Posted by Bibleman [Bibleman] on November 18, 1999 at 11:24:34 {KEdmzBXaT6MRXA6xmpscslyACFuF8c}:
In Reply to: *******Concerns about Greg posted by Joseph Malik on November 18, 1999 at 08:07:15:
Thanks Joseph,
I'm also dropping this issue beyond a causal interest. I did check some other sources and amazingly, some have come up with the idea of Jesus eating the passover the day before the first-day of unfermented cakes which they date on a Friday, allowing the following day to be a Saturday (which never happens, of course, though they imagine it. Passover can only fall on Mondays, Wednesdays, Fridays or Saturdays; thus the 1st day of unfermented cakes can only fall on Tuesdays, Thursdays, Saturdays and Sundays, but never Fridays. But I don't need to argue that...).
Anyway, in this way the get fulfillment of the "three days and three nights" in the tomb, only they are still dating these events on the weekend of Nisan 13-16 instead of Nisan 21-23. What is of note, however, is that the John 19:31 reference to a "high day" or a "high sabbath" is understood by them simply to refer to the holiday of Nisan 15th on a Friday. That is, not a combined regular sabbath with a special sabbath as the WTS argues.
I asked for some references, but unless it is a 1st century Jewish reference to something specific, it won't change anything. So I consider this matter basically closed beyond just letting you know that someone claimed that there is a reference in some Jewish writings that specifically explain this reference and that it referred to two sabbath days in a row. I tend to think this is spurious now.
And this is just for the background reference since you're writing on this. I'm now back on the fence on this as well. That's because after considering the context again, with the reference being to leaving the bodies on the torture stake, that the "high day" reference might have been significant if the regular sabbath was not considered in the same esteem as an official "high sabbath" day or holy day. That is, there may have been some relaxation of this policy if the Romans executed some persons who were still alive over the regular sabbath day sometimes. But for those who were very conscientious, they would have especially wanted the bodies down on any special "holy day" or "high day."
That would explain the full context of this statement in making reference to this sabbath being a "high sabbath".
So it does work either way.
#1: That they would have not wanted the bodies left on the stakes, especially since this was an especially LONG sabbath of two days; or
#2: That they would have not wanted the bodies left on the stakes, especially since this wasn't the usual "sabbath day" but a specific "holy day" or high day.
This is new for you just for your back burner. Now that I have you on-line here. This is also your topic.
You're the one pointed out that the "last days" were in fact two days of 1000 years each. Of note, as of Jesus' birth in the fall of 2BCE, those 2 days ended just this fall, 1999) (2000-2BCE=1998+1=1999).
BUT....now I'm thinking there might be a double meaning or alternative meaning to Jesus' words to the evildoer on the cross when he said, "Truly I tell you, today you will be with me in paradise."
And that's because, as far as Jesus was concerned, thinking that far in advance, he could have had the ultimate DAY OF JEHOVAH being in reference to the 7th Creative Day. That is, this evildoer would see Jesus before the end of the 7th Creative Day. So when he said, "Truly I tell you, TODAY you will be with me in Paradise..." that is a true statement if Jesus had in mind this last Creative Day. If so, this was a reference that before this creative day was out, this man would be resurrected. Certainly Jesus understood this and thought in terms of his obligations toward the Earth, right up to the time when he would turn everything back over to Jehovah after everything was restored.
So now I'm on the fence on that as well. Ultimately, we learn from this that at least the second resurrection (whether during or after the millennium) must take place before the end of the 7th Creative Day! This would simply confirm that Judgment Day (whenever it takes place) would have to occur before the end of the present CREATIVE DAY.
This is advanced and neither here nor there for most, but since you do have the concept of the "last days" being two days of 2,000 years, which I believe is certainly valid, I thought you might want to muse on this. I haven't been able to quite decide.
From your standpoint, since you have published on this, it presents an alternative argument putting more pressure on whether or not Jesus' statement actually should be translated: "Truly I tell you, today you will be with me in Paradise." Though I don't think in this isolated case it will ever be confirmed. But it does work both ways from a technical standpoint depending upon which "DAY" you're talking about. It doesn't work for that same 24-hour day, but it does work for the 7th Creative Day.
And that is as much as I'm going to bother you with at this point! (aren't you glad!) No comments necessary, just some loose ends I wanted to touch bases with you about.
Take care and my greetings to Elizabeth. Know that every time a hurricane hits the East coast where you are I worry about you two.
Cheers,
Bibleman