# ***Lord of Lords

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Posted by mntzion [mntzion] on November 26, 1999 at 11:50:26 {2lTH7z2znEi1Us5iQnLw9dahiI6DLo}:

In Reply to: **Lord of Lords posted by Anthony on November 26, 1999 at 08:04:50:

Anthony,

My question was a circuitous way of pointing out that there is more than one understanding of who the term "Jehovah" applies to. My answer to your question if I used my definition of the appellation, would be meaningless to you given the understanding you have of the term "Jehovah".

I might ask why are you asking the question if you are not interested in a variety of answers. This isn't a Watchtower study were the questions and the answers are all predigested by the writing department and served up for robotic consumption.

may you have peace and prosperity
mntzion

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