Let us suppose, in a
principle, that the Galician Language has evolved along the times, in the same
way that all the languages do it. However, we must add to this evolvement the
impacts of the foreigner languages used by the Administrations which have
governed the galician country along the History periods.
For the analysis of these
impacts, let us begin in an initial situation. We are in the 1st Century b.C.:
Say a free country, with its
own political government system; with its laws and customs; with its religion;
with its culture; with its language; with its alphabet ...
As it is recorded in the
historical sources,
● Such country was very
wealthy, and thickly populated. It necessarily relied with huge economical and
military resources, because it was able for supporting a very long war against
the first economical and military european power in that period.
● It was a war without
mercy, cruel and bloody, between two powers.
At the end, such country
becames defeated, but
The country is military
occuppied by people that speak a foreigner language, the Latin –the rough
language spoken in the Latius. The behaviour of the conquerors towards the
defeated –who are Rome's SLAVES
now– is so cruel that there are rebelions, which are drown in blood, and
bring new repressions from the conquerors ...
And, as they have had to
believe to us along centuries, the language of the defeated country is
forgotten by his people in 343 years. The period what we fix goes from the
death of Nero, in whose reign was the last documented repression (it might have
others after this date), up to the
This was the Roman
Administration available time limit for attemping that the language of the
defeated galicians were forgotten by them. We are assuming, for nothing, that
1.2
The Compared History, Ideal Tool for The Evolution Analysis of The Pre-Roman
Galician Language.
And now the analysis, by
Compared History, of the pre-Roman galician language evolution begins. And we
begin to make questions to ourselves:
How is it possible that the
Galician Language, brutally attacked by the Galicia's Administrators along the
last 530 years –period from the Catholic Kings' reign, with their decree
entitled Doma y
Castración del Reyno de Galicia (Taming and Castration of the Galicia's Kingdom),
up to the present–, has been conserved by the Galicians without too many
problems; and, however, we admit easily –"because
we always have readen, or studied, such thing"– that the
Roman Administration has attained the total oblivion of their language from the
Galicia inhabitants in 343 years?
How is it
possible to admit such idea without to be assaulted by the most little doubt?
Are we reasoning
this matter in an adequate way, if we have reasoned it in any time?
Is it possible to
find anybody able for imagining to the ROMAN STATE
setting aside billionaire sums for the financing of latin language classes to
their tens of millions of slaves from Galicia, Castile, Catalonia, Greece,
Syria, Judea, Egypt, etc., with the purpose of to attain from them the abandon
of the use of their mother languages?
Why is the HATE to the Roman occupation troops rejected to
the Galicians –the same as they felt against the napoleonic troops in the
Spanish
1.3
The Languages of The Countries Conquered by Others that Spoke a Different
Language Have Arrived Up to The Present, in All The Cases, by Oral
Transmission.
In our opinion, the language
spoken in
The pre-Roman galician was
only spoken by some few millions of slaves that little by little were turning
into illiterate. People fully disabled for the access to the means that
permited the incorporation to the dominant culture, but who had a powerful and
refined language –the result of their millennial culture–
remarkably richer than the Latin. During the Roman occupation, their language
perfectly solved their communication necessities, without to study it in
Academies.
Because, ladies and
gentlemen, if we make Compared History, and observe how were conserved and
evolved the languages of conquered countries which passed to be governed by
foreigner Administrations that used other language, we will realize, in all the
cases, that the languages of those countries have always survived up to the
present by ORAL TRANSFER.
And they were always
conserved by the country's natives who were segregated in the new sociopolitic
situation. The deprived people. Slaves, or poors; and always illiterated.
Usually the huge majority of the conquered country native population.
1.4
Prooves of Oral Transmission of Occupied Countries Languages.
Prooves? All the prooves that
we want are available. Not going too fast of our surroudings:
- Why the Greeks –who
supported the roman yoke much more time than the Galicians– continued
spoken Greek and no Latin, or a dialect of this, after the fall of the
- The galician language oral
transfer, from the Catholic Kings' reign up to the present. In this period, the
galician has survived supporting the additional trouble of compulsory Castilian
teaching to part of the galician population whose mother language was the
Galician.
- The oral transfer up to the
present, of the
- The oral transfer up to the
present, under the same conditions, of the Spanish
The three last cases,
including the assistance supplied to the Administration in foreigner language
by the Catholic Church; the Catholic and Saint Inquisition; the press invention; the
newspapers; the radio; the television, ... . Much more means for
attempting the annihilation of a language that the means available to the
1.5
Some Ideas and Questions About the Galician Language Evolution.
Going back to the galician
language, we know very well what has happened with it in the most longer period
that goes from the Catholic Kings' rule up to the present (the last 530 years,
more or less):
The galician language was
conserved and evolved by the most low galician classes. People mainly poor and
illiterate: countrymen, fishermen, miners, craftsmen, sailors, ...
In this period, the galician
took some loanwords from the Castilian, the Administration's language; but
nobody doubts that they are different languages.
Why is not applicable the
same scheme to the Roman Administration's period?
Are we in front of a HISTORICAL LIE of the Spanish Imperial period,
invented attempting the spanish countries uniformization with the purpose of
"making easy their governability"?
Why to continue maintaining
that the galician derives from latin, against the common sense? Because the
galician and the latin are very similar? Because the galician would had
incorporated some, better few, loanwords from the latin?
Why is it not possible that
both the galician and the latin be two very closed branches of an indoeuropean
derivation, located at the same level, or what?
How many
And this focusing is fully
applicable to the language evolution history of the countries occupied by the