(Gay Theology)
Jesus condemns and points the finger at hypocrisy and narrow mindness more than at sexuality. When asked what should be done about the women caught in adultery He said "he that is without sin let him first cast a stone at her" (John 8:7). Jesus futher more tells the woman that "I also do not judge you".
Other than the words of Jeuse there are four passages in the New Testament that have been used to condemn homosexuality.
1 Corinthians 6:9
Romans 1:27
Romans 1:26
However these passages are not the final word in themselves but are a succession of interpretations. For example in 1 Corinthians the word homosexual was in place at 1971 in the living bible but prior to that the word was translated from the original text as "abuser" in 1500's, in 1958 as pervert.
In all the four passages, there is vagueness and the possibility of different interpretations. Futher more it was in the tradition of the church prior to the 1900's to interpret 1 Corinthians as referring to masturbation and not to homosexuality. The change in interpretation may be due to relaxation of attitudes toward masturbation.
Even if the New Testament disapproves of homosexuality, it also approves of and strongly defends slavery.
Leviticus 25: 44-45
1 Timothy 6:1-2
1 Peter 2: 18-21
1 Corinthians 7: 20-22
Ephesians 6: 5-8
Does this mean that we also should endorse and approve of slavery?
