Charles Taylor, Philosophical Papers 2
Questions & Answers #6: "Foucault on Freedom & Truth"
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1, In the first sentence, T. says, "Foucault disconcerts," 152. How so?
T. doesn't directly enough say so, but, F. (as other posties) believes that culture (including the activities of specialized discourse communities) is 100% the product of texts (linguistic forces). There can be no a priori values. F.'s historical analysis demonstrates how putatively disinterested "sciences" (the law, medicine) are motivated by power/domination. Thus F. defers to Nietzsche: without the possibility of getting in touch with any a priori value, all human acts appear to be operations of power (will-to-power). If this is truly the case, then history should have a disinterested, flat tone comparable to Darwin's "history" of which species won, which perished. However, most of the time F.'s tone is one of outrage. It is easy to initially misread him as Marx, so that the expose of, say legal history in England, seems to be an unconscionable and outrageous affront to truth and freedom. Yet theoretically "Foucault seems to repudiate both. The idea of a liberating truth is a profound [Romantic] illusion. There is no truth which can be espoused, defended, rescued against systems of power," i.e., systems defined exclusively as operations of power, 152. "And there is no escape from power into freedom, for such systems of power are co-extensive with human society. We can only step from one [system in]to another," 153.
2. T. alludes to the openings of Discipline & Punishment with its horrifying account of the execution of a regicide in 1757 in Paris. T. then says that our reaction to this account indicates Europe/Am. has undergone a paradigm shift in values since that time: "the whole background notion of order has disappeared for us" & been replaced by "Modern humanitarianism," 155. Even if T. lets you off the hook ("No once can claim to understand it fully"), try to contrast the two orders. What is authoritative in a late medieval, pre-Enlightenment outlook & what is authoritative in a contemporary American outlook?
T. provides the elements. "In traditional ethics, ordinary life is overshadowed by . . . higher activities," 155. Your subjective experience is not important as such. The life of Christ or a saint is authoritative & your life is valuable ("saved") in so far as it imitates the model. Unauthorized (i.e. individual) behavior or feelings are condemned as sinful. The Neoclassical age was one of wigs, brocade clothes, Mozart's music, & literature like Alexander Pope's "The Rape of the Lock." An expression of sincerity is embarrassingly inelegant. Romanticism claimed that "feelings are a key to the good life," 156. In Freudian outlook, feelings are condemned as ethical violations from the high view of the super-ego. If feelings are to be valued qua feelings, then the social outlook which condemned them because of their status as mere feelings, must be destroyed. It was. Romanticism won the day relocating authority subjectively: this experience/feeling/choice is valuable precisely because it is mine; it is my feeling, my choice. What was hidden because it was embarrassing & sinful is now proudly displayed as an accomplishment. Again, watch Oprah (& all the similar displays going back to Rousseau's Confessions with its nasty psychological & physical revelations). Order is produced by my emotional choices (e.g., in marriage).
3. On 158 T. says F. provides as an example of the shift from Neoclassical to Romantic values, the status of the law. In Neoclassical outlook the law was considered sovereign & the king, either as the personification of the law or its most important guardian, was sovereign. We know that this model was inverted by Rousseau's model of social contractualism & by Bentham's Utilitarianism; both of which define the law as the product of individual choice, where the choice (not the law) is sovereign or authoritative. This is too theoretical for F. How does F. characterize our contemporary notion of what replaced a Neoclassical concept of law?
4. The Romantic model suggests that our feelings, which gives rise to our thoughts, originate from an unspecifiable (even if divine) process or source. On 160 T. paraphrases F.'s social structural theory of why we think the way we do. How does this work?
