Posted by Tom [Zachary] on November 08, 1999 at 21:17:28 {Nq8EnQ8RVAp97koDwT8kPaEpA0ijdc}:
In Reply to: Vacillating posted by Noggin on November 08, 1999 at 13:37:04:
Noggin,
It's a quantum leap between saying blood has been misused when it is used as food and saying blood has been misused when it is used as blood wouldn't you say?
Wouldn't the side claiming that both are misuses of blood be obligated to come forth with something more in the way of an explanation than semantic legerdemain? Does all one need do in using the biblical injunctions against eating blood to justify an exclusionary position towards transfusion medicine is to compose a terminology sufficiently generic enough to apply to both?
Tom