Posted by 2 clues [Joshua1992] on November 16, 1999 at 06:18:38 {pRztWiaeukf9UnUPxURUgm0mCI9FhA}:
How do you identify the modern-day AntiChrist? Here are two scriptures to help us:
2 Thess. 2:3-4: Let no one seduce you in any manner, becauwe it [Christ's presence] will not come unless the apostasy comes first and the man of lawlessnett gets revealed, the son of destruction. 4 He is set in opposition and lifts himself up over everyone who is called "god"[the "anointed remnant"] or an object of reverence, so that he sits down in the temple of The God, publicly allowing himself to be a god."
This scripture tells us some important thing, probably the most important of which is that the apostasy is from within Jehovah's organization or his temple. That means this apostasy would be from among the anointed remnant associated with Jehovah's Witnesses since this organization if God's temple organization. Furthermore, it is clear whom this "man of lawlessness" must be since in order to lord over the other anointed ones ("gods" or "revervent ones" - Ps. 82:6) it must take over and rule the temple organization. So the man of lawlessness not only comes out of God's temple but it is whoever is in charge of God's temple oganization when the Messiah arrives.
2 John 7: "For many deceivers have gone forth into the world, persons not confessing Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh. This is the deceiver and the antichrist."1 John 4:2 "You gain knowledge of the inspired expression from God by this: Every inspired expression that confesses Jesus as having come in the flesh originates with God, but every inspired expression that does not confess Jesus does not originate with God. Furthermore, this is the antichrist's inspired expression which you have heard was coming, and now it is already in the world"
Whoever the AntiChrist is, they will be saying that Jesus did not come in the flesh. This is also prophetic of a future event as well. For instance, since JWs have at times thought Jesus arrived in either 1874 or 1914, they have said he did not come in the flesh but came in spirit and thus his coming was invisible. This fits the AntiChrist's expression.
But also of note is that if this is the expression of error, that is, that Jesus Christ would not come in the flesh, then that means that the true expression is that Jesus would, indeed, come in the flesh. This is supported by other scriptures which shows Jesus along with the 144,000 will rule in the earth during the millennium.
In addition, the two wave offerings also indicate Jesus would arrive in the flesh. The first one on Nisan 16th appropriately is without leaven, representing Jesus' coming for the sake of a sacrifice for sin. But "the second time that he appears it will be apart from sin and to those earnestly looking for him for their salvation." (Heb. 9:28) Jesus need not appear in the perfect flesh again but as the second wave offering which does contain leaven proves, Jesus will appear in the flesh again, but this time in the imperfect flesh which is what the leaven in the second wave offering represents. This proves Jesus' Second Coming will certainly be in the flesh. The AntiChrist will not understand this.
Cheers,
Joshua1992