Is an Arab Superior to a non-Arab?

Assalam o Alaikum 

I hope and pray for your well being, Amen.

Please find the question about the superiority of the

Arabs over non-Arabs, and let me know about your thoughts. JazakAllah khair.

Mohammad Khan

Question Starts here:

I am curious about the veracity of the claims that the Arabs are superior to non-Arabs. Is this truly a view that was held by some of the sahaba? I have come across the following three proofs (Please see below) of this claim.

Answer:

Dear brother Mohammad Khan, Walekum Assalam WRWB

Thank you for asking this question. May Allah give you reward and understanding of his Deen, Amen!

         Before I give my analysis and submission on the proofs given by you, I would like to draw your attention to the Qur’anic verse and the decree of the Messenger of Allah during his Hajj which are final words on this issue. Please recall that the Messenger of Allah had performed only one Hajj; even that Hajj was done just one year before his death. Also, the Qur’anic verse itself is binding for all people of all times. Thus, this address which contains the verse as well supersedes all other ahadith in this regard. The following quotation from the address of Hajj-ul-wida’ contains the relevant verse as well:

“O People, listen to my words, for I do not know whether we shall ever meet again and perform Hajj after this year. O People, Allah says, ‘O People, we created you from one male and one female and made you into tribes and nations, so as to be known to one another. Verily in the sight of Allah, the most honored amongst you is the one who is most God-fearing (Al-Hujurat 49: 13).’There is no superiority for an Arab over a non-Arab and for non-Arab over an Arab, neither for the white over the black, nor for the black over the white except in God-fearing (Taqwa).” 

         Now my comments on the proofs provided by you (the rest of the text has been deleted for the sake of brevity; Editor).

Proof #1.Zaynab bint Jahsh (ra) said that the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) entered upon her and he was disturbed and he said: [”There is no God worthy of worship but Allah! Woe unto THE ARABS from the evil that has come close.”] Bukhari (#7135) and Muslim (#7164)

Umm Shuraik (ra) said she heard the Prophet (peace be upon him) say:

[”The people will run from Ad-Dajjaal by fleeing to the mountains”. So she said: “Yaa Rasoolilah! Where will THE ARABS be at time”? He said, “They will be few (in numbers).”] Muslim (#7319)

Comment: I fail to understand how these ahadith can be used to prove that an Arab has superiority over a non-Arab. The only thing that can be deduced at the most is that, at the time of these dialogues, the Arabs were the focus of warning of the Messenger (S). We all know that the da’wah and warning are given gradually, first to one’s own family, then to one’s own tribe, then to one’s own nation, and then to all humanity. This is the rule given by Allah when he says:

And warn your nearest relatives. (Ash-Shu’ara 26: 214) 

Proof #2.Waathilah ibn Al-Asqa (ra) reported that he heard the Prophet (peace be upon him) say: [Verily Allah CHOSE Kinaanah from the children of Ismail, and He CHOSE Quraish from Kinaanah, and He CHOSE Bani Haashim from Quraish and He CHOSE me from Bani Haashim.] Muslim (#2276)

Comment: Yes, the word chose is a proper word. It does not convey the concept of superiority. It just coveys the idea that a certain person was chosen from among the equals for certain mission or job. Remember, Allah says that he had chosen the children of Israel for certain mission, even though the children of Ismail were there, too, in the word. Does this mean that the children of Israel were superior to or better than the children of Ismail, through out the history, till the birth of the Messenger of Allah (S)? Certainly not! Previously, Allah had chosen the children of Israel for conveying his mission; but now he has chosen the Messenger of Allah from the children of Ismail to fulfill the mission.

Second, it is a folly to translate the Arabic word “Fadhl” or “Afdhal” into the English word “better” or “superior”. Remember, Allah has used the word “Fadhl” for choosing men for the job of caretaking of the needs of women in the chapter An-Nisa’. Does this mean that men are superior to or better than women? Certainly not! Allah has simply chosen men and women for different jobs and duties.

Proof #3.The famous Hadith of Al-Irbaad ibn As-Saariyah (ra) in

which the Prophet (peace be upon him) said: [”Verily the one who lives from amongst you will witness a lot of differing. Therefore, (you should) take my Sunnah and the Sunnah of the RIGHTLY GUIDED KHALIFAHS. Bite on them with your molars]. Ahmed 4/126

Sheikh-ul-Islam, Ibn Taymiyyah (ra) said:

Verily Umar (ra), when he used to distribute the Deewaan-ul-Ataa (salary register) he would give to the people according to their lineage. He began (by giving to those) who were closest in their lineage to the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him).

After he finished giving to the Arabs, he then began to distribute (the monies) to the Ajam (Non-Arabs)! This was the way of the Deewaan during the time of (all of) the RIGHTLY GUIDED KHALIFAHS (as well as) all

of the Khalifahs of Bani Umayyad and the Abbasiyyeen and then it was changed after that. Al-Iqtidaa 1/446

Comment: This story, too, of the policy of Umar in distributing the salaries does not prove that the family or lineage of the Messenger is superior to the other people. First, why did the first caliph Abu Bakr (R) not distribute the salaries the way Umar (R) had distributed, if this distribution was because of the superiority of the Messenger’s tribe? We know from other stories that Umar (R) used to prefer and honor Bilal (R) over his own son and other chiefs of the Arabs, even though Bilal was a black African, and not of an Arab tribe. 

I hope this answer will clarify the matter.

Allah knows the best.

Dr. Syed Hasanuddin Ahmad