Posted by DaJahVeu [DaJahVeu] on November 01, 1999 at 13:03:43 {2gTL9dbN6k/CPYT8orz2oEhE92Gn1k}:
Why did the congregation at Antioch NOT have to clear it with Jerusalem before they sent out missionaries? Why is there no record of congregations waiting or sending for Jerusalem's approval before appointing older men? Why was it in ANTIOCH that by Divine Providence the disciples were given their official name; Christians? and NOT at Jerusalem, to the governing body, and then to all the rest of the congregations?