MARLOWE WROTE SHAKESPEARE

 

Use the Internet information linked below to answer these questions specifically related to MARLOWE WROTE SHAKESPEARE:

1. What association to Shakespeare is presented by the Marlowe Society that leads one to believe that Christopher Marlowe's death is associated with Shakespeare's writings?

Well in sonnet 74 there is a line taken from the play that directly relates to Marlowe’s death it is The lines ".......that fell arrest, / Without all bail.........." and this has no relation to any events of Shakespeare’s life. This is what happened to Marrlowe in the official account of his "death" at Deptford as he was stabbed above the right eye by a  "wretch's knife."

 

2. What role did the British government play in Marlowe's death?

 

Marrlowe was said to be chosen at the University of Cambridge by Queen Elizabeth which was were they chose there secret agent spy’s at the time. It was said he was killed for being a spy and there are records of him being a spy.

3. Was Marlowe really a heretic?

 Yes Marrlowe was a heretic as he was involved in an esoteric club nicknamed "The School of Night" which contained a group of philosophers and other poets that spoke freely. He was a member of the close circle and they were called Free-thinkers, they were stigmatized as "Atheists" in order to blacken them in the eyes of the ignorant.

 

4. What similarities exist between Marlowe's writing and Shakespeare's writing? (consider style and structure)

 

The similarities are really in the genera of plays. Marlowe had written several plays that were very successful the most notable one‘s were The Jew of Malta and Dr. Faustus, and the Jew of Malta could be considered the first successful black comedy or tragic comedy. This play also is what inspired Shakespeare to write  Shylock. Marlowe also wrote Edward II, which is known to be the first successful history play, and it was said to inspire Shakespeare’s future plays involving history such as Richard II, Henry IV and Henry V. these plays made a moving tragedy, and contains “fine verse, and an impelling characterization of a weak and flawed monarch” much like Marlowe’s plays did.

                                                                                                                         

 

5. What type of logic/illogic is used to support these claims?

Some claims are logical but for a majority many are just arguments from ignorance saying that both writers poems have a certain Italian influence after 1593 which is not really solid proof that Marlowe even went to Italy after his alleged death.