Charles Taylor, Philosophical Arguments (1995)
Questions & Answers #2: "The Validity of Transcendental Arguments"
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1. Why did Kant think that "we must be able to distinguish . . . an
objective order . . . from a merely subjective order"?
The next sentence (20) isn't entirely convincing:
"Otherwise we would have experience which was not experienced as being of
anything; it would be an experience without an object" or focal point. We might have
an entirely subjective order or focal point, as in dreams & abstract expressionist
painting. These structures/texts are necessarily more meaningful to the
dreamer/artist/subject - the one who creates the order -- than to someone for whom the
structure is a message. Discourse communities (esp. science) require public, if not
objective, focal points that allow members to presume that they are all talking about the
same (public) thing.
2. What is entailed in Taylor's conception of human nature
as "an embodied agent"? (22-3, 25). How is this different from Plato's notion of
human nature? From Aristotle?
T. explains Heidegger's concept of Dasein. P.
23: we know things, not because we are uninvolved bystanders, but because we are involved
- "at grips" - with problems & goals which are specified in the discourse
communities of which we are members. Plato's epistemological ladder identifies an
"embodied agent" as possessing only opinion, a knack or habit which (partially)
works for reasons the agent cannot theoretically explain. Thus she does not really know
what is going on in the event under examination. A. recognizes that people can possess
real knowledge through performance (knowing what a hammer is by using it), but such
knowledge is always a participation in a pre-existing transcendental. Thus, if the sun
exploded & no humans remained, for A. a hammer would still exist in principle or as a
form. For H. & T. it wouldn't because a hammer only makes sense as an instrument used
in a human performance.
3. How do you derive the meaning of "up &
down" - in Plato's outlook? -- in Taylor's pragmatic outlook? (23-4).
As with the hammer, P. would say that "up &
down" have a priori Forms; they have ideal/absolute definitions. Pragmatists
say that all definitions (essences) are social constructions/inventions. Thus, "What
up & down are, rather, are orienting directions of [for] our actions &
stance," 24. They are performative knowledge abstracted & reified into
descriptions/definitions.
4. How do we (Plato) know what the world is like? "We
perceive the world through our activity" in it (25).
P. says that the masses do not know what the world
is like. Like rats running a maze, their behavior is caused by habit, ritual,
superstition, & sloth. Everyone begins at this epistemological level, but the phil.
analyzes experience to discern underlying principles (logos) at work. P. is not a
sophist; the logos is unquestionably there as the cause. Once the
principles/formulas are induced, they substitute for muddled experience. P. theory of
truth offers a correspondence model. Our conception is true if it corresponds exactly to
the Form. An insurmountable problem arises when we ask, "how can anyone check or
examine such a correspondence between an idea in the mind & the object Form?" We
cannot escape our own minds.
5. Explain: "Our perception of the world as that of an
embodied agent is not a contingent fact we might discover empirically; rather our sense of
ourselves as embodied agents is constitutive of our experience." If you accept this
epistemology, what happens to Plato's view? (26).
In P.'s view order/syntax is somehow "out
there," objective. Order proceeds from the top (cosmic) down - to be discerned by us.
If a tree falls in the forest with no one to hear it, for P. there is still sound. Or
consider Newton's Platonic definitions of an absolute volume of space that is immeasurable
or an absolute scale of time during which nothing discernible occurs (i.e., it cannot be
measured). Einstein took a pragmatist view when he said that these make no sense because
the notion of space means that somehow a human being/mind construes how to measure
a particular space. Otherwise it is indiscernible. How could you identify or know where
this putative immeasurable space is? Same deal with time: unless it is
measurable/discernible, it literally does not exist for human beings. Obviously P. is out
of business. His vertical hierarchy (a ladder to God) collapses into horizontal human
communities where the discourse community of art measures beauty, the discourse community
of science measures empirical phenomena, etc.
6. Taylor's pragmatism recognizes Kant's epistemological
limits (we know how things appear to us, not what they are in-themselves). Moving from
metaphysics to epistemology, Taylor suggests that our world (our knowledge) has two
"indispensable, apodictic and true" (empirical) features. What? (28-9).
"An activity has a point." There must be a focal point to provide foreground/background, gestalt/order. An agent/performer "must have some grasp of what he is doing . . . [provided by the experience/performance] involved in doing it," 29.
7. Taylor seems to admit defeat: "this way of putting
it [pragmatism] begs the questions that transcendental arguments are meant to resolve,
such as: is there a reality of which we are aware?" What has Taylor/pragmatism
accomplished? (30).
Replacing the metaphysical (Platonic) question of
"What is real/true?" with the epistemological question of "What is the
focal point (an ultimate concern) for this discourse community"? Morality (the
values/goals we are committed to) and social phil. (what instruments do we use to realize
those goals) become paramount & this are issues within our grasp.
8. Taylor does not claim to have gained metaphysical
certainty, but he does claim (like Descartes) to have gained epistemological or
phenomenological certitude. What? (31).
"These claims can be certain because they are
grounded in our grasp of the point of our activity, that grasp we must have to carry on
the activity," e.g. of how to play chess. We know "the conditions of success
& failure"; the goals are not in God's mind or at the top of P.'s ladder. They
are implicit/tacit in the performance itself.
9. If awareness of the activity we are engaged in (moral
discussion, carpentry, feeding a child, etc.) is indispensable, what happens to Plato's
metaphysical view - a view from the outside (non-subjective), also called "the view
from nowhere" (meaning from no particular/subjective perspective)? How about
objective/transcendental ethical principles (e.g., no abortion)? How can these be
grounded?
In the pragmatist outlook, every value is a human,
social judgment. Abortion, capital punishment, welfare, & every other issue does not
have an a priori right answer. If they did - if such a priori Forms/absolutes
existed - one is obliged to explain their level of existence. How do they exist, since
they are clearly value judgments & not empirical objects? The historical answer has
been that they are transcendentals (Platonic Forms) or judgments/ideas in the mind of God.
The problem with this answer is that philosophically/logically it really is not an answer.
When one has recourse to God, then mere human/philosophic thinking comes to an abrupt end.
The pragmatic view must necessarily consider the concept of God like any other
abstraction; as an idealization induced from human experience. Where else could the
definition come from? Notice that this is not a skeptical answer. It does not imply that
the concept of God is an illusion or meaningless; it simply insists that if it is
meaningful, it must be so by referring to human experience. Let's switch to physics for
another illustration. How does one know that Stephen Hawking or Albert Einstein's notions
are true? Strictly speaking (following Kant's notion of phenomenology) one cannot
know they are true. The usual defense is to say they work, that if you do X the result is
Y. However, this is a pragmatic argument (if you follow the technique or do the
experiment, you will produce the results we are interested in).
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On to #3: "Explanation & Practical Reason"
Oct. 96
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