Posted by Zeke [Zeke4Truth] on November 27, 1999 at 17:54:49 {nwG7wj0NI.Qd6.0xyhd2VQ7kkCoKq6}:
APOSTASY FROM THE NEW COVENANT???
Subtheme:
APOSTATE CHRISTENDOM/APOSTATE JWS -- WHY NOT TREATED THE SAME?
We are very familiar with how Jehovah's Witnesses treat "apostates." They that leave their faith, their belief system. They are called "apostates" for life and Jehovah's Witnesses, worldwide, have absolutely no dealings with them at all. No Bible study, no conversation, no association, no meals, no nothing, period. And Why?
That is because, they are "APOSTATES." "APOSTATES." They have deviated from the "Truth." They are enemies of Christ Jesus, and thus have VIOLATED the terms of the New Covenant, the one Christ established, and thus no more have a hope of forgiveness from Christ on the basis of that same said covenant. A close examination of Hebrews 6:4-8 and Hebrews 10:26-31 describes such a condition for the fallen christian.
But what about "APOSTATE CHRISTENDOM," as often defined within the pages of the WT magazine and other publications of Jehovah's Witnesses? Haven't they also, violated the New Covenant established by Jesus Christ? According to the WTS, they have. They are "apostates" toward that same said Covenant.
The WTS asserts that Christendom, "apostasized" from that Covenant, several hundred years after Christ, deviated during Emperor Constantine's time and became full-fledged enemies of Jehovah God, full-fledged violators of the New Covenant, as members thereof, with the "Man of Lawlessness," become "revealed" around that same time. Being fully visible, as an entity, now ruling over the "Temple of God," apostate Christendom.
Yes "Apostate Christendom."
So...why then, is it allowable, yes even encouraged for Jehovah's Witnesses to have intimate association by way of the door-to-door / field service ministry, conducting Bible study, return visits, informal witnessing, association and eating meals with, and ultimately are allowed to help "APOSTATE Christendom" members to the point of baptism? These violators of the New Covenant, the ones who have committed the "unforgivable sin," as described in Hebrews 6th and 10th chapters?
Is Christendom "Apostate" or not? Has Christendom violated the New Covenant? Actually were they ever, yes ever, members thereof, to start with? Which way would you go with this one?
Yes, has Christendom "apostatized" itself from the New Covenant established by Jesus or not? Thus making themselves true "violators of the New Covenant?"
If you are one of Jehovah's Witnesses, you probably will say yes! But ask yourself, if you say yes, then, how is it you as one of Jehovah's Witnesses can have intimate association with an "apostate", by conducting a Bible Study, thus violating the scriptures that expressly say you should not do so with an "apostate", as taught by the WTS? These Violators of the New Covenant?
The Watchtower Society has taught, that Christendom is for many years now the above. APOSTATE, New Covenant breakers. The WTS says Christendom is actually "Apostate." So then, why, aren't the members thereof treated like actual ones who have apostatized from "truth", the way so-called "apostates" from the JWs religion are treated? Why aren't they treated THE SAME? Why?
QUESTIONS TO ASK YOURSELF:
(a) Why aren't Christendom members treated as ones who have been led astray from truth, as ones perferring unrighteousness and untruth instead, as ones not "loving the truth, as taught by the "man of lawlessness," the clergy of Christendom as indicated in scripture at 2 Thess. 2:10-12, and
(b) have thus received the "judgment" for doing so, namely, expressly being "ALL judged" and
(c) having received from the hand of God, real Divine retribution, namely, receiving the "operation of error," sent to them by God Himself for their bad actions and practices, and thus, leading to direct and final judgment.
Isn't it true, once God renders this particular "judgment" against the "man of lawlessness," and his parishners, and has sent the "operation of error", that they are PAST THE POINT OF REPENTANCE, according to the verse?
Yes, when did Jehovah God, actually send, APOSTATE Christendom, an "operation of error?" When? Actually, there is no WTS publication that can directly tell you this, just when this occurred. None.
So, why not as one of Jehovah's Witnesses, reread 2 Thess. 2:10-12 and see actually what it states about this matter. It says:
"and with every unrighteous deception for those who are perishing, as a retribution because they did not accept the love of the truth that they might be saved. So that is why God lets an operation of error go to them, that they may get to believing the lie, in order that THEY ALL MAY BE JUDGED because they did not believe the truth but took pleasure in unrighteousness."
JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES, ask yourself:
Does these verses above quoted, really apply to Christendom, APOSTATE Christendom?
If so, how are we, as Jehovah's Witnesses able to convert them to OUR religion, baptize them, and persuade them to become Jehovah's Witnesses. They are as it were, completely "Un-apostasized" by us, thus rescued by us, completely from the above judgments of God, the mighty of Hand of Jehovah. Yes -- we have rescued them, from the "judgment" of God even, the "operation of error" and the powerful "delusionment" that follows -- after they have positively violated the New Covenant itself. How is this possible? How did we do this?
Zeke