"The objectifying & domination of inner
nature comes about . . . through training [a new language] in an interiorization of
certain disciplines. The disciplines of organized bodily movement [including
clothes/fashion], of the employment of time, of ordered dispositions of living/working
space; these are the paths by which objectification [i.e., value judgments] really takes
place . . . & takes on the dimensions of a mass phenomenon," 160. "But the
disciplines which build this new way of being are social; they are the disciplines of the
barracks, the hospital, the school, the factory." Consequently, they can be subverted
or at least nuanced by others in the system. Notice how thinly described F.'s behaviorism
is: "These are the [behavioral] loci where forms of domination become entrenched
through being interiorized." One wonders how that happens so mechanically in the face
of subversive evidence from Dostoyevsky's Notes From Underground to Solzhenitsyn's The
Gulag Archipelago. The narrow/technical answer is "his Nietzschean refusal of the
notion of truth as having any meaning outside a given order of power," so that
critical texts necessarily seek to modify terms within the language they cannot entirely
escape. Thus Islam was a critique of Christianity, which was a critique of Judaism and
paganism, and Romanticism is a critique of Neoclassicism. This point does not entirely
answer my epistemological objection of how one can be so confident that the social/
theoretical program has exactly the predicted effect of causing a specific feeling in an
agent? One way to get out of this enigma is to offer a second half to the question by
conceding that one can know that feeling only by asking the agent who must then have
recourse to the same theoretical model in order to articulate her feeling. If the same
word/concept comes up from both sides, then you know . . . at least that both of you are
operating in roughly the same social reality.
5. T. says that "Central to the Romantic notion of liberation is the notion that the [homosexual, female, black, etc.] nature within us must [be allowed to] come to expression" such that it speaks primally in its own voice instead of reading a social script, 160. What is F.'s reaction to this?
"F. aims to dismantle this whole conception, & show it to be through-going illusion," 161. We have been over the ground of why this is in the form of pragmatic epistemology: that 1) inarticulate & primal feelings become 2) articulated & conceptual by connecting with or fitting into linguistic forms taught to us by society. The supposition that #2 has already formed #1 on the level of instinct or biology violates the ontological order. Moreover, "F.'s ideas seems to be that the notion that we have [e.g., an essential] sexual nature is itself a product of those modes of knowledge designed to make us objects of control. Our acceptance that we have such a nature makes us an object of such control," 161. Notice the implication of victimization at the end. Controlled by whom? Since Kant, control by anyone, no matter how innocuous or benign, strikes a vital nerve.
6. Can one totally escape social control? This is the Romantic illusion of, e.g., Thoreau: to be a thoroughly self-made man; not to be defined by anyone else. If everyone is involved in will-to-power projects, mine is as authentic & authoritative as anyone else's. This is the line of thinking that makes F. sound to me paranoid & priest haunted, always on guard against unintentionally falling prey to someone else's will-to-power project. But total individual freedom which exempts one from every social involvement, because it threaten to enslave one, is as undesirably sterile as it is impossible. How does T. make this point? See 165.
7. F. is a very big deal. Thus when T. says, "I think F.'s position is ultimately incoherent" (167), he knows that he will have to muster convincing evidence. What is it?
8. "'Power' without 'freedom' or 'truth': can there really be" one (power) without the others? Are they not all concepts? Without regressing, to nominate Power as a reductive metaphysical cause, how can F. hope to make his project plausible?
"'Power in the way F. sees it, closely linked to 'domination,' does not require a clearly demarcated perpetrator, but it requires a victim," 174. As in Hobbesian/Newtonian mechanics, the status of adjective is dismissed as too subjective (e.g., the intention of an agent) & replaced by a study of empirical effects. Apparently power does not need an agent; "power needs targets. Something must be . . . imposed on someone, if there is to be domination. . . . Then there must be an element of fraud, illusion, false pretences involved in this," otherwise how is it domination? 174. However, domination implies that I have my own intentions, which it forces out or freezes into inactivity. "I am arguing that power, in his sense, does not make sense without at least the idea of liberation," 175-6. Additionally, "Mask, falsehood makes no sense without a corresponding notion of truth," 176. The target for power is not just a spatial metaphor indicating an agent, it implies the truth which it seeks to subvert.
9. In human growth & development, the gestalt of a later stage offers a negative view of earlier stages. Thus the post-pubescent ego can look back with some smugness to smile at the unsuccessful attempts of the pre-pubescent ego to comprehend the experience of sex. Should the earlier outlook be absolutely condemned as a sham? T. says, "F. would have us believe so," 181. The next question is then against what background? Obviously, the current outlook must feel uneasy, knowing that its outlook is likely to be similarly seen through as illusory from the next stage.
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On to #10: "Legitimation Crisis?"
Nov. 96
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