Your Final will consist of 75 questions. There are 150 questions on this review, so I will take just half of the questions. If you have questions for me call me at my work. The number is 1800-772-8700 ext. 296.
1) The definition of a mineral includes words such as __________.
A) naturally occurring and crystalline
B) organic and solution
C) clastic and mafic
D) foliated and amorphous
E) none of these
2) Orbiting the central region of an atom are negatively charged __________.
A) neutrons B) nuclei C) protons D) electrons
3) The positively charged particles that compose atoms are called __________.
A) shells B) nuclei C) electrons D) neutrons E) protons
4) An atom that loses or gains electrons is called a(n) __________.
A) neutron B) isotope C) proton D) neutrino E) ion
5) Each element is defined by the number of __________.
A) nuclei B) isotopes C) atoms D) protons E) neutrons
6) The most abundant mineral group in Earth's crust is __________.
A) carbonates
B) silicates
C) sulfides
D) halides
E) oxides
7) The resistance of a mineral to abrasion is known as __________.
A) cleavage
B) hardness
C) fracture
D) resistance
E) conchoidal
8) Which one of the following is an igneous rock?
A) rhyolite B) limestone C) shale D) slate
9) This metamorphic rock is composed of alternating bands of light and dark silicate minerals.
A) phyllite
B) marble
C) gneiss
D) mica schist
E) quartzite
10) Metamorphism may result from __________.
A) pressure
B) heat
C) chemical action
D) any or all of these
E) only heat and pressure
11) Obsidian exhibits this texture.
A) phaneritic
B) porphyritic
C) pyroclastic
D) glassy
E) aphanitic
12) Which of the following lists presents forms of coal in the correct order from the lowest grade to the highest grade?
A) lignite, anthracite, bituminous
B) bituminous, anthracite, lignite
C) lignite, bituminous, anthracite
D) anthracite, bituminous, lignite
E) anthracite, lignite, bituminous
13) Sedimentary rocks account for about __________ percent of rock exposures on the continents.
A) 20 B) 50 C) 35 D) 5 E) 75
14) Chemical weathering would be most effective __________.
A) in a warm, humid climate B) in a cold, dry climate
C) in a warm, dry climate D) equally in any kind of climate
15) Which one of the following is NOT related to chemical weathering?
A) oxidation
B) decomposition
C) hydrolysis
D) solution
E) frost wedging
16) A relatively rapid form of flow that is most common in dry regions is __________.
A) creep
B) debris flow
C) solifluction
D) earthflow
E) none of these
17) Which of the following factors contributed to the massive Gros Ventre rockslide?
A) there were heavy rains and melting snow
B) a layer of clay was present
C) the strata were dipping
D) All of these were significant factors.
E) None of these were significant.
18) __________ is associated with frigid regions at high latitudes.
A) Creep
B) Debris flow
C) Solifluction
D) Earthflow
E) none of these
19) The controlling force of mass wasting is __________.
A) gravity
B) earthquake activity
C) composition of surface material
D) water
E) none of these
20) A "soda straw" is one type of __________.
A) sinkhole B) stalactite C) cavern D) stalagmite
21) Permeable rock strata or sediments that transmit groundwater freely are called __________.
A) aquifers
B) aquitards
C) perched water tables
D) springs
E) none of these
22) Which one of the following factors does NOT influence stream velocity?
A) channel roughness
B) channel size and shape
C) laminar flow
D) gradient
E) discharge
23) Which of the following is associated with areas of karst topography?
A) sinking creeks
B) soluble rock
C) sinkholes
D) caverns
E) all of these
24) Channel width multiply channel depth multiply velocity is the formula used to determine a stream's __________.
A) gradient
B) sediment load
C) longitudinal profile
D) sheetflow
E) discharge
25) The percentage of the total volume of rock or sediment that consists of pore spaces is called __________.
A) head
B) permeability
C) porosity
D) hydraulic capacity
E) none of these
26) If the steep side of a drumlin is on the northeast, it indicates that the glacier advanced from what direction?
A) southeast
B) northwest
C) southwest
D) northeast
E) none of these
27) Which one of the moraines listed below is NOT characteristic of continental glaciation?
A) lateral moraine B) terminal moraine
C) recessional moraine D) ground moraine
28) What feature is created when two lateral moraines join?
A) valley train
B) esker
C) arhat(e)te
D) col
E) medial moraine
29) Which one of the following is not related to wind erosion?
A) slip face B) blowout
C) deflation D) desert pavement
30) Which of the following is a wind deposit?
