# *"Original Sin"?

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Posted by Bibleman [Bibleman] on November 13, 1999 at 18:29:17 {OA5YBxH8IAMRXA6xmpscslyACFuF8c}:

In Reply to: "Original Sin"? posted by KC on November 13, 1999 at 10:23:05:

Good point!

Seems like there's a contradiction here with God causing errors for sons to fall to their children on one hand and then people being responsible for their individual sins.

Of course, the concept of the "original sin" falling to the children is also the basis of the "Original Ransom." That's how the Ransom Sacrifice works. Because if through one man sin came to all men, then through one righteous man's sacrifice (Jesus Christ, a.k.a Biblically as "Michael, the archangel") all man could be forgiven.

But this Ransom Sacrifice didn't apply to all kinds of sin. Just that inherited to Adam. That is, this gave forgiveness for what they inherited from Adam. But if a person goes beyond that sin, then they must answer for that sin at Judgment Day.

Thus in one way, some sins are passed from father to son and later generations and that works for the good of mankind since the ramson depends upon that. Otherwise, billions of righteous persons would have be be sacrificed for billions of individuals.

On the other hand, individual sins which are outside of Adamic sin, are judged on an individual basis.

So there are two kinds of sin being dealt with. Those sins that God holds us individually responsible for, and those kinds of sins where punishment is taken out on the descendants.

But in the end, ultimately, at Judgment Day, which will deal with a person's eternal life, they will be judged individually, which is great! Those who have worked hard to do good and be good will be rewarded for that. Those who have sought to harm their fellowman and ignore God will not be extended life in his new order, but will be thrown into the lake of fire, a place of torment that burns FOREVER, AND EVER AND EVER!

So when considering "sin", one must consider the context and understand there is more than one reference to sin and its penalities being spoken of here. The bottom line, though, is BOTH rules apply, but at different times. So while on the surface if might seem confusing to those who don't understand Biblical conceptuation, there really is no conflict here.

Cheers,
Bibleman

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