of a name does not guarantee the spelling. When speaking my name for instance, the consonant "K" or "C" work equally as well. It depends on the origin of the name as to whether it is spelled with the "K" or the "C". My name is Kurt. Jesus is the Greek form and Jeshua is the Hebrew form. What about Jehova or Yehovah or Yahwey. Is it "I AM WHO I AM", or "I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE" or is it both. It is no big deal to write my name as Kurt, Curt or Goober for that matter, we had better get the name of God straight.
(Deuteronomy 28:58 If thou wilt not observe to do all the words of this law that are written in this book, that thou mayest fear this glorious and fearful name, THE LORD THY GOD; )
One of the oddities of history and revelation is the loss of the proper pronunciation of the Hebrew word YHWH, the most intimate and personal name of God in the Old Testament. "Jehovah" is a spelling that developed from combining the consonants of the name with the vowels of a word for "Lord" (Adonai). "Yahwey" is probably the original pronunciation. The name eventually ceased to be pronounced because later Jews thought it too holy to be uttered and feared violating Exodus 20:7 and Leviticus 24:16.
(Joel 2:27 And you shall know that I am in the midst of Israel, and that I am the LORD your God, and none else: and my people shall never be ashamed. And it shall come to pass afterward, that I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, your old men shall dream dreams, your young men shall see visions: ...32
And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion* and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call. )
This was fulfilled in Acts 2. "call on the name of the Lord": "Kurios".
(Acts 4:10-12 Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom you crucified, whom God raised from the dead, even by him doth this man stand here before you whole. Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.) The name we call on is very important.
You must be able to trust your translation. Taking liberty with the usage of the word in one place reduces the ligitimacy of the entire work. For example Psalms 14:1 The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. Elohim is the word that is used not Yehway as in the NWT. And what are the rules of grammar that get thrown about so authoritatively. In Titus 2:13 While we wait for the blessed hope--the glorious appearing of our great God and (the) Savior, Jesus Christ. Here "The" is inserted and violates the Granville Sharp rule for the use of the article with personal nouns in a series. In essence, Sharp's rule states that when two singular personal nouns ("God" and "Savior") of the same case ("God" and "Savior" are in the same case in the passage) are connected "and" (the Greek word is kai), and the modifying article "the" (the Greek word is ho) appears only before the first noun, not before the second, both nouns must refer to the same person. In Titus 2:13, "God" and "Savior" are connected by "and." Also, "the" appears only before "God." Therefore, "God" and "Savior" must refer to the same Person--Jesus. (The same rule also applies to the words in 2 Peter 1:1.) There was a motive in the insertion of the word (the), that was to try to deny the diety of Jesus Christ from the passage. Yet diety he is even in the poor translation of John 1:1 that tries to reduce him to "a god". In fact, scholars have conclusively shown that in ancient times the phraseology "god and savior" was used of a ruling king, clearly showing that only one person was meant. In an exhaustive study, C. Kuehne found Sharp's rule to be without demonstrable exception in the entire New Testament.
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