A) barchan
B) loess
C) pediment
D) both pediment and loess
E) both loess and barchan
31) Which of the following is used to describe what occurs to produce an earthquake?
A) plastic deformation
B) elastic rebound
C) Mercalli scale
D) Bowen's reaction series
E) none of these
32) The distance between a seismological recording station and the earthquake source is determined from the __________.
A) intensity of the earthquake
B) measurement of the amplitude of the surface waves
C) length of the seismic record
D) arrival times of P and S waves
E) calculation of the earthquake magnitude
33) The lithosphere is defined as a __________.
A) rigid layer of crustal and mantle material
B) rocky layer having a relatively uniform chemical composition
C) rocky layer composed mainly of crustal rocks
D) tsunami zone
E) plastic layer composed mainly of mantle material
34) The amount of destruction caused by earthquake vibrations is affected by __________.
A) the nature of the surface material
B) the design of structures
C) the intensity and duration of the vibrations
D) all of these
E) only the intensity and duration of the vibrations and the nature of the surface material
35) The mechanism by which rocks store and eventually release energy in the form of an earthquake is referred to as __________.
A) fault displacement
B) stress fracture
C) seismic rebound
D) deformation
E) elastic rebound
36) Plates slide past one another at __________.
A) divergent plate boundaries
B) convergent plate boundaries
C) transform fault boundaries
D) all of these
E) none of these
37)
A) divergent
B) convergent (oceanic-oceanic)
C) convergent (continental-continental)
D) convergent (oceanic-continental)
E) transform fault
38) If you wanted to draw the boundaries of active lithospheric plates on a globe, which of the following maps would give you the most complete information? A map showing __________.
A) active volcanoes
B) the edges of continental shelves
C) mid-oceanic ridges
D) earthquake distribution
E) the global distribution of hot spots
39) The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is an example of a(n) ____________ boundary.
A) divergent
B) convergent (oceanic-oceanic)
C) convergent (continental-continental)
D) convergent (oceanic-continental)
E) transform fault
40) The island of Hawaii experiences volcanism because it is located __________.
A) above a subduction zone
B) at a site where two plates are colliding
C) along a transform fault
D) above a hot spot
E) above an active mid-oceanic ridge
41) Kilauea is an example of a(n) __________.
A) shield volcano
B) cinder cone
C) composite cone
D) lava dome
E) volcanic neck
42) This region exhibits extensive flood basalts.
A) Yosemite National Park
B) Mt. Rainier
C) the Columbia Plateau
D) Rocky Mountains
E) Yellowstone National Park
43) Which of the following is responsible for the partial melting of peridotite beneath mid-ocean ridges?
A) vesiculation
B) chemical reaction with seawater
C) reduction in pressure
D) increase in pressure
E) chemical reaction with atmospheric oxygen
44) Which of the following lists magma types in order of decreasing viscosity (i.e., the most viscous listed first)?
A) andesitic, rhyolitic, basaltic
B) rhyolitic, andesitic, basaltic
C) rhyolitic, basaltic, andesitic
D) basaltic, rhyolitic, andesitic
E) basaltic, andesitic, rhyolitic
45) Hawaiian rocks would be expected to have __________.
A) a rhyolitic composition B) dark color
C) high silica content D) textures such as aa and pahoehoe
46) Once the elastic limit of rock is surpassed __________.
A) the rock may rupture
B) an earthquake may occur
C) the rock may deform plastically
D) all of these
E) only the rock may rupture and the rock may deform plastically
47) The Appalachian Mountains are thought to be the result of __________.
A) extensive volcanism during the Precambrian
B) folding caused by broad uplifting in the Great Plains region
C) extensive hot spot activity
D) a continental collision between Africa and North America
E) rifting along the Mid-Atlantic ridge
48) Orogenesis is a __________.
A) general term for the processes that produce mountains
B) mountain range in Asia
C) type of asymmetrical anticline
D) theory that explains the formation of oblique faults
E) none of these
49) The mountains of the Teton Range of Wyoming are examples of __________.
A) volcanic mountains
B) domed mountains
C) fault block mountains
D) folded mountains
E) none of these
50) The Alps, Urals, and Appalachians are examples of __________.
A) volcanic mountains
B) folded mountains
C) domed mountains
D) fault block mountains
E) none of these
51) Assume that you have just examined several flat-lying sedimentary layers. After much study you determine that there is a considerable span of time for which no sedimentary rock layer exists at this site. You have just discovered a(n) __________.
A) series of conformable strata
B) disconformity
C) angular unconformity
D) example of cross-cutting relationships
52) In order to match rocks of similar age in different regions, geologists often use __________.
A) fossils
B) similarity of rock type
C) sequence of beds
D) all of these
E) only fossils and sequence of beds
53) When a beta particle is emitted during radioactive decay __________.
A) the atomic number increases by 1
B) the atomic number decreases by 1
C) the mass number drops by 1 and the atomic number remains unchanged
D) the atomic number remains the same
E) none of these
54) When potassium-40 decays to argon-40, it does so by __________.
A) beta particle emission
B) alpha particle emission
C) electron capture
D) both beta particle emission and electron capture
E) both electron capture and alpha particle emission
55) Earth's primitive atmosphere evolved from gases __________.
A) produced by radioactive decay
B) collected from the nebula
C) escaping from water
D) expelled from within
E) from the Sun
56) During the __________ period, large evaporite deposits of rock salt and gypsum formed in North America.
A) Silurian
B) Pennsylvanian
C) Jurassic
D) Tertiary
E) Cambrian
57) Most of Earth's iron ore occurs in middle __________ rocks.
A) Cenozoic B) Mesozoic C) Paleozoic D) Precambrian
58) Which period is known as the "age of fishes"?
A) Devonian
B) Mississippian
C) Pennsylvanian
D) Permian
E) Jurassic
59) Submarine canyons found on the continental slope and rise are believed to have been created ____________.
A) by faulting
B) by rivers during the ice age
C) because of a plate plunging into the mantle
D) any or all of these
E) none of these
60) Sediments derived primarily from the products of weathering on the continents are called __________.
A) terrigenous sediment
B) biogenous sediment
C) hydrogenous sediment
D) both terrigenous sediment and biogenous sediment
E) terrigenous sediment, biogenous sediment, and hydrogenous sediment
61) Graded bedding is characterized by __________.
A) being found only on the continental slope off the Newfoundland coast.
B) an increase in sediment size from bottom to top
C) a decrease in sediment size from bottom to top
D) an unsorted mixture of many different sediment sizes
62) Most available information favors the view that submarine canyons on the continental slope have been generated by __________.
A) streams when sea level was much higher than it is today
B) submarine glaciation
C) streams when sea level was much lower than it is today
D) faulting
E) turbidity currents
63) Productivity is highest in __________.
A) temperate oceans B) polar oceans C) tropical oceans
64) The speed of sound in the ocean has been measured to determine changes in __________ of the ocean.
A) salinity
B) density
C) volume
D) temperature
E) none of these
65) The amount of carbon fixed by organisms through the synthesis of organic matter using energy derived from solar radiation is called __________.
A) chemosynthesis B) primary productivity
C) photosynthesis D) none of these
66) The area where the land and ocean meet and overlap is called the __________ zone.
A) oceanic B) neritic C) intertidal zone D) none of these
67) Chesapeake Bay is an excellent example of a(n) __________.
A) estuary
B) coastal barrier
C) emergent coastline
D) all of these
E) both estuary and emergent coastline
68) The presence of which one of the following would indicate that the land had been uplifted or that sea level had fallen?
A) an estuary B) a tombolo
C) an elevated marine terrace D) a sea stack
69) The energy that drives surface ocean currents such as the Gulf Stream comes from __________.
A) prevailing winds
B) wave activity
C) salinity variations
D) Coriolis force
E) density differences
70) When there are two high tides and two low tides each tidal day, the pattern is described as __________.
A) semidiurnal B) diurnal C) mixed D) none of these
71) The two most important heat-absorbing gases in the lower atmosphere are __________.
A) ozone and chlorofluorocarbon
B) argon and oxygen
C) water vapor and carbon dioxide
D) oxygen and nitrogen
E) none of these
72) A place located along a windward coast will probably have __________.
A) cooler summer temperatures than an inland location at the same latitude
B) warmer summer temperatures than an inland location at the same latitude
C) summer temperatures that are very similar to an inland location at the same latitude
D) none of these
73) The fall equinox in the Southern Hemisphere occurs on this date.
A) June 21
B) March 21
C) September 21
D) December 21
E) none of these
74) The term __________ is used to describe the conversion of a solid directly to a gas, without passing through the liquid state.
A) evaporation
B) sublimation
C) condensation
D) melting
E) deposition
75) Hail is most commonly associated with __________ clouds.
A) cirrus
B) cirrocumulus
C) altostratus
D) nimbostratus
E) cumulonimbus
76) A halo around the Sun or Moon indicates that this cloud is present.
A) cirrostratus
B) cumulonimbus
C) altostratus
D) cirrus
E) nimbostratus
77) Low air pressure systems are usually associated with __________.
A) diverging winds
B) precipitation
C) clear weather
D) descending air
E) all of these
78) When are upper air winds fastest?
A) in summer
B) in winter
C) whenever the temperature gradient is weak
D) These winds maintain roughly the same speeds throughout the year.
79) High air pressure systems are usually associated with __________.
A) diverging winds
B) clear weather
C) descending air
D) relatively dry conditions
E) all of these
80) When an area is experiencing several consecutive days of rather constant weather, it is experiencing __________.
A) warm-front weather
B) occluded front weather
C) cold-front weather
D) air-mass weather
E) none of these
81) When an active cold front overtakes a warm front, __________.
A) an occluded front forms
B) cloud formation ceases
C) the fronts cancel one another out
D) a stationary front is created
E) none of these
82) Tornadoes are most frequent during the __________.
A) April-June period
B) month of September
C) July-August period
D) October-December period
E) January-March period
83) Compared to places at lower elevations, highland climates are usually cooler and __________.
A) less changeable
B) sunny
C) dryer
D) wetter
E) none of these
84) The Kumlaut(o)ppen climate classification recognizes __________ principal climate groups.
A) two B) four C) three D) six E) five
85) The most realistic models of atmospheric warming predict that mean global surface temperature will increase about __________degreeC during the second half of the 21st century.
A) 4.5 B) 2.5 C) 5.5 D) 3.5 E) 6.5
86) The Earth-centered system of the universe that was accepted for nearly seventeen centuries was presented in a treatise called the Almagest that was written by __________.
A) Aristotle
B) Aristarchus
C) Eratosthenes
D) Ptolemy
E) Hipparchus
87) This scientist determined the nature of the forces that kept the planets in their orbits.
A) Sir Isaac Newton
B) Galileo
C) Tycho Brahe
D) Nicolaus Copernicus
E) Johannes Kepler
88) The belt of constellations through which all the planets move is called the __________.
A) Planetoid
B) Zodiac
C) Milky Way
D) Parallax
E) Cosmos
89) A relatively recent discovery indicates that this planet has one satellite.
A) Venus B) Uranus C) Mars D) Mercury E) Pluto
90) These objects can be placed into one of three categories: iron, stony, and stony-iron.
A) comets
B) asteroids
C) satellites
D) meteoroids
E) meteorites
91) All silicate minerals contain the elements __________.
A) silicon and magnesium
B) silicon and sodium
C) silicon and oxygen
D) silicon and iron
E) silicon and calcium
92) The appearance or quality of light reflected from the surface of a mineral is called __________.
A) sheen
B) color
C) luster
D) streak
E) fluorescence
93) Igneous rock is formed __________.
A) by crystallization of molten rock
B) by changes in mineral composition
C) at great depth within Earth
D) by the weathering of preexisting rocks
94) Sedimentary rocks __________.
A) may contain fossils
B) are layered
C) may be economically important
D) hold important clues to Earth's history
E) all of these
95) Soils formed on bedrock are termed __________.
A) transported soils
B) residual soils
C) azonal soils
D) bedrock soils
E) none of these
96) The B horizon of soil is also called __________.
A) the zone of accumulation
B) the subsoil
C) both the subsoil and the zone of accumulation
D) neither the subsoil nor the zone of accumulation
97) To achieve flood control, __________ involves altering a stream channel in order to speed the flow of water.
A) rejuvenation B) rectifying C) entrenchment D) channelization
98) When bedrock is criss-crossed by a series of joints and faults, a drainage pattern characterized by many right angle bends may develop. Such a drainage pattern is termed a __________ pattern.
A) rectangular B) trellis C) dendritic D) radial
99) A fiord is __________.
A) a lake in a cirque
B) a drowned glacial trough
C) the name given to one of the interglacial periods of the Ice Age
D) the term used to describe valleys before they were glaciated
E) none of these
100) Which one of the regions listed below represents the late stage in the evolution of a mountainous desert landscape?
A) southern Nevada
B) Death Valley, California
C) southern Arizona
D) southern Oregon and northern Nevada
101) Overall, this type of seismic wave is the most destructive.
A) surface waves
B) S waves
C) P waves
D) seiches
E) tsunami
102) Evidence that supports the conclusion that Earth's core has a high iron content comes from __________.
A) deep-sea drilling
B) meteorites
C) the study of Mars
D) discontinuity studies
E) the study of L waves
103) Wegener's suggestion that tidal forces might cause continental drift was untenable when it was shown that __________.
A) the tidal forces required to move the continents would stop Earth's rotation in a matter of years
B) Earth's magnetic field was too strong
C) Earth's density was too low
D) the Americas were drifting westward, whereas Wegener's mechanism would have them going eastward
E) the Moon's gravity could not affect continental material as far away as Earth
104) Mount St. Helens is associated with a(n) __________ boundary.
A) divergent
B) convergent (oceanic-oceanic)
C) convergent (continental-continental)
D) convergent (oceanic-continental)
E) transform fault
105) Paricutin is an example of a(n) __________.
A) shield volcano
B) cinder cone
C) composite cone
D) lava dome
E) volcanic neck
106) Shiprock, New Mexico, is thought to be a(n) __________.
A) shield volcano
B) cinder cone
C) composite cone
D) lava dome
E) volcanic neck
107) Which of the following combinations should favor folding rather than faulting?
A) high confining pressure and low temperature
B) high temperature and high confining pressure
C) low confining pressure and low temperature
D) high temperature and low confining pressure
108) Which of the following is considered evidence that Earth's outer layer tries to maintain isostatic balance?
A) subsidence in Long Island following water withdrawal
B) changes in the level of the Mediterranean Sea
C) the formation of Niagara Falls
D) uplift of portions of North America following the melting of glacial ice
109) The percentage of radioactive atoms that decay during one half-life __________.
A) continually increases
B) depends upon the particular isotope in question
C) is always the same
D) continually decreases
E) none of these
110) Radiocarbon decays by which one of these processes?
A) electron capture
B) alpha particle emission
C) beta particle emission
D) neutron emission
E) proton capture
111) The most economically important resource in Cenozoic strata of the Gulf Coast is __________.
A) iron
B) fresh water
C) petroleum
D) coal
E) carbon
112) He wrote the first textbook on oceanography, entitled The Physical Geography of the Sea.
A) Forbes B) Thomson C) Franklin D) Maury E) Nansen
113) A rapid change in temperature with depth in the ocean is called the __________.
A) isocline
B) pycnocline
C) homocline
D) thermocline
E) barocline
114) A flat, bench-like surface cut in rock is a __________.
A) spit
B) jetty
C) sea stack
D) tombolo
E) none of these
115) Which is a mechanism of heat transfer?
A) convection
B) radiation
C) conduction
D) all of these
E) none of these
116) A parcel of air has a temperature of 0degreeC as it crosses a mountain range at 3000 meters. If it descends, what will its temperature be when it reaches sea level?
A) 15degreeC
B) 30degreeC
C) 40degreeC
D) 0degreeC
E) none of these
117) A Santa Ana (or Chinook, or Foehn) wind is a __________.
A) cold, damp wind blowing off a snow field
B) wind that is common to the world's deserts
C) very dry, warm wind flowing down a mountain slope
D) special type of sea breeze
E) wind associated with a blizzard
118) If you were 200 kilometers ahead of the surface position of a warm front, you would find the frontal surface at a height of about __________ km overhead.
A) 1.5 B) 0.5 C) 1.0 D) 2.0 E) 2.5
119) The __________ climate is located on the eastern sides of continents, in the 25- to 40-degree latitude range.
A) marine west coast
B) dry-summer subtropical
C) humid subtropical
D) humid continental
E) Mediterranean
120) This scientist's discovery was used to predict the next coming of Halley's Comet.
A) Sir Isaac Newton
B) Galileo
C) Tycho Brahe
D) Nicolaus Copernicus
E) Johannes Kepler
121) The remains of an extraterrestrial particle that is found on Earth's surface is called a(n) __________.
A) comet B) asteroid C) satellite D) meteoroid E) meteorite
122) The mass number of an atom is obtained by totaling the number of __________.
A) neutrons and positrons
B) electrons and neutrons
C) protons and neutrons
D) electrons and protons
E) positrons and neutrinos
123) Rocks that contain crystals that are roughly equal in size and can be identified with the unaided eye are said to exhibit this texture.
A) fine-grained
B) coarse grained
C) porphyritic
D) pyroclastic
E) glassy
124) Sheeting __________.
A) creates concentric slabs of rock
B) is commonly associated with large bodies of granite
C) may produce an exfoliation dome
D) is caused primarily by unloading
E) all of these
125) This drainage pattern occurs when streams diverge from a central high area like spokes from the hub of a wheel.
A) radial B) trellis C) dendritic D) rectangular
126) A streamlined asymmetrical hill composed of till is a(n) __________.
A) arhat(e)te
B) roche moutonnaccent(e)e
C) kame
D) drumlin
E) esker
127) The quantity of energy released by an earthquake is a measurement referred to as __________.
A) intensity
B) stress
C) displacement
D) magnitude
E) ergs
128) Most of the world's deep-ocean trenches are located within the __________.
A) Pacific Ocean
B) Atlantic Ocean
C) small ocean basins, such as the Gulf of Mexico
D) Antarctic Ocean
E) Indian Ocean
129) In 1902, the town of St. Pierre was destroyed and its population of 28,000 killed because of __________.
A) an earthquake that was generated by the eruption of Mt. Pelaccent(e)e
B) a fast-moving aa lava flow that engulfed the town
C) an avalanche of incandescent volcanic ash and dust
D) a rain of volcanic bombs
E) none of these
130) In mountainous regions, the __________.
A) Earth's crust is thicker than average
B) Earth's crust is thinner than average
C) thickness of the crust is the same as other areas of the continent
D) crust is sometimes thicker and sometimes thinner than the average
131) When uranium-238 decays to lead-206, it does so by __________.
A) electron capture
B) alpha particle emission
C) beta particle emission
D) both electron capture and beta particle emission
E) both beta particle emission and alpha particle emission
132) By the close of the Paleozoic, all the continents had fused into the single super continent of __________.
A) Laurasia
B) Pangaea
C) Gondwanaland
D) Europa
E) Appalachia
133) Which one of the following is NOT a requirement for coral reef growth?
A) abundant amounts of suspended sediment
B) shallow water
C) warm water
D) abundant sunlight
134) Thermoclines in the ocean are best developed at __________.
A) both high and low latitudes B) higher latitudes
C) regions close to continents D) lower latitudes
135) When waves reach shallow water, they are often bent and tend to become parallel to the shore. This process is referred to as __________.
A) reflection
B) abrasion
C) translation
D) refraction
E) oscillation
136) Fifty percent of the gases making up the atmosphere are found below __________.
A) 10 miles (16.2 km)
B) 8 miles (12.8 km)
C) 6.5 miles (10.4 km)
D) 3.5 miles (5.6 km)
E) none of these
137) These clouds are often called "fair weather" clouds.
A) cumulus B) cirrus C) stratus D) alto E) nimbo
138) If Earth were not rotating __________.
A) it would lose its atmosphere
B) all air would move in one direction only
C) air would move directly from high to low pressure
D) friction would be eliminated
E) none of these
139) On a weather map, __________ fronts are shown by a line with semicircles extending from one side.
A) occluded B) warm C) stationary D) cold
140) Earth's low-latitude deserts and steppes coincide with the __________ pressure belts.
A) polar high
B) subtropical high
C) subpolar low
D) equatorial low
E) both A and C
141) The first successful attempt to establish the size of Earth is credited to __________.
A) Aristotle
B) Eratosthenes
C) Aristarchus
D) Hipparchus
E) Ptolemy
142) This planet contains Mons Olympus, the largest known volcano in the solar system.
A) Venus B) Uranus C) Mars D) Mercury E) Pluto
143) The most unreliable (variable) diagnostic property of minerals such as quartz is __________.
A) specific gravity
B) luster
C) color
D) crystal form
E) hardness
144) Most of the heat for contact metamorphism is supplied by __________.
A) radioactive elements
B) a nearby mass of magma
C) deep burial within Earth
D) frictional heating along a fault
E) heat trapped by cap rock
145) The most important mechanical weathering process is __________.
A) root wedging
B) unloading
C) frost action
D) hydrolysis
E) none of these
146) Most streams transport the greatest amount of sediment as part of their __________ load.
A) suspended B) bed C) dissolved
147) Which one of the following is NOT true of glaciers?
A) originate on land
B) show evidence of past or present flow
C) exist only in the Northern Hemisphere
D) form from the recrystallization of snow
148) The thinnest layer of Earth is the __________.
A) crust
B) inner core
C) outer core
D) low velocity zone
E) mantle
149) Plates move together along __________.
A) divergent plate boundaries
B) convergent plate boundaries
C) transform fault boundaries
D) all of these
E) none of these
150)
A) shield volcano
B) cinder cone
C) composite cone
D) lava dome
E) volcanic